Arrival and Approach Procedures

Question 1

The instrument approach procedure have five separate segments, these include:

Answer 1

1. Arrival
2. Initial
3. Intermediate
4. Final
5. Missed approach

Question 2

Between the arrival and the initial segment you will find the -

Between the initial and the intermediate segment you will the -

Between the intermediate and the final segment you will the -

Between the final and the missed approach segment you will the -

Answer 2

Initial Approach Fix(IAF)

Intermediate fix(IF)

Final Approach Fix/Final Approach Point(FAP)

Missed Approach Point(MAPt)

Question 3

In the case of non-precision approaches, a straight-in approach is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is __ degrees or ___

Answer 3

In the case of non-precision approaches, a straight-in approach is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is 30 degrees or less

Question 4

A circling approach will be specified in those cases where terrain or other constraints cause the final approach track alignment or descent gradient to fall outside the criteria for a -

Answer 4

straight-in approach

Question 5

Category A =
Category B =
Category C =
Category D =
Category E =

Answer 5

Category A = Less than 91kts
Category B = 91kts to 120kts
Category C = 121kts to 140kts
Category D = 141kts to 165kts
Category E = 166kts to 211kts

Question 6

The criterion taken into consideration for the classification of aeroplanes by categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold(Vat), which is equal to the -

Or -

If both VSO and VS1G are available, the

Answer 6

Vso x 1.3 at maximum landing mass

Vs1g in the landing configuration x 1.23 at maximum landing mass

higher resulting Vat shall apply.

Question 7

Maximum speed for reversal and racetrack procedures up to and including 6 000ft is -

Maximum speed for reversal and racetrack procedures above 6 000ft is -

Answer 7

100kts

110kts

Question 8

The three types of non-precision approach descent techniques?

Answer 8

Continuous Descent Final Approach(CDFA)

Constant Angle Descent

Stepdown Descent

Question 9

The type of non-precision approach which does NOT involve level flight at or above MDA/H -

Answer 9

CDFA

Question 10

The type of non-precision approach that involves flying a constant angle until the MDA/H, and if no visual requires are met, continues to fly level until the MAPt -

Answer 10

Constant angle descent

Question 11

The type off non-precision approach which involves immediate step-down descents to not below the next step-down fix or MDA/H up until the MAPt -

This technique remains acceptable as long as the achieved descent gradient remains less than -

Answer 11

Stepdown Descent

15%

Question 12

Adequate space for descent is provided by establishing a maximum allowable descent gradient for each segment of the procedure. The minimum/optimum descent gradient/angle in the ___ approach of a procedure with __ is __ per cent/3.0 degrees per NM. where a steeper descent gradient is necessary, the maximum permissible is __ per cent/3.7 degrees per NM for category A and B and __/3.0 degrees for category C, D and E.

Answer 12

Adequate space for descent is provided by establishing a maximum allowable descent gradient for each segment of the procedure. The minimum/optimum descent gradient/angle in the final approach of a procedure with FAF is 5.2 per cent/3.0 degrees per NM. where a steeper descent gradient is necessary, the maximum permissible is 6.5 per cent/3.7 degrees per NM for category A and B and 6.1/3.0 degrees for category C, D and E.

Question 13

For procedures with no FAF, the maximum and minimum rates of descent for:

1. Category A and B
2. Category C, D and E is?

Answer 13

1. 394ft/min minimum and 655ft/min maximum

2. 590ft/min minimum and 1 000ft/min maximum

Question 14

The initial approach segment begins at the -

Answer 14

Initial Approach Fix(IAF)

Question 15

The initial approach segment begins at the -

Answer 15

Initial Approach Fix(IAF)

Question 16

Arrival Segment:

The width of the protection area decreases form the en-route value until the initial approach value with a maximum convergence angle of -

This convergence begins at __nm before the IAF if the length of the arrival route is greater than or equal to __nm. It begins at the starting point of the arrival route if the length of the arrival route is less than __nm.

Answer 16

30 degrees either side of the axis

This convergence begins at 25nm before the IAF if the length of the arrival route is greater than or equal to 25nm. It begins at the starting point of the arrival route if the length of the arrival route is less than 25nm.

Question 17

Arrival Segment:

The arrival route normally ends at the -

Answer 17

IAF

Question 18

Initial Approach Segment:

The initial approach segment begins at the __ and ends at the __. In the initial approach, the aircraft has left the _____ structure and is manoeuvring to enter the ________ approach segment.

3.1.1.2 Aircraft speed and configuration will depend on the distance from the aerodrome, and the descent required.

Minimum Obstacle Clearance:

The initial approach segment provides at least ___ m (_____ ft) of obstacle clearance in the ______ area, reducing laterally to zero at the outer edge of the ________ area.

