Operational Planning

Question 1

RVR detection types:

The RVR visibility readout values from an instrument located in the touchdown zone is called -

The RVR visibility readout values obtained from an instrument located midfield of the runway.

The RVR visibility readout values obtained from an instrument located nearest the rollout end of the runway.

Answer 1

TDZ

MID

Rollout

Question 2

Explain the difference between MDA/H and DA/H -

Answer 2

MDA/H is relevant to a non-precision approach and is the minimum altitude an aircraft can descent to and remain level until the missed approach point(MAPt)

The DA/H is relevant to a precision approach. There is no level flight involved, an aircraft flies a constant descent until reaching the DA/H, which is the missed approach point, from which it must follow the missed approach procedure if unable to land.

Question 3

For take-off alternate, destination, en route alternate and destination alternates the weather forecast must cover a period from -

Answer 3

one hour before to one hour after the ETA.

Question 4

Take-off minima without take-off alternate:

The basic rule is that an aircraft can take-off provided that, in the event of an emergency, it can -

Therefor, the take-off minima may be governed by the -

Answer 4

Land again at the same aerodrome and commence the instrument approach procedure.

Landing minima

Question 5

If the prevailing conditions are below the landing minima of the current aerodrome the aircraft may not take-off, since it will not be able to conduct the instrument procedure in order to land during an emergency. In this case the aircraft will need a -

Answer 5

Alternate take-off aerodrome

Question 6

Take-off minima with take-off alternate:

(4) the take-off alternate aerodrome shall be located within the following time from the aerodrome of departure:
(a) __ minutes flying time from the departure aerodrome in the case of _____-engined aeroplanes
(b) For aeroplanes with __ engines, _ hour of flight time at an all engine cruising speed(one-engine cruising speed according to aeroversity), determined from the aircraft flight manual, calculated in ISA and still-air conditions using the _____ take-off mass; or
(c) for aeroplanes with _ or more engines, _ hours of flight time at an all engine cruising speed (one-engine inoperative cruising speed according to aeroversity), determined from the from the aircraft flight manual, calculated in ISA and still-air conditions using the actual take-off mass;
(d) for aeroplanes engaged in extended diversion time operations (EDTO) where an alternate aerodrome meeting the ________ criteria of sub regulations (b) or (c) is not available, the first ________ alternate aerodrome located within the ________ of the operator’s approved maximum diversion time considering the actual take-off mass;
(e) for an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate the available information shall indicate that, at the _________ time of use, the ________ will be at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating ______ for that operation; and
(f) en-route alternate aerodrome, required by sub-regulation 91.07.7(4) for extended diversion time operations by aeroplanes with two turbine engines, shall be selected and specified in the ATS flight plan.

Answer 6

Take-off minima with take-off alternate:

(4) the take-off alternate aerodrome shall be located within the following time from the aerodrome of departure -
(a) 20 minutes flying time from the departure aerodrome in the case of single-engined aeroplanes
(b) For aeroplanes with two engines, 1 hour of flight time at an all engine cruising speed, determined from the aircraft flight manual, calculated in ISA and still-air conditions using the actual take-off mass; or
(c) for aeroplanes with 3 or more engines, 2 hours of flight time at an all engine cruising speed, determined from the from the aircraft flight manual, calculated in ISA and still-air conditions using the actual take-off mass;
(d) for aeroplanes engaged in extended diversion time operations (EDTO) where an alternate aerodrome meeting the distance criteria of sub regulations (b) or (c) is not available, the first available alternate aerodrome located within the distance of the operator’s approved maximum diversion time considering the actual take-off mass;
(e) for an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate the available information shall indicate that, at the estimated time of use, the conditions will be at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating minima for that operation; and
(f) en-route alternate aerodrome, required by sub-regulation 91.07.7(4) for extended diversion time operations by aeroplanes with two turbine engines, shall be selected and specified in the ATS flight plan.

Question 7

How is the aircraft category determined relevant to an approach chart?

Answer 7

Vso at maximum landing mass x 1.3

Question 8

CATS 91.97.5 Aerodrome Operating Minima:

1. Take-off Minima:
   (1) GENERAL
   (a) Take-off minima established by an owner or operator must be expressed as visibility or RVR limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to be used and the aeroplane characteristics. Where there is a specific need to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional conditions(e.g ceiling) must be specified.
   (b) The pilot-in-command may __ commence take-off unless the weather ________ at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable _____ for landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off ________ aerodrome is available.
   (c) when the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can _________ that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required _______.
   (d) When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may only be ___________ if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.

