Revision EH - what need to know Flashcards

1
Q

what is the medicare rebate for:
a) GP services
b) out-of-hospital services
c) in-hospital services

A

a) 100%
b) 85%
c) 75%

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2
Q

What is a schedule fee vs a reccommeneded fee?

A

SF= Fee for a given service set by the AUS government

RF= guide for doctors with suggested fees set by AMA

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3
Q

What does ‘the gap’ in medicare refer to?

A

difference between total cost of med treatment and schedule fee

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4
Q

What is the PBS safety Net and it’s purpose?

A

safety net threshold.

When reach a certain $ amount spent on medications will qualify.

protects those with chronic conditions from large medical costs

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5
Q

What does an odds ratio tell us?

A

The odds that one thing is related to another.

OR>1 = exposure MAY INCREASE risk of disease

OR<1 exposure may DECREASE risk of disease

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6
Q

What is relative risk and what does it mean?

A

estimation magnitude of association

RR>1 = risk of disease INCREASED as result of exposure

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7
Q

what is relative risk reduction and how is it interpreted?

A

Tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group

e.g
the incidence of disease in those exposed is 1% and the incidence of disease in those not exposed is 2%, then the RRR is 50% = , this is read as “your risk of disease is 50% greater than someone who is not exposed”

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8
Q

Absolute risk vs relative risk

A

absolute risk provides the direct probability of an event occurring, while relative risk compares the risk between two groups

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9
Q

interpretations of a P value

A

P<= 0.05 = less than 5% chance of difference due to chance.

P> 0.05 = probability that chance explains the difference is too high for null hypothesise to be rejected = not statistically significant

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10
Q

what is a confidence interval and how is it interpreted?

A

= Range in which reflects certain degree of assurance of where the true value lies.

interpretation
- can not include 1

if the interval contains the null value (e.g., 0 for a difference between two groups), it suggests that there is no statistically significant difference

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11
Q

What is population driven by?

A

fertility, mortality and migration

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12
Q

what is used to asses fertility?

A

CBR: live births per 1000
TFR: children woman likely to have in reproductive life

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13
Q

How is mortality measured?

A

CDR: deaths per 1000 of the population

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14
Q

Describe the current shift in Population in Australia (Indigenous Australians and Non-Indigenous Australians)

A

Non= contracting (TFR is below the replacement rate, living longer)

IA= expanding

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15
Q

Define infant mortality and child mortality rates

A

IMR= the number of children that die under one year of age in a given year, per 1,000 live births,

CMR= deaths of children aged 1-4 per 1000 live births.

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16
Q

What does the Demographic transition theory present?

A

Changing the composition of society

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17
Q

What does the Epidemiological transition theory present?

A

changing disease types and patterns

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18
Q

what is a replacement rate?

A

adjusted fertility rate required to maintain the population

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19
Q

what is the dependency ratio?

A

non-working: working age

potential socioeconomic burden on the working age by the young and elderly.

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20
Q

Health inequality vs inequity

A

Inequality = differences in health status

inequities: unjust, unfair or preventable

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21
Q

what are the upstream, midstream and downstream factors of health?

A

upstream = environmental factors, socioeconomic characteristics, broad features of society and knowledge, attitudes and beliefs

midstream= psychological factors, health services

downstream- biomedical

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22
Q

what are Social Determinants of Health?

A

Causes of the causes of ill-health

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23
Q

What is a Social Gradient? what is it caused by?

A

Graded relationship between SES n health in which poorest have worst health status. 

caused by: natural selection, behavioural/cultural factors, structural factors and psychosocial capital

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24
Q

How can SDoH affect our health?

A

it affects:

  • risk associated with developing disease

-the disease it self

-the capacity that people have to take action to prevent/treat

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25
Q

what are the ‘Solid Facts’ of the SDoH?

A

Stress
Social Gradient
Early
Social exclusion
work
unemployment
social support
addiction
food
transport

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26
Q

what is the impact of inequity and inequality on marginalised populations?

A

impacts: well-being/ stress levels, work opportunities, SES, resource access, health access and education access.

COMBINATION = profound impact

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27
Q

what is needed to help overcome inequity and inequality in marginalised populations?

A

multi-level response (systems, services and providers)

patient-centered care (offsets inequities)

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28
Q

What can be done on a system level to mitigate impacts on marginalised populations?

A

Universal coverage
Access to PHC
workforce innovation
financial subsidies/incentives
continuity of care

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29
Q

What can be done on a service level to mitigate impacts on marginalised populations?

A

Organisational influences (preventive care, use local workforce etc)

information systems
delivery system
health Lit and self-management support
community linkage

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30
Q

What can be done on a provider level to mitigate impacts on marginalised populations?

A

Patient centered

Culturally sensitive, aware of SoDoH, better communicators (Teach-Back)

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31
Q

Socialisation vs Acculturation

A

S= EVERYBODY goes through it (embeds culture and societal expectations)

A= when change culture, becomes evident when a change setting as what you have been taught NO LONGER MATCHES

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32
Q

What are the 5 stages of Migrant Acculturation?

A

Pre-contact
Contact
Conflict
Crisis
Adaption

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33
Q

what are the outcomes of accultruation?

A

Assimilation (don’t maintain old)
Integration (mix)
isolation (hold onto original)
marginalisation (forced to isolate)

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34
Q

what is langauge discordance?

A

when someone not knowing the language is expected not to comprehend, so you don’t take the time to try

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35
Q

Xenophobia

A

fear, hatred, and hostility to anybody from outside one’s own group

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36
Q

-What is ethnocentrism?

A

cooperation with members of one’s own group and noncooperation towards members of other groups based on our own cultural value

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37
Q

What are the three types of racism and their meanings?

A

I

Institutionalised = access to resources, services and healthcare opportunities different

Personally mediated = prejudice/ discrimination about ability, motive and intents (of others)

Acceptance (by stigmatized race) of negative messages about worth and ability.

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38
Q

what does the National Standard Indigenous Identification question ask?

A

are you of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander origin?

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39
Q

What are the historic factors that continue to impact health and wellbeing of ATSI population?

A

Loss of Land and Culture

Separation from families

Discrimination and racism

crowded living conditions

limited access to health care ]

cultural alienation

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40
Q

What is the life expectancy gap and what are its trends?

A

8 years

increases with remoteness

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41
Q

what is section 100 of the PBS?

A

helps improve access = providing for certain drugs to be available as pharmaceutical benefits, in addition to those available under normal PBS arrangements

The review included the following Section 100 programs:

Highly Specialised Drugs (HSD) Program

Aboriginal Health Services Remote Access (AHSRA) Program

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42
Q

what is the purpose of the CTG campaign?

A

National health and social policy initiative in Australia

improving the health and wellbeing (ATSI) people

close gap in: infant mortality, improve life expectancy and health outcomes, increase access to services….

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43
Q

What are effective approaches in Closing the Gap?

A

Action on upstream factors

access to patient-centred care

recognition of cultural factors (obligations, beliefs, kinship and connection to country

recognising strengths (community, approaches to sustainability and country)

44
Q

How does the ACCHs improve access to health care?

A

allows for high-quality community controlled culturally appropriate health services

tailored to local needs

45
Q

A hospital routinely automatically removes people from clinical lists after two Discharges Against Medical Advice.

Explain how this causes a health inequity.

A
  • automatic = does not consider the reason WHY nor the individual

-certain groups may have barriers that prevent them from staying or attending that is not understood or addressed.

46
Q

What are improvements in maternal death due to?

A

general health improvements, better health access (antenatal care)

47
Q

what are the National Core maternity indicators?

A

Smoking in pregnancy

Antenatal care in first trimester

Episiotomy (tear from vagina)

APGAR score of less than 7

induction of labour

Casesaren section

48
Q

What are the five functions of Antenatal care?

A

Pregnancy surveillance

education

preventative interventions

early complication recognition

management of pre-existing conditions

49
Q

What is involved in pregnancy surveillance?

A

confirming dates
delivery planning

monitoring growth and wellbeing of baby
checking fetal position

dealing with common symptoms

50
Q

what is involved in education (antenatal care)

A

Healthy lifestyle

Pregnancy

Delivery options

Parenting/ care of new baby

51
Q

What are the preventative interventions undertaken in antenatal care?

A

maternal smoking and alcohol stopping

maternal diet

folic acid (pre-conception)

checking Hb and blood group of baby

52
Q

What is considered in Early recognition and management of pregnancy-related problem

A

bleeding in pregnancy
gestational HTN
gestational diabetes
postnatal depression

53
Q

What are examples of conditions managed in ‘management of pre-existing medical problems’ for antenatal care?

A

HTN
Asthma
Diabetes
Heart Disease
Depression

54
Q

What is done and looked for in Newborn screening?

A

physical exam (abnormalities) and heel prick test (genetic disorders)

e.g. PKU, hypothyroidism, CF and galactosemia

55
Q

When is the formal postnatal follow up?

What is checked for mum (5) and bub (4)

A

6 weeks postpartum

mum
-physical recovery
-coping and mood
-breast-feeding
-parenting skills
-contraception need

bub
-growth and development
-feeding
-congentital abnormalities
-vaccines

56
Q

what is the universal postnatal contact service?

A

midwife contacts mother within 10days of discharge

57
Q

What is purpose of 3-4 year-old health check?

A

check child is developing properly both physically and mentally (before going to school)

vision
weight and height
dental problems
social development
gross and fine motor skills

58
Q

What is the purpose of the Positive Parenting Program?

A

improve parent-child relationships,

promote positive behaviour

reduce stress and anxiety

improve child outcomes

59
Q

what is the positive parenting program and is it’s intended audience?

A

What
evidence-based parenting program that gives parents strategies to help build strong relationships and manage their child’s behaviours

who
all parents of children aged 0-12

60
Q

What are the key features of FASD and what are the difficulties in diagnosing it?

A

features:
- small eyes
- thin upper lip
- smooth philtrum
- neurodevelopment impairment

diagnosis
-stigma
-criticising parents

61
Q

what is the leading cause of death for Young People?

A

Injuries (accidental or intentional)

62
Q

What are the common issues that build the morbidity in young people?

A

Mental Disorders
-anxety, depression and EDs

Asthma

Injuries

63
Q

What are some important health issues facing young people and what framework is used to address them?

A

Sexual health (pregnancy, domestic violence, consent, STIs)
Substance USe

HEADSS

64
Q

what is involved in the HEADSS assesment?

A

H= Home
E= education/environment/ employment and eating/exercises
A= activities/ peer relationships
D= drug use, cigaretes, alcohol
S= sexuality and spirituality
S= Suicide and safety

65
Q

what is the most common STI amongst young people?

A

Chlamydia

66
Q

Chronological vs functional aging

A

C= years
F= ability to function physically and socially

67
Q

What are the theories of programmed death?

A

hay-flick (cells limited to number of divisions)

endocrine (hormones control pace)

immunological (faults in immune = vulnerable)

68
Q

What are the theories of non- programmed death?

A

free radical ( build-up of chemical by-products)

Wear and tear (accumulated damage)

69
Q

what are the features of psychological aging?

A

increased neuroticism

Negative emotions decrease (positive remain)

Males and females become more similar in values

Memory better for past events but slower for new

Poorer fluid intelligence but declined in crystalized intelligence

70
Q

crystallised vs fluid intelligence

A

Crystallised = established pathways

fluid = learning something new (forming new pathways)

71
Q

Are the common health issues facing Older People normal and Okay?

A

No, just because they are common does not make them acceptable. must consider their impact.

72
Q

what are the issues in regional/rural/remote access to residential care?

A

Small resident work force

Difficulties in attracting trained staff

Long distance to travel to provide care

Small populations make ‘for profit’ model less viable

Patients need to travel to receive care

‘lack of residential aged care in rural and remote locations

73
Q

What are the documents involved in Advanced care planning?

A

Aged Care directives

Enduring Power of Attorney

74
Q

what are the categories of disability?

A

(Many Normal People In Society)

mental health, neurological, intellectual, sensory and physical

often overlap

exits on a spectrum

75
Q

what is the principle of normalisation?

A

people with a disability should enjoy the same rights, privileges, opportunities, and access

  • normal rhythm to their day
  • age-appropriate activities
  • normal environmental conditions
  • normal economic conditions
  • respect
  • normal sexual relationships
76
Q

What is the NDIS, when was established?

A

2012 - commonwealth NDIS Act
2013- NDIS framework established
2017 - implemented

what
government-funded program that supports Australians with disabilities

77
Q

What is included in the NDIS?

A

Person-centred plans
transport
home modification’s
job training

78
Q

What is a NDIS person-centred plan

A

1- Develop a profile identifying support and housing needs

2- identifies standards of service to facilitate living in community

3- consideration of cultural background, location, age and history

4- involvement of informal supports

79
Q

What does the NDIS NOT cover?

A
  1. day-to-day living costs
  2. health-related costs (eg. medications)
  3. rehabilitative therapy
80
Q

What are our health behaviours a combination of?

A

Conscious choice, learned behaviours and system factors

81
Q

Classic vs operant conditioning

A

classic = neutral stimulus acquires ability to evoke natural stimulus

operant conditioning = behaviours modifed via consequences
(pos = increase acceptable behaviour for pos cons,
neg = increase acceptable behaviour to AVOID neg, Punishment = apply punishment as consequence)

82
Q

What is cognition in terms of health behaviours?

A

recognition that behaviours are influenced by self-talk

83
Q

what are the two key models relating to Health Behaviours?

What are their stages?

A

Health Belief Model
- susceptibility and severity
-barriers and benefits
-cues to action and confidence

Transtheoretical model
- pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action and maintenance

84
Q

What is illness perception?

A

Individuals own organised cognitive beliefs about their illness

85
Q

What are the 5 components of illness perception?

A

Identity (label)
Consequences (cause and effect)
Cause
Timeline
Control

86
Q

Eustress vs Distress

A

Eustress: leaves a sense of accomplishment or an achievement of goals

Distress: feeling out of control and that everything is out of control = hinders performance and overall wellbeing.

87
Q

Episodic Stress

A

acute stress suffered over and over

88
Q

What are the 4 stages of stress?

A

Acute phase – minutes, hrs or days

Reaction phase – 1-6 weeks shows all components of stress

Repair phase – 1-6 months stress reactions less intense develop coping mechanisms,

Reorientation phase more than 6 months– stress significantly reduced, grief reaction may be unresolved,

89
Q

What are the 4 categories of Distress Warning Signs and Symtoms?

A

Cognitive
Emotional
Physical
Behavioural

90
Q

what is the illness reaction a combination of?

A

nature/severity of illness
patient (capacity and beliefs)
situation
environment

91
Q

What are the two coping startergies?

A

Adaptive or Functional

92
Q

what are the four categories of stress managing strategies?

A

Cognitive focused
Emotional focused
task-focused
behaviour -focused

93
Q

What is the difference between compliance and adherence

A

adherence - AGREED plan

compliance= paternalistic

94
Q

What are strategies that can be used to improve medication adherence?

A

AIDES (assess, individual, document, educate and supervise)

patient-centred consult exploring why not

95
Q

What are the two main schemes used to address gaps in medical adherence?

A

CTG scripts: reduces or removes the PBS co-payment for eligible Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people.

S100 meds

96
Q

What is involved in Quality use of Medicine?

A

(Juding, Safely and Appropietly)

Judicious selection of treatment options: choice between medicine, non-medicine and no treatment

Safe and effective use: not misused, underused or overused

Appropriate choice of medicine when med is required.

97
Q

What are the three interplaying parts to determinants of chronic disease?

A

FOAD
Psychosocial stress
Health Behaviours

98
Q

What is meant by FOAD?

A

Maternal stressors during pregnacy –> epigenetic changes –> phenotypic change –> metabolic or structural change –> predisposed to chronic disease

99
Q

What is an example of maternal influence on child?

A

smoking –> LBW –> smaller kidneys and less nephrons –> CKD

100
Q

What is the role of oxytocin and cortisol in risk of CVD?

A

Oxytocin is a cardioprotective and stress reducing hormone that is released from our pituitary gland.

Social support encourages its release. Therefore in times of social exclusion Oxytocin will be decreased.

Cortisol is a stress hormone released when our body’s are in a state of stress. Stress from the psychosocial pathway encourages a cortisol acts surge. This cortisol surge increases risk of CVD

101
Q

What is perinatal death and what is its LCOD?

A

within 28 days of birth

congimetal anomalies

preterm/LBW

102
Q

What is infant death and what is its LCOD?

A

less than 1

perinatal/congenital

103
Q

What is child death and what is its LCOD?

A

1- <15

accidents

104
Q

What is youth death and what is its LCOD?

A

15-<25

suicide and accidents

105
Q

What is maternal death and what is its LCOD?

A

within 42 days of end of pregnancy

direct = clot/haemorrhage

indirect = CVD

106
Q

What is Adult death and what is its LCOD?

A

25+

CAD
dementia
stroke

107
Q

What is older death and what is its LCOD?

A

> 65
as for adults

suicide also emerges