Answer 18

The initial approach segment begins at the initial approach fix (IAF) and ends at the intermediate fix (IF). In the initial approach, the aircraft has left the en-route structure and is manoeuvring to enter the intermediate approach segment.

3.1.1.2 Aircraft speed and configuration will depend on the distance from the aerodrome, and the descent required.

The initial approach segment provides at least 300 m (1000 ft) of obstacle clearance in the primary area, reducing laterally to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area.

Question 19

Initial Approach Segment:

The 4 types of instrument track reversal procedures -

Answer 19

1. 45/180 procedure turn
2. 80/260 procedure turn
3. Base turns
4. Racetrack procedures

Question 20

The 3 types of base turns -

Answer 20

1min, 2min and 3min.

Question 21

The three types of racetrack procedures:

Answer 21

1min, 2min and 3min.

Question 22

Procedure turn 45/180:

After the straight guided leg the aircraft makes a 45 degree turn into the second leg of the procedure. The timing for this leg is:

1. For category A and B
2. For category C, D and E

Answer 22

1 minute

1 minute 15 seconds

Question 23

Racetrack procedure entry:

1. Offset entry from sector 2 shall limit the time on the 30 degree offset track to _ minute __ seconds, after which the pilot is expected to turn to a heading parallel the outbound track for the remainder of the outbound time(if the racetrack procedure is over 1 minute). If the outbound time is only _ minute, the time on the 30 degree offset track shall be _ minute also;
2. Parallel entry shall not return directly to the ______ without first intercepting the inbound track when proceeding to the final segment of the approach procedure; and
3. all manoeuvring shall be done in so far as possible on the manoeuvring side of the _______ track.

Answer 23

Racetrack procedure entry:

1. Offset entry from sector 2 shall limit the time on the 30 degree offset track to 1 minute 30 seconds, after which the pilot is expected to turn to a heading parallel the outbound track for the remainder of the outbound time(if the racetrack procedure is over 1 minute). If the outbound time is only 1 minute, the time on the 30 degree offset track shall be 1 minute also;
2. Parallel entry shall not return directly to the facility without first intercepting the inbound track when proceeding to the final segment of the approach procedure; and
3. all manoeuvring shall be done in so far as possible on the manoeuvring side of the inbound track.

Question 24

Unless the procedure specifies particular restrictions, reversal procedures shall be entered from a track within +/- __ of the outbound track of the reversal procedure.

Answer 24

Unless the procedure specifies particular restrictions, reversal procedures shall be entered from a track within +/- 30 of the outbound track of the reversal procedure.

Question 25

Racetrack procedure:

If a further descent is specified after the inbound turn, this descent shall not be started until the aircraft is established on the inbound track. An aircraft is considered established when it is:

(a) Within ___ scale deflection for the ILS and VOR; or
(b) Within +/- _ degrees of the required bearing for the NDB

Answer 25

If a further descent is specified after the inbound turn, this descent shall not be started until the aircraft is established on the inbound track. An aircraft is considered established when it is:

(a) Within half scale deflection for the ILS and VOR; or
(b) Within +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for the NDB

Question 26

Outbound timing racetrack procedure

When the procedure is based on a facility, the outbound timing starts:

(a) from _____ the facility; or
(b) on attaining the _______ heading, whichever comes ____.

When the procedure is based on a fix:

(a) the outbound timing starts from attaining the _______ ______

Answer 26

Outbound timing racetrack procedure

When the procedure is based on a facility, the outbound timing starts:

(a) from abeam the facility; or
(b) on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes last.

When the procedure is based on a fix:

(a) the outbound timing starts from attaining the outbound heading

Question 27

The turn on to the inbound track should be started:

(a) within the specified ___ (adjusted for wind); or
(b) when encountering any ___ distance; or
(c) when the radial/bearing specifying a limiting distance has been ______ whichever comes ___.

Answer 27

The turn on to the inbound track should be started:

(a) within the specified time (adjusted for wind); or
(b) when encountering any DME distance; or
(c) when the radial/bearing specifying a limiting distance has been reached, whichever comes first.

Question 28

Descent rates for racetrack procedure:

Outbound track maximum and minimum:

Category A/B -

Category C/D/E/H -

Inbound track maximum and minimum:

Category A/B -

Category C/D/E/H -

Answer 28

Category A/B - 804ft/min no minimum

Category C/D/E/H - 1197ft/min no minimum

Category A/B - 655ft/min 394ft/min minimum

Category C/D/E/H - 1 000ft/min 590ft/min minimum

Question 29

MSA/TAA:

The MSA will provide a obstacle clearance of ___m(____ft) within __nm of the _________ aid, __ or __ associated with the approach procedures for that aerodrome.

An arriving aircraft is permitted to descend below MSA only when: the aerodrome and underlying ______ are visible and will remain so, the aircraft is under ____ control being radar vectored, or the aircraft is flying a published _______ procedure.

Answer 29

The MSA will provide a obstacle clearance of 300m(1 000ft) within 25nm of the navigation aid, IAF or IF associated with the approach procedures for that aerodrome.

An arriving aircraft is permitted to descend below MSA only when: the aerodrome and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so, the aircraft is under radar control being radar vectored, or the aircraft is flying a published approach procedure.

Question 30

Types of Procedures.

Broadly, instrument procedures are defined in terms what guidance is provided.
ICAO defines these as:

• ________ Procedures (runway approach) Categories I/II/III
• Non-_______ Procedures (aerodrome approach)

Answer 30

• Precision Procedures (runway approach) Categories I/II/III

* Non-precision Procedures (aerodrome approach)

Question 31

Completing the Procedure.

Once an instrument procedure has been commenced the pilot must complete the procedure as published unless given contrary instructions by ATC. Even if the final approach is flown visually, the requirements of the procedure must be _______ with. An instrument approach ends with either a successful ______ or completion of the ______ approach procedure. In any event, if the procedure is abandoned after passing the ___, the missed approach procedure must be flown, starting from the ____, with the aircraft climbing to the altitude specified for the missed approach as soon as possible (this will usually be the highest ___ or the lowest altitude specified for commencing the procedure at the IAF).

Answer 31

Completing the Procedure.

Once an instrument procedure has been commenced the pilot must complete the procedure as published unless given contrary instructions by ATC. Even if the final approach is flown visually, the requirements of the procedure must be complied with. An instrument approach ends with either a successful landing or completion of the missed approach procedure. In any event, if the procedure is abandoned after passing the IAF, the missed approach procedure must be flown, starting from the MAPt, with the aircraft climbing to the altitude specified for the missed approach as soon as possible (this will usually be the highest MSA or the lowest altitude specified for commencing the procedure at the IAF).

Question 32

Straight-in Approach.

Wherever possible a straight-in approach will be specified in which each segment is aligned with the ________ runway _____ line. However, a non-precision approach may specify the final approach track converging to the runway heading at an angle of __° or less. In all cases, the procedures depict still air tracks and pilots are required to make allowance for the ___ to make good the specified ___. If terrain or other restrictions preclude a straight-in approach, a ______ approach will be specified. In addition, an aircraft may be offered an omni-directional or sector arrival by ATC when appropriate and taking into consideration the MSA (Minimum Safety Altitude). The definition of being established on an NDB is to be within _° either side of the final approach track.

Answer 32

Straight-in Approach.

Wherever possible a straight-in approach will be specified in which each segment is aligned with the extended runway centre line. However, a non-precision approach may specify the final approach track converging to the runway heading at an angle of 30° or less. In all cases, the procedures depict still air tracks and pilots are required to make allowance for the wind to make good the specified track. If terrain or other restrictions preclude a straight-in approach, a circling approach will be specified. In addition, an aircraft may be offered an omni-directional or sector arrival by ATC when appropriate and taking into consideration the MSA (Minimum Safety Altitude). The definition of being established on an NDB is to be within 5° either side of the final approach track.

Question 33

The vertical cross section of each segment is divided into ______ and ________ MOC areas. Full obstacle clearance is applied over the ______ area, reducing to ___ at the outer edges of the ________ areas.

Answer 33

The vertical cross section of each segment is divided into primary and secondary MOC areas. Full obstacle clearance is applied over the primary area, reducing to zero at the outer edges of the secondary areas.

Question 34

For each individual approach procedure an obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is calculated in the development of the procedure and published on the instrument approach chart. In the case of precision approach and circling approach procedures, an OCA/H is specified for each category of aircraft listed in 1.3. Obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is:

a) in a precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the ________ of the relevant runway _______ (OCH), at which a _____ approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
b) in a non-precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above aerodrome _______ or the elevation of the relevant runway _______, if the _______ elevation is more than _ m (7 ft) below the aerodrome _______ (OCH), below which an aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
c) in a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the aerodrome _______ (OCH) below which an aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

Note: DA/H and MDA/H is not necessarily exactly the same as OCA/H, it may be higher depending on operator considerations. But never lower.

A margin exist between the obstacle and the OCA/H for precision approaches, which depends on aircraft approach speed, height loss and altimetry and is adjustable for the steep glide paths and high level aerodromes. For non-precision approaches, a fixed margin exist for all aircraft between the obstacle and the OCA/H(referred to as MOC):

In the final segment:

Without FAF:

With FAF:

Answer 34

a) in a precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold (OCH), at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
b) in a non-precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above aerodrome elevation or the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, if the threshold elevation is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation (OCH), below which an aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
c) in a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude (OCA) or alternatively the lowest height above the aerodrome elevation (OCH) below which an aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

In the final segment:

Without FAF: 295ft

With FAF: 246ft