Answer 8

CATS 91.97.5 Aerodrome Operating Minima:

1. Take-off Minima:
   (1) GENERAL
   (a) Take-off minima established by an owner or operator must be expressed as visibility or RVR limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to be used and the aeroplane characteristics. Where there is a specific need to see and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional conditions(e.g ceiling) must be specified.
   (b) The pilot-in-command may not commence take-off unless the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is available.
   (c) when the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.
   (d) When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.

Question 9

CATS 91.97.5 Aerodrome Operating Minima:

1. Take-off Minima:
   (3) REQUIRED RVR/VISIBILITY:
   (a) For _____-engined aircraft, the take-off minima established by an owner or operator shall be expressed as RVR/visibility values not lower than ___m
   (b) ____-engined aircraft whose performance is such that, in the event of a critical power unit failure at any point during take-off, the aeroplane can either stop or continue the take-off to a height of _____ft above the aerodrome while clearing obstacles by the required ______, the take-off minima established by an owner or operator must be expressed as RVR/Visibility not lower than the minima prescribed in figure 2-2, of this section unless approved by the Director for lower minima as provided in -

(i) for ______ aviation operators Part 91; and
(ii) for _________ operators, Parts 121, 127 and 135 as applicable.

(c) For ____-engine aircraft whose performance is such that they cannot comply with the performance conditions in paragraph (3) (b) above in the event of a critical power unit failure, the take-off minima established by an operator must be expressed as RvR/visibility values not lower than ___m. Such aircraft may be permitted minima as low as ___m: provided the owner or operator submits for the approval of the Director -

(i) an alternate means to demonstrate that adequate obstacle clearance can be maintained; or
(ii) procedures that would ensure obstacle clearance during each departure.

FIGURE 2-2:

Facilities vs RVR/visibility:

RVR/Visibility for NIL:
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge lighting/or centreline:
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge and centreline lighting:
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge and centreline lighting and multiple RVR information:

Answer 9

(a) For single-engined aircraft, the take-off minima established by an owner or operator shall be expressed as RVR/visibility values not lower than 800m
(b) Multi-engined aircraft whose performance is such that, in the event of a critical power unit failure at any point during take-off, the aeroplane can either stop or continue the take-off to a height of 1 500ft above the aerodrome while clearing obstacles by the required margins, the take-off minima established by an owner or operator must be expressed as RVR/Visibility not lower than the minima prescribed in figure 2-2, of this section unless approved by the Director for lower minima as provided in -

(i) for general aviation operators Part 91; and
(ii) for commercial operators, Parts 121, 127 and 135 as applicable.

(c) For multi-engine aircraft whose performance is such that they cannot comply with the performance conditions in paragraph (3) (b) above in the event of a critical power unit failure, the take-off minima established by an operator must be expressed as RvR/visibility values not lower than 800m. Such aircraft may be permitted minima as low as 400m: provided the owner or operator submits for the approval of the Director -

(i) an alternate means to demonstrate that adequate obstacle clearance can be maintained; or
(ii) procedures that would ensure obstacle clearance during each departure.

FIGURE 2-2:

Facilities vs RVR/visibility:

RVR/Visibility for NIL: 500m
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge lighting/or centreline: 250/300m
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge and centreline lighting: 200/250m
RVR/Visibility for Runway edge and centreline lighting and multiple RVR information: 150/200m

Question 10

Aerodrome Operating Minima:

2. Non-Precision Approach:
   (2) Minimum descent height(MDH)

An operator must ensure that the minimum descent height for a non-precision approach is not lower than either -

(a) the ___/___ for the category of aeroplane;
(b) the ______ minimum; or
(c) the height as determined for specific or defined CDFA, if applicable

Answer 10

(2) Minimum descent height(MDH)

An operator must ensure that the minimum descent height for a non-precision approach is not lower than either -

(a) the OCA/OCH for the category of aeroplane;
(b) the system minimum; or
(c) the height as determined for specific or defined CDFA, if applicable

Question 11

Take-off Minima:

2. Non-Precision Approach
   (3) Visual reference

A pilot may not continue an approach below MDA/MDH unless at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:

(a) elements of the ________ light system;
(b) the _______
(c) the _______ markings;
(d) the _______ lights;
(e) the _______ identification ____;
(f) the ____ glide ____ indicator;
(g) the _________ zone or _________ zone markings;
(h) the _________ zone lights;
(i) the _______ edge lights; or
(j) other visual references accepted by the Director.

Answer 11

(a) elements of the approach light system;
(b) the threshold
(c) the threshold markings;
(d) the threshold lights;
(e) the threshold identification lights;
(f) the visual glide slope indicator;
(g) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
(h) the touchdown zone lights;
(i) the runway edge lights; or
(j) other visual references accepted by the Director.

Question 12

Take-off Minima:

System minima for a non-precision approach:

(a) An operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without glide path, VOR, VOR/DME and NDB are not lower than the MD?H values given in figure 2-3 below:

Note: The MDH may be higher, and usually is, than the system minima. The system minima is the lowest possible legal MDH for a non-precision approach.

ILS LOC -

VOR -

VOR/DME -

NDB -

Answer 12

Lowest MDH

250

300

250

300

Question 13

Take-off Minima:

Precision Approach - Cat 1 operations

(1) General

A category 1 operation is a precision instrument approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than ___ft and a visibility not less than ___m or RVR not less than ___m.

Answer 13

(1) General

A category 1 operation is a precision instrument approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 200ft and a visibility not less than 800m or RVR not less than 550m.

Question 14

System Minima:

Precision approach - Category 2 operations

(1) General:
(a) A category 2 operation is an ILS approach procedures which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than ___ feet but not lower than ___ feet and a RVR of not less than ___m.
(b) the approval of the _______ is required

Answer 14

(1) General:
(a) A category 2 operation is an ILS approach procedures which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and a RVR of not less than 300m.
(b) the approval of the director is required

Question 15

Aerodrome Operating Minima:

Precision approach - Category 2 operations

(3) Visual reference

A pilot may not continue an approach below the cat 2 DH determined accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless visual references containing a segment of at least _ consecutive ____ being the centre line of the ________ lights, _________ zone lights, runway _____ ___ lights, runway ____ lights or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting ______ or the landing _______ or a barrette of the _________ zone lighting.

Answer 15

(3) Visual reference

A pilot may not continue an approach below the cat 2 DH determined accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless visual references containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being the centre line of the approach lights, touchdown zone lights, runway centre line lights, runway edge lights or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

Question 16

Take-off Minima:

Precision approach - Cat 3 operations

(1) General

Cat 3 operations are subdivided into three categories being A, B and C.

Cat 3 A decision height and RVR is -

Cat 3 B decision height and RVR is -

Cat 3 C decision height and RVR is -

Answer 16

A, B and C.

lower than 100ft or with no decision height and with a RVR of not less than 175m.

lower than 50ft or with no decision height and a RVR lower than 175m but not less than 50m.

No DH or RVR limits

Question 17

Take-off Minima:

Visual Approach:

An operator may not use an RVR of less than _____m for a visual approach

Answer 17

An operator may not use an RVR of less than 1500m for a visual approach

Question 18

Take-off Minima:

Circling:

(1) The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling are:

Cat A MDH 400ft -

Cat B MDH 500ft -

Cat C MDH 600ft -

Cat D MDH 700ft -

Answer 18

Cat A MDH 400ft - 1500m

Cat B MDH 500ft - 1600m

Cat C MDH 600ft - 2400m

Cat D MDH 700ft - 3600m

Question 19

Take-off Minima:

Visual Approach.

In all cases, once established on final approach, the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing, of course, that he/she has the necessary ____ _____ specified by the operator. This is not ___! It is completing the ___ procedure visually. Unless Cat III_ applies, the pilot will need some form of visual _____ anyway, so if the criterion is obtained at 7 miles from touchdown, what is the difference! However, separation is the responsibility of ATC because there may be aircraft behind and in front of you undertaking instrument approaches.

Answer 19

Visual Approach. In all cases, once established on final approach, the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing, of course, that he/she has the necessary visual criteria specified by the operator. This is not VFR! It is completing the IFR procedure visually. Unless Cat IIIC applies, the pilot will need some form of visual criteria anyway, so if the criterion is obtained at 7 miles from touchdown, what is the difference! However, separation is the responsibility of ATC because there may be aircraft behind and in front of you undertaking instrument approaches.

Question 20

Decision Altitude/Height:

Relevant to precision approach and is defined as the lowest altitude or height at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. The reference datum for a _______ approach is always the ________ of the landing runway.

Answer 20

This is defined as the lowest altitude or height at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. The reference datum for a precision approach is always the threshold of the landing runway.

Question 21

Minimum Descend Altitude/Height:

Relevant to non-precision approaches. This is defined as the lowest altitude or height below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. For non-precision procedures the reference datum is the _________ elevation or the elevation of the relevant runway ________ (if the ________ is more than _ m (_ ft) below the aerodrome __________).

Answer 21

This is defined as the lowest altitude or height below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. For non-precision procedures the reference datum is the aerodrome elevation or the elevation of the relevant runway threshold (if the threshold is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation).

Question 22

OCA/H for Visual Manoeuvre (Circling) (VMC).

This is defined as the lowest altitude or height above the _________ elevation, below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. It is based on the highest obstacle in the VM(C) area with respect to the _________ elevation.

Answer 22

OCA/H for Visual Manoeuvre (Circling) (VM(C)). This is defined as the lowest altitude or height above the aerodrome elevation, below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. It is based on the highest obstacle in the VM(C) area with respect to the aerodrome elevation.

Question 23

Other criteria for ILS include:

• CAT I is flown with ________ altimeter
• CAT II is flown with ____ altimeter and ____ director
• Missed approach climb gradient is ___%
• Glide path angle is ___° minimum and ___° maximum. CAT II/III requires _°

Answer 23

Other criteria for ILS include:
• CAT I is flown with pressure altimeter
• CAT II is flown with radio altimeter and flight director
• Missed approach climb gradient is 2.5%
• Glide path angle is 2.5° minimum and 3.5° maximum. CAT II/III requires 3°

Question 24

Precision Approach - category 1 operations:

Visual reference:

Same as non-precision approach except that “other visual references accepted by the Director” is __ valid.

Answer 24

Same as non-precision approach except that “other visual references accepted by the Director” is not valid.

Question 25

Precision approach category 3 operations:

Visual reference:

(a)
for Category III A operations, a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above unless a visual reference containing a segment of at least _ consecutive lights being the ________ of the _______ lights, ________ zone lights, runway _____ line lights, runway _____ lights or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

(b)
for Category III B operations with a decision height a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height, determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless a visual reference containing at least ___ ________ light is attained and can be maintained.

(c)
for Category III operations with no decision height there is __ requirement for visual contact with the runway prior to touchdown

Answer 25

(a)
for Category III A operations, a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above unless a visual reference containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, touchdown zone lights, runway centre line lights, runway edge lights or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

(b)
for Category III B operations with a decision height a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height, determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless a visual reference containing at least one centreline light is attained and can be maintained.

(c)
for Category III operations with no decision height there is no requirement for visual contact with the runway prior to touchdown

Question 26

Full facilites comprise:

Intermediate facilities comprise:

Basic facilities comprise:

Nil facilities comprise:

Answer 26

Full facilities comprise: Runway markings, 720m or more of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights.

Intermediate facilities comprise: Runway markings, 420 - 719m of HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights.

Basic facilities comprise: Runway markings, less than 420m of HI/MI approach lights, any length of LI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights.

Nil facilities comprise: Runway markings, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights or no lights at all.

Question 27

The lowest RVR for a visual approach:

Answer 27

1500m

Question 28

Single pilot operations precision approach:

For single-pilot operations, an RVR of less than ___m is not permitted except when using a suitable _____ coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The decision height applied may not be less than _.__ × the minimum disengagement height for the autopilot. CAT II/III minima will __ be approved for single-pilot operators.

Answer 28

For single-pilot operations, an RVR of less than 800m is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The decision height applied may not be less than 1.25 × the minimum disengagement height for the autopilot. CAT II/III minima will not be approved for single-pilot operators.

Question 29

Visual Approach Criteria:

An IFR flight in controlled airspace may be cleared by an ATSU to execute a Visual Approach, whilst still maintaining IFR Flight Plan status, when:

i) The pilot can - and;
ii) The - AND;
iii) The aircraft is -
iv) A Visual Approach may be requested by the pilot or initiated by an ATC. When initiated by the ATC the concurrence of the pilot is required.

During a Visual Approach the ATSU shall remain responsible to provide separation between all aircraft. The pilot shall remain responsible for terrain clearance as well as remaining within controlled airspace.

Answer 29

i) The pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain AND
ii) The reported cloud ceiling is above the initial approach level OR the pilot reports at the Initial Approach level or at any time during Instrument Approach procedure that the meteorological conditions are such that with reasonable assurance a Visual Approach and landing can be completed AND
iii) The aircraft is within 25NM of the destination aerodrome.
iv) A Visual Approach may be requested by the pilot or initiated by an ATC. When initiated by the ATC the concurrence of the pilot is required.