RNAV

Question 1

Benefits of RNAV:

RNAV allows aircraft to take a more ____ flight path appropriate to the route they are flying thereby improving the operating efficiency and helping in relieving congestion on the overcrowded airway system. To facilitate this, air traffic control centres have established RNAV ____ which are more ____ than the traditional airways system allows and do not require aircraft to regularly fly to the overhead of ______. Hence the benefits are:
• A reduction in _______, flight ___ and ___ (and hence costs) by giving airlines and pilots greater flexibility and choice of routes.
• An increase in the present route capacity by making full use of the available airspace by providing more direct routes, parallel or dual routes and bypass routes for overflying aircraft in high density terminal areas.
• A reduction in ______ and ________ separation

Answer 1

Benefits of RNAV:

RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path appropriate to the route they are flying thereby improving the operating efficiency and helping in relieving congestion on the overcrowded airway system. To facilitate this, air traffic control centres have established RNAV routes which are more direct than the traditional airways system allows and do not require aircraft to regularly fly to the overhead of beacons. Hence the benefits are:
• A reduction in distance, flight time and fuel (and hence costs) by giving airlines and pilots greater flexibility and choice of routes.
• An increase in the present route capacity by making full use of the available airspace by providing more direct routes, parallel or dual routes and bypass routes for overflying aircraft in high density terminal areas.
• A reduction in vertical and horizontal separation

Question 2

There are two types of RNAV:

\_\_\_\_ RNAV (B-RNAV) which is required to give a position accuracy to within _ NM on at least \_\_% of occasions. It is now mandatory for all aircraft carrying 30 passengers or more to have B-RNAV capability within Euro-control airspace.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ RNAV (P-RNAV) must be accurate to within _ NM on at least \_\_% of occasions. P-RNAV routes are now being established in terminal airspace.

Answer 2

There are two types of RNAV:

Basic RNAV (B-RNAV) which is required to give a position accuracy to within 5 NM on at least 95% of occasions. It is now mandatory for all aircraft carrying 30 passengers or more to have B-RNAV capability within Euro-control airspace.
Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) must be accurate to within 1.0 NM on at least 95% of occasions. P-RNAV routes are now being established in terminal airspace.

Question 3

There are three levels of RNAV capability:

• _D RNAV which relates to the capabilities in the ________ plane only.
• _D RNAV indicates the addition of a guidance capability in the _______ plane.
• _D RNAV indicates the addition to 3D RNAV of a ______ function.

Answer 3

There are three levels of RNAV capability:

• 2D RNAV which relates to the capabilities in the horizontal plane only.
• 3D RNAV indicates the addition of a guidance capability in the vertical plane.
• 4D RNAV indicates the addition to 3D RNAV of a timing function.

Question 4

The terminal arrival altitude (TAA) is the lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of ___ m (_____ ft) above all objects located in an arc of a circle defined by a 46 km (__ NM) radius centred on the ___, or where there is no __ on the __, delimited by straight lines joining the extremity of the arc to the __.

Smilar to MSA, but:

The purpose of the terminal arrival altitude (TAA) is to provide a transition from the _______ structure to an ___ approach procedure.

Answer 4

The terminal arrival altitude (TAA) is the lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (1 000 ft) above all objects located in an arc of a circle defined by a 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on the initial approach fix (IAF), or where there is no IAF on the intermediate approach fix (IF), delimited by straight lines joining the extremity of the arc to the IF

Smilar to MSA, but:

The purpose of the terminal arrival altitude (TAA) is to provide a transition from the en-route structure to an Area Navigation Systems approach procedure.

Question 5

Waypoints:

With the star points filled, shaded in, is shown. when the aircraft must -

Answer 5

Fly-over the waypoint. prior to a turn

Question 6

Waypoints:

A. star not shaded. in, or filled, is shown when an. aircraft should begin a turn onto the next track -

Also referred to as a -

Answer 6

prior to reaching the waypoint

Turn anticipation

Question 7

Flight procedures:

Manoeuvring:

An aircraft may be manoeuvred at the TAA provided that the flight path is contained within the -

Answer 7

TAA

Question 8

Flight procedures:

Transitioning between TAAs:

An aircraft. may transition from one TAA to another provided that the aircraft does not descend to, or has climbed to, the next TAA prior to -

Answer 8

crossing the boundary between TAAs

Question 9

Flight procedures:

Entry to procedure:

An aircraft established within a TAA area may enter the associated approach procedure at the IAF without conducting a procedure turn provided the angle of turn at the IAF does not exceed ___ degrees. In most cases, the design of the TAA will not require a turn in excess of ___ degrees unless the aircraft is located close to the intermediate segment or is transitioning from one TAA to another. In such cases, the aircraft may be manoeuvred with the TAA to establish the aircraft on a track prior to arrival at the IAF that does not require a procedure turn.

Answer 9

An aircraft established within a TAA area may enter the associated approach procedure at the IAF without conducting a procedure turn provided the angle of turn at the IAF does not exceed 110 degrees. In most cases, the design of the TAA will not require a turn in excess of 110 degrees unless the aircraft is located close to the intermediate segment or is transitioning from one TAA to another. In such cases, the aircraft may be manoeuvred with the TAA to establish the aircraft on a track prior to arrival at the IAF that does not require a procedure turn.

Question 10

Reversal procedures:

Where entry cannot be made to the procedure with a turn at the IAF less than ___ degrees, a ______ procedure shall be flown. A racetrack or holding procedure will be used.

Answer 10

Reversal procedures:

Where entry cannot be made to the procedure with a turn at the IAF less than 110 degrees, a reversal procedure shall be flown.

Question 11

SBAS stands for -

Answer 11

Satelite Based Augmentation System

Question 12

Explain GNSS:

Answer 12

GNSS stands for Global Navigation Satellite System and is a general term to describe navigation by use of a satellite system. GNSS includes some of the following Satelite organisations:

1. GPS(Global Navigation System) which is owned by the US military
2. GLONAS owned by the Russian military
3. GALILEO owned by Europe

Question 13

Explain GBAS, SBAS and ABAS:

Answer 13

GBAS, SBAS and ABAS explains the method of GNSS augmentation. GNSS augmentation is a method of improving the navigation system’s attributes such as reliability, accuracy and availability through the integration of external information into the calculation process. There are many systems available and are generally named according to how the GNSS sensor receiver the external information, and this will be either GBAS, SBAS or ABAS.

Question 14

Basic GNSS receiver specifications:

The main requirement of these standards is for the GNSS receiver to have the following capabilities incorporated:

(a) Integrity monitoring routines, for example, ____
(b) turn _________; and
(c) Capability for procedures retrieved from the read-only electronic navigation database

Answer 14

(a) Integrity monitoring routines, for example, RAIM
(b) turn anticipation; and
(c) Capability for procedures retrieved from the read-only electronic navigation database

Question 15

SBAS standard conditions:

Departure procedure:

The entire departure ________ shall be selected from the on-board ___ base. ___ entry of the departure procedure is not authorised. When integrity requirements cannot be met to support the SBAS departure operation, the SBAS receiver will annunciate the procedure is not available.

Answer 15

The entire departure procedure shall be selected from the on-board data base. Pilot entry of the departure procedure is not authorised. When integrity requirements cannot be met to support the SBAS departure operation, the SBAS receiver will annunciate the procedure is not available.

Question 16

SBAS standard conditions:

Straight departure:

from the DER to the turn initiation point of the first waypoint in the departure procedure, the SBAs receiver provides a nominal full-scale deflection (FSD) of __ nm. Larger FSDs may be acceptable with augmentations, such as an autopilot, that can control the flight technical error.

Answer 16

from the DER to the turn initiation point of the first waypoint in the departure procedure, the SBAs receiver provides a nominal full-scale deflection (FSD) of 0.3 nm. Larger FSDs may be acceptable with augmentations, such as an autopilot, that can control the flight technical error.

Question 17

SBAS standard conditions:

Arrival:

Performance requirements for SBAS in the arrival phase are the same as for basic ____

Note:

(a) Integrity monitoring routines, for example, RAIM
(b) turn anticipation; and
(c) Capability for procedures retrieved from the read-only electronic navigation database

Answer 17

Performance requirements for SBAS in the arrival phase are the same as for basic GNSS

Question 18

SBAS sensor approach performance:

SBAS avionics standards provide for three levels of approach performance:

(a) __
(b) _________; and
(c) ____.

Answer 18

(a) LPV;
(b) LNAV/VNAV; and
(c) LNAV.

Question 19

LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LP and LNAV explained:

LPV(Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance) is the most desired APV approach. It is similar to LNAV/VNAV except it is much more ______ (40m lateral limit), enables descent as low as 200-250 feet above the runway and can only be flown with an approved ____ Avionics receiver. LPV approaches are operationally equivalent to the legacy ___, but are more economical because no ________ infrastructure is required at the ______. There are over 2,327 LPV approaches in use today and the FAA is publishing over 500 new LPV approaches per year.

Localizer Performance (LP) is a recent ___ procedure that uses SBAS precision of LPV for _____ guidance but barometric altimeter for minimum descent altitude (MDA) guidance. These approaches are needed at runways where, due to obstacles or other infrastructure limitations, a _______ guided approach (LPV or LNAV/VNAV) cannot be published. LP approaches can only be flown by aircraft equipped with ____ Avionics receivers. The MDA for the LP approach is expected to be nominally 300 to 400 feet above the runway.

LNAV / VNAV approaches use lateral guidance from GPS and/or SBAS and vertical guidance provided by either the barometric altimeter or SBAS. Aircraft that don’t use SBAS for the vertical guidance portion must have a Baro-VNAV system, which are typically part of a flight management system (FMS). When the pilot flies an LNAV / VNAV approach, _____ and ______ guidance is provided to fly a controlled descent and a safer manoeuvre to the runway. The decision altitudes on these approaches are usually 350 feet above the runway.

GPS NPA (LNAV) refers to a ___ procedure which uses GPS and/or SBAS for Lateral Navigation (LNAV). On an LNAV approach, the pilot flies the final approach lateral course, but does not receive vertical guidance for a controlled descent to the runway. Instead, when the aircraft reaches the final approach fix, the pilot descends to a minimum descent altitude using the barometric altimeter. LNAV approaches are less _____ (556m lateral limit) and therefore usually do not allow the pilot to descend to as low an altitude above the runway. Typically, LNAV procedures achieve a minimum descent altitude (MDA) of 400 feet height above the runway.

Answer 19

LPV(Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance) is the most desired APV approach. It is similar to LNAV/VNAV except it is much more precise (40m lateral limit), enables descent as low as 200-250 feet above the runway and can only be flown with an approved SBAS Avionics receiver. LPV approaches are operationally equivalent to the legacy instrument landing systems (ILS), but are more economical because no navigation infrastructure is required at the runway. There are over 2,327 LPV approaches in use today and the FAA is publishing over 500 new LPV approaches per year.

Localizer Performance (LP) is a recent non-precision approach (NPA) procedure that uses SBAS precision of LPV for lateral guidance but barometric altimeter for minimum descent altitude (MDA) guidance. These approaches are needed at runways where, due to obstacles or other infrastructure limitations, a vertically guided approach (LPV or LNAV/VNAV) cannot be published. LP approaches can only be flown by aircraft equipped with SBAS Avionics receivers. The MDA for the LP approach is expected to be nominally 300 to 400 feet above the runway.

LNAV / VNAV approaches use lateral guidance (556m lateral limit) from GPS and/or SBAS and vertical guidance provided by either the barometric altimeter or SBAS. Aircraft that don’t use SBAS for the vertical guidance portion must have a Baro-VNAV system, which are typically part of a flight management system (FMS). When the pilot flies an LNAV / VNAV approach, lateral and vertical guidance is provided to fly a controlled descent and a safer manoeuvre to the runway. The decision altitudes on these approaches are usually 350 feet above the runway.

GPS NPA (LNAV) refers to a Non-Precision Approach (NPA) procedure which uses GPS and/or SBAS for Lateral Navigation (LNAV). On an LNAV approach, the pilot flies the final approach lateral course, but does not receive vertical guidance for a controlled descent to the runway. Instead, when the aircraft reaches the final approach fix, the pilot descends to a minimum descent altitude using the barometric altimeter. LNAV approaches are less precise (556m lateral limit) and therefore usually do not allow the pilot to descend to as low an altitude above the runway. Typically, LNAV procedures achieve a minimum descent altitude (MDA) of 400 feet height above the runway.

Question 20

The term “Basic GNSS Receiver” designates the GNSS avionics that at least meet the requirements for a -

Answer 20

GPS receiver

Note:

(a) Integrity monitoring routines, for example, RAIM
(b) turn anticipation; and
(c) Capability for procedures retrieved from the read-only electronic navigation database

Question 21

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures(same for arrival and approach procedures):

Operational Approval:

Aircraft equipped with basic GNSS receivers (either as stand-alone or multi-sensor) that have been approved by the State of the Operator for departure and non-precision approach operations may use these systems to carry out RNAV procedures provided that before conducting any flight, the following criteria are met:

(a) the GNSS equipment is __________
(b) the pilot has a current knowledge of how to operate the equipment so as the achieve the optimum level of navigation performance
(c) ______ availability is checked to support the intended operation;
(d) an _______ airport with conventional navaids has been selected; and
(e) the procedure is retrievable from an airborne navigation _______.

Answer 21

(a) the GNSS equipment is serviceable
(b) the pilot has a current knowledge of how to operate the equipment so as the achieve the optimum level of navigation performance
(c) satellite availability is checked to support the intended operation;
(d) an alternate airport with conventional navaids has been selected; and
(e) the procedure is retrievable from an airborne navigation database.

Question 22

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures(same for arrival and approach procedures):

Flight Plan:

Aircraft relying on basic GNSS are considered to be RNAV-equipped. The appropriate equipment suffix shall be included -

Answer 22

Aircraft relying on basic GNSS are considered to be RNAV-equipped. The appropriate equipment suffix shall be included in the flight plan.

Question 23

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures(same for arrival and approach procedures):

Flight Plan:

Where the basic GNSS receivers(either as stand-alone or multi-sensor) becomes inoperative, the pilot should immediately:

(a) advise ___;
(b) request an available alternative procedure consistent with the capability of the FMC system; and
(c) amend the equipment suffix, where possible, for subsequent ___ ____.

Answer 23

(a) advise ATC;
(b) request an available alternative procedure consistent with the capability of the FMC system; and
(c) amend the equipment suffix, where possible, for subsequent flight plans.

Question 24

Basic GNSS:

The CDI sensitivity is automatically coupled to the operating mode of the receiver. its settings are:

(a) +/- _nm in en-route mode;
(b) +/- _nm in terminal mode; and
(c) +/- __nm in approach mode

Answer 24

(a) +/- 5nm in en-route mode;
(b) +/- 1nm in terminal mode; and
(c) +/- 0.3nm in approach mode

Question 25

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Navigation Database:

Departure and approach waypoint information is contained in a navigation _______. If the navigation database does not contain the departure or approach procedure, then the basic GNSS stand-alone receiver or FMC shall __ be used for these _________.

Answer 25

Departure and approach waypoint information is contained in a navigation database. If the navigation database does not contain the departure or approach procedure, then the basic GNSS stand-alone receiver or FMC shall not be used for these procedures.

Question 26

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Performance Integrity Database:

The basic GNSS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the satellite constellation through ____ to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information.

Answer 26

The basic GNSS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the satellite constellation through RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information.

Question 27

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Performance Integrity Database:

Aircraft equipped with a multi-sensor RNAV capability may utilize ____ to perform the ____ integrity function. ____ integrity performance must be at least equivalent to ____.

Answer 27

Aircraft equipped with a multi-sensor RNAV capability may utilize aircraft autonomous integrity monitoring (AAIM) to perform the RAIM integrity function. AAIM integrity performance must be at least equivalent to RAIM.

Question 28

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Performance Integrity Database:

Since the relative positions of the satellites are constantly ______, prior experience with the airport does not ________ reception at all times so a RAIM availability prediction for the expected departure time should always be checked pre-flight. When ____ is unavailable, the GNSS procedure must ___ be used. In this case, the pilot must use another type of _________ system, select another ________ or delay the flight until ____ is predicted to be available.

Answer 28

Since the relative positions of the satellites are constantly changing, prior experience with the airport does not guarantee reception at all times so a RAIM availability prediction for the expected departure time should always be checked pre-flight. When RAIM is unavailable, the GNSS procedure must not be used. In this case, the pilot must use another type of navigation system, select another destination or delay the flight until RAIM is predicted to be available.w

Question 29

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Equipment operation:

There are a number of manufacturers of basic GNSS receivers and of FMCs using GNSS sensors on the market, and each employs a different pilot interface. Flight crews shall be thoroughly ______ with the operation of their particular system prior to using it in flight _________.

1.2.5.2:

The equipment must be operated in accordance with the provisions of the applicable aircraft operating ______. An appropriate _______ shall be available on _____ the aircraft for easy reference during the sequence of loading information into the system and when operating the equipment.

Answer 29

There are a number of manufacturers of basic GNSS receivers and of FMCs using GNSS sensors on the market, and each employs a different pilot interface. Flight crews shall be thoroughly familiar with the operation of their particular system prior to using it in flight operations.

1.2.5.2:

The equipment must be operated in accordance with the provisions of the applicable aircraft operating manual. An appropriate checklist shall be available on board the aircraft for easy reference during the sequence of loading information into the system and when operating the equipment.

Question 30

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Operating modes and alert limits:

The basic GNSS receiver has three modes of operation: ______, ______ and _______ mode. The RAIM alert limits are automatically coupled to the receiver modes and are set to:

a) ± _ NM in en-route mode;
b) ± _ NM in terminal mode; and
c) ± ___ NM in approach mode.

Answer 30

The basic GNSS receiver has three modes of operation: en-route, terminal and approach mode. The RAIM alert limits are automatically coupled to the receiver modes and are set to:

a) ±3.7 km (2.0 NM) in en-route mode;
b) ±1.9 km (1.0 NM) in terminal mode; and
c) ±0.6 km (0.3 NM) in approach mode.

Question 31

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Course deviation indicator (CDI) sensitivity:

The CDI sensitivity is automatically coupled to the operating mode of the receiver. Its settings are:

a) ± _ NM in en-route mode;
b) ± _ NM in terminal mode; and
c) ± _ NM in approach mode.

Although a manual selection for CDI sensitivity is available, overriding an automatically selected CDI sensitivity during an approach will cancel the -

Answer 31

The CDI sensitivity is automatically coupled to the operating mode of the receiver. Its settings are:

a) ±9.3 km (5.0 NM) in en-route mode;
b) ±1.9 km (1.0 NM) in terminal mode; and
c) ±0.6 km (0.3 NM) in approach mode.

approach mode.

Question 32

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

PRE-FLIGHT:

1.3.1

Prior to __ flight operations using basic GNSS receivers, the operator should ensure that the equipment and the installation are approved and certified for the intended __ operation, as not all equipment is ________ for approach and/or departure procedures.

1.3.2

Prior to any basic GNSS IFR operation, a review of all the _______ appropriate to the satellite constellation should be accomplished.
Note.— Some GNSS receivers may contain the capability to deselect the affected ______.

1.3.3

The pilot/operator must follow the specific start-up, initialisation, and self-test procedures for the GNSS receiver as outlined in the aircraft operating _____.

Answer 32

1.3.1

Prior to IFR flight operations using basic GNSS receivers, the operator should ensure that the equipment and the installation are approved and certified for the intended IFR operation, as not all equipment is certified for approach and/or departure procedures.

1.3.2

Prior to any basic GNSS IFR operation, a review of all the NOTAMs appropriate to the satellite constellation should be accomplished.
Note.— Some GNSS receivers may contain the capability to deselect the affected satellite.

1.3.3

The pilot/operator must follow the specific start-up, initialisation, and self-test procedures for the GNSS receiver as outlined in the aircraft operating manual.

Question 33

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Departure:

Straight Departures:

Where the alignment of the initial departure track (α < __°) is determined by the position of the first waypoint located after the DER, there are no unique ___________ for the basic GNSS receiver.

Answer 33

Where the alignment of the initial departure track (α < 15°) is determined by the position of the first waypoint located after the DER, there are no unique requirements for the basic GNSS receiver.

Question 34

Basic GNSS Departure Procedures:

Departure:

Turning Departures:

Turns are specified as a “turn at a fly-by waypoint”, “turn at a flyover waypoint” or “turn at an altitude/height”. For some systems, turns at an altitude/height cannot be coded in the database, and in this case, such turns must be executed _______.

Answer 34

Turns are specified as a “turn at a fly-by waypoint”, “turn at a flyover waypoint” or “turn at an altitude/height”. For some systems, turns at an altitude/height cannot be coded in the database, and in this case, such turns must be executed manually.