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175 LIMITATIONS > REV 5.5 175 TEST QUESTIONS. > Flashcards

REV 5.5 175 TEST QUESTIONS. Flashcards

1
Q

Approaching the airport, you are 15 miles from the ray at 3,000 AFL. As you configure the aircraft for landing, when would you expect the ;hydraulic ACMP’s 1 and 2 to turn on?

A

Flaps selected to any position greater than 0

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2
Q

SE taxi on Engine 2. with flaps extended, the parking brake released, and no other action is taken, which hyd pumps will be operating?

A

ENG driven pump 2 and

HYD pump ACMP 3A

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3
Q

Back up pumps for systems 1 and 2 are?

A

ACMP pumps

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4
Q

Primary purpose of PTU

A

Gear extension or retraction with failure of right engine or right EDP figure.

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5
Q

H-BIT will run automatically when all 3 HYD systems are pressurized and

A

HYD Reservoir temp is at or above 10 degrees or

H-PBIT timer is at 0 hours regardless of temp.

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6
Q

Fluid leading from nose gear, which hyd system?

A

2

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7
Q

If HYD Pump EA fails during taxi out will HYD 3B automatically turn on?

A

NO

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8
Q

HYD system 3 ___ is the primary.

A

3A

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9
Q

Check HYD temp, press and quantity

A

HYD synoptic page on MFD

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10
Q

Lose HYD systems 1 and 2 only way to stop airplane is with reversers?

A

False.

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11
Q

PBE

A

Pulling mask part activates each of the oxygen cylinders providing 15 min of oxygen.

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12
Q

Cleaning OXY mask lens with alcohol wipes is okay?

A

NO

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13
Q

Halon fire Ext can be used for what type of fires?

A

A, B, C fires

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14
Q

During emergency descent the crew oxygen masks provides?

A

98 min in normal at 10,000

22 min at 100%

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15
Q

Water fire Ext can be use for?

A

A fires

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16
Q

Flashlight is fully charged?

A

Flashing red LED

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17
Q

PBE humidity indicator showing blue?

A

Normal

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18
Q

While starting the APU the APU master switch is rotated to ON Prior rotating to start what should be verified?

A

EICAS energized minimum 30 sec
No APU fail msg.
APU indication on the EICAS changes from OFF to APU control parameters.

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19
Q

Powering down APU before turning batteries off what do you look for?

A

APU OFF

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20
Q

How long wait between 1st and 2nd APU Start attempt?

A

60 sec

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21
Q

ATC Clears you to descend VIA on an Arrival. In order to utilize the vertical PTH you must hav at least?

A
  1. Top of descent displays in your vertical profile.
  2. VNAV is active,
  3. The lowest cleared altitude set in your altitude pre-select window.
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22
Q

For CAT II you need to separate ADS to be operative?

A

TRUE

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23
Q

FO ADS fails what is the reversionary logic?

A

Automatic 3

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24
Q

The pilot should reference the FLT Director during a stall and verify that it is below the horizon?

A

FALSE

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25
Q

The FPA (flight path angle) shows?

A

Actual path of the airplane relative to the horizon.

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26
Q

PF should reference the FLT director during Wind Shear?

A

TRUE

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27
Q

FL 330 you have an Engine flame out and you are unable to relight what should be the appropriate speed?

A

Green Dot

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28
Q

The bank limiting is unavailable in which FMA lateral mode?

A

LNAV regardless of altitude.

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29
Q

If the FBUG disappears before flap retraction, what information can the pilot use to retract the remaining stat/flaps?

A

Green Dot + 10

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30
Q

Green dot on the airspeed shows?

A
  1. 1.3 over shaker speed at 40degrees bank
  2. ideal flap extension speed
  3. drift down speed
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31
Q

Advisory msg. are what color?

A

CYAN

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32
Q

When landing at an airport not in the data base what button should we push?

A

GND PROX TERR INHIB

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33
Q

What is the meaning of an EICAS msg. with a chevron next to it?

A

Addressing this first may likely clear other related msgs.

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34
Q

What does the TO CONF Button Check?

A
  1. Parking Brake
  2. Flaps match MCDU
  3. Trim setting green
  4. Spoilers not deployed
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35
Q

EGPWS provides visual and aural warning to help pilots avoid?

A

CFIT

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36
Q

Warning msg. are displayed on the?

A

EICAS

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37
Q

If to many EICAS msgs. are displayed the pilot can scroll the warning msgs. out of the way?

A

FALSE

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38
Q

Navigation should not be predicated with the use of Terrain Awareness system?

A

True

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39
Q

While conducting an external inspection the APU shuts down and you notice smoke exiting the tail cone. you return back to the flt deck 60sec later to find the following indications?

A

APU fire extinguisher pushbutton is illuminated.

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40
Q

Enroute you suspect a non-annunciated AFT Cargo Fire. You run the appropriate checklist. The first time the button is pushed what happens.

A

Neither bottle is used but he high rate squib is armed.

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41
Q

Fire extinguisher handle is pulled what valves close?

A
  1. Fuel SOV
  2. Cross bleed SOV
  3. HYD SOV
  4. BLEED air SOV
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42
Q

What happens automatically if the fire detection system detects a fire in the FWD cargo compartment?

A
  1. Air circulation fan in the fwd compartment turns off.
  2. The ventilation valves closes
  3. High rate rate fire ext bottle is armed
  4. Associated cargo fire button is illuminated.
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43
Q

While at the gate you get an EICAS warning msg. FWD CARGO FIRE what should you do first?

A

Run the QRC for FWD CARGO FIRE.

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44
Q

When must a fire detection system test be performed?

A

A crew first flight of the day in a particular airplane

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45
Q

After running Memory item and QRC for a hot start, what section of the QRH do you go to?

A

NON Annunciated

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46
Q

Engine failure at V1. You accomplish the actions and callouts according to SOPM and upon reaching VFS you call CONTINUOUS, BANK OFF. How is the Engine set to Continuous?

A

TRS key on MCDU the select CON

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47
Q

PF advances the thrust levers to the TO/GA detent and cals CHECK THRUST what is the PM looking Verifying?

A
  1. N1 has reached target
  2. ATTCS is green
  3. Engine parameters are normal
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48
Q

When should you notice GA mode displayed between the N1 gauges?

A
  1. gear down

2. flaps extended

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49
Q

When is FLEX thrust prohibited?

A
  1. Wind shear
  2. Contaminated runway
  3. Special Dep procedure requires full thrust.
50
Q

When will ATTCS command RSV thrust?

A
  1. N1 value exceeds difference of 15%
  2. Wind Shear
  3. Engine failure during T/O or GA
51
Q

If you choose not to dry motor the engine after a first failed attempt how long must you wait before a second engine start is attempted.

A

10 sec

52
Q

When must an engine start be manually aborted?

A
  1. No positive oil pressure within 10 sec of N2 increase.
  2. A positive N1 is not indicated before starter cutout
  3. No ITT light off within 30 seconds of engine start
  4. N2/N1 stagnation.
  5. Hot start
  6. Oil Pressure stabilizes below limits
  7. Intermediate malfunction Electrical/ pneumatic before starter disengagement.
53
Q

What happens to the autopilot with the stick shacker?

A

The autopilot disconnects with the stick shacker

54
Q

What is true during the Captains Flt control Check?

A
  1. Elevators, ailerons and rudders indicate travel in correct directions.
  2. Flt controls are checked for freedom of movement.
  3. A full green box indication on the synoptic page is not a requirement.
55
Q

What is the purpose of the Electrical power up built in test (P-BIT)

A
  1. Provides detection of out of tolerances conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs, and SF-ACES.
56
Q

Outside air temp is -20. you notice AFCS FAULT msgs along with erroneous airspeed indications on PFDS what do you do?

A

Turn on ADSP heater and allow the E-PBIT to run properly and ensure the AFCS FAULT msg. is no longer displayed.

57
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A
  1. Less than 180 kt
  2. Flaps greater than 1
  3. Thrust near TOGA 70degrees TLA
58
Q

Stabilizer Trim Priority?

A
  1. Back up
  2. Capt.
  3. FO
  4. FCM Auto trim
59
Q

FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG msgs indicate after starting engine 1 only and releasing the parking brake?

A

Hyd portion of the PBIT is in progress

60
Q

No APU and both IDG’s fail?

A
  1. RAT deploys after 8 sec, supplies power to AC ESS bus
  2. Batteries power DC ESS busses and the AC standby bus using an inverter before RAT is deployed.
  3. DC ESS Busses are powered though the ESS TRU
61
Q

Items on AC ESS Bus

A
  1. ACMP 3A
  2. AC fuel pump 2
  3. Flap Channel 1
  4. Slat Channel 2
62
Q

Battery 1 shows 23 Volts

Battery 2 shows 22 Volts

A

You must recharge the batteries through any AC source prior to T/O

63
Q

Turning Batteries 1 and to ON and AUTO the following screens are displayed?

A

Only displays 2 and 3 should be available.

64
Q

After loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 and one minute later you receive a BATTERY DISCHARGING warning msg on EICAS?

A

RAT is not powering the AC Essential bus

the Batteries are not being recharged.

65
Q

Starting engine 1 with APU running what is powering the electrical system?

A

IDG 1 and APU GEN

66
Q

ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS MSG?

A

Loss of normal AC power to AC bus 1 and AC bus 2

67
Q

AC and power is used to start the APU, which fuel pumps will provide fuel pressure to the APU?

A

AC fuel pump

68
Q

Max fuel capacity?

A

20,935

69
Q

Two wing tanks each divided into a
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Main
  2. Collector
  3. Surge tank
70
Q

Electrical Emergency with the RAT deployed which electrical fuel pumps are available?

A
  1. AC pump 2

2. DC pump

71
Q

During cruise what is the primary pump used to transport fuel from the tank to the engine?

A

Main Ejector Pump

72
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A

794

73
Q

Cross selector set to LOW 1 or LOW 2 is best described as?

A

Both engines burning fuel from the same tank in order to balance fuel.

74
Q

The only way to close the engine fuel shutoff valves is with the _____________.

A
  1. Engine fire Ext handles.
75
Q

Minimum fuel temp?

Minimum fuel tank temp?

A
  1. -40

2. -37

76
Q

Nose gear towing light Red?

A
  1. Parking Brake on
  2. NWS on
  3. External steering engaged.
77
Q

Pressing water dump, the striped bar will extinguish when one of the following occurs?

A
  1. Faulty drain mast heater indication in the aft flt att. control panel.
  2. Water dump button pressed again
  3. Potable water system is empty
  4. Landing gear extended
78
Q

Landing ILS 35L the ATIS is reporting winds at 350/10G18
Based on your estimated landing weight, you have determined your Vref speed to be 128 knots. Calculate Vap speed to be set in the MCDU?

A

= 141
Half of the headwind with would be 5
plus all the gust would be 8
8 + 5 = 13 add 13 + 128 Vref = 141 Vap.

79
Q

When will passenger Oxygen deploy and how long will it last?

A
  1. 14,000 to 14750

2. 12 min.

80
Q

What will the Flt. Director command if you activate the DES no option on the MCDU prior to reaching the TOD?

A

It will initiate a descent of 1,000fpm

81
Q

Pressing VNAV turn VNAV on/off. if VNAV is on, the vertical mode is displayed in magenta on the FMA?

A

TRUE

82
Q

As you approach your cruise alt. the vertical mode in the FMA should switch from FLCH to ASEL as well as the auto-throttle mode should change from SPDE to SPDT?

A

TRUE

83
Q

Climbing via an RNAV departure with multiple alt. and speed restriction the controller says, Delete alt. restrictions, climb and maintain FL230. What is the most appropriate way to comply with this clearance?

A

Climb in green FLCH and FMS speeds.

84
Q

The use of FMS speeds is allowed during all flight conditions, including SE flight?

A

TRUE

85
Q

TCS (Touch Control Steering) button is pressed on the Control wheel the flt. director is synced with the flight path angle?

A

TRUE

86
Q

Holding at 5,000 MSL what is the minimum speed for SkyWest?

A
  1. 200 KIAS

2. Not less than Green dot.

87
Q

“Fly runway Heading” and after runway heading is verified the Capt. arms the auto-throttles and both pilots silently verity the following on the FMA?

A 
White TO (armed A/T mode)
Green ROLL (active lateral mode)
Green TO (active vertical mode)
and white VNAV (armed vertical mode)
88
Q

The FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) shows.

A

Automation modes and Status.

89
Q

The APU can supply bleed air and anti-ice?

A

NO

Only Bleed air to 15,000

90
Q

Buttons on the Air Conditioning/Pneumatic control panel are in the AUTO position if the pressed in and dