Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q
A
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3
Q

Which drug has side effects of pneumonitis, liver cirrhosis and myelosupression?

A

Methotrexate

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4
Q

What are the common side effects of sulfasalazine?

A

Rashes
Low sperm count
Heinz body anaemia
ILD

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5
Q

Luflunomide can cause which side effects?

A

Liver impairment
ILD
Hypertension

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6
Q

Which common rheumatology drug has ocular side effects and what are they?

A

Retinopathy
Corneal deposits

Hydroxychloroquine

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7
Q

Which rheumatology drugs cause proteinuria?

A

Gold and penicillamine

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8
Q

Which common rheum drugs cause reactivation of TB?

A

TABs and etanercept

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9
Q

Which antibodies test for Sjogrens?

A

Anti Ro (70%)
Anti La (30%)
ANA (70%)
RF (50%)

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10
Q

Anti smooth muscle antibodies can be tested for in what

A

Autoimmune Hepatitis

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11
Q

Anti centromere antibodies can be a sign of what

A

CREST

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12
Q

Anti Sm are specific for what?

A

SLE

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13
Q

How does methotrexate work

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

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14
Q

How long after stopping MTX should women abstain from pregnancy?

A

6 months

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15
Q

How often are bloods done in relation to MTX treatment?

A

LFT, UEs, FBC before and weekly until stable
Then every 2-3 months

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16
Q

Which drugs should not be prescribed with MTX

A

aspirin
trimethoprim
co-trimoxazole

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17
Q

Which enzyme is required to metabolise azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)

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18
Q

How does azathioprine work?

A

Inhibits purine synthesis

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19
Q

Bone marrow depression
Pancreatitis
None melanoma skin cancer
N+V

Side effects of which drug

A

Azathiprine

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20
Q

Around 80% of patients with dermatomyositis are positive to which antibody?

A

ANA

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21
Q

Which antibiotics are used in the management of septic arthritis?

A
  1. Flucloxacillin. Clindamycin if penicillin allergic
22
Q

What are the T score results and what do they mean

A

> 0 = reassure
0 - -1.5 = repeat DEXA 1-3 years
< -1.5 = offer bone protection with aledronate (bisphosophonate +/- calcium and vitamin D)

23
Q

Antiphosopjholipd syndrome results in which blood results

A

Anti phosphospholipid positive (30%)
Thrombocytopenia
Extended APTT

24
Q

Crsytals in pseudo gout show what?

A

Positive bifringence

25
Q

In young patients with pseudogout, which other conditions might they have?

A

Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Low Mg
Low phos
Acromegaly
Wilsons DIsease

26
Q

When should aledronate be started in patients without DEXA

A

> 75 with fragility fracture

27
Q

What are the types of Hypersensitivity reactions?

A

1 = anaphylaxis
2 = antibody cell complex
3 = antibody antigen complex
4 = cell mediated

28
Q

Which antibodies are associated with drug induced lupus?

A

Antihistone (80-90%)
ANA (100%)

29
Q

Which common drugs can cause drug induced lupus?

A

Procainamide
Hydralazine

30
Q

What are the blood results seen in Osteomalacia?

A

Low vit D, Ca, Phos
High ALP, High PTH

31
Q

Why does Vit D/Ca correction need to be given to patients receiving bisphosphonates?

A

It can make hypocalcaemia worse

32
Q

Which foods are high in purine?

A

Liver, kidneys, seafood, yeast

33
Q

Which bones are most affected in Paget’s disease?

A

Skull, spine, pelvis, leg bones

34
Q

What causes Paget’s

A

Uncontrolled bone turnover

35
Q

What are the 6 As of Anky Spond

A

Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurg
AV node block
Achilles tendonitis
Amyloidosis

36
Q

Which X-Ray changes are seen in OA

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

LOSSteoarthritis

36
Q

What does Schooners test, test?

A

Forward flexion which is reduced. Normal is >5cm increase

37
Q

Which drugs can be used in the management of Anky Spond, when conventional treatments have failed?

A

Etanercept
Adalimumab

38
Q

What is second line in urate lowering therapy?

A

Febuxostat

39
Q

Drug induced lupus is dsDNA negative

A

True

40
Q

Which drugs less commonly cause lupus?

A

Isoniazid
Minocycline
Phenytoin

41
Q

Which DMARDS are used in RA

A

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Leflunomide
Hydroxychloroquine

42
Q

Which is the most common connective tissue disease which can cause Raynauds

A

Scleroderma

43
Q

First line treatment in Raynaud’s

A

CCB

44
Q

What does CREST stand for?

A

Calcinosis
Raynauds
Oesophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiactiasia

45
Q

Which antibody test is useful in DIFFUSE cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti SCL

46
Q

Which antibody test is useful in LIMITED cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti centromere

47
Q

This antibody is positive in 90% of systemic sclerosis patients

A

ANA

48
Q

What are second line options if patients are intolerant to alendronate

A

Risedronate
Etidronate

49
Q

SLE is more common in which groups?

A

F, black

50
Q

Which are the most common primary malignant and benign bone tumours?

A

Malignant: osteosarcoma
Benign: oesteochondroma

51
Q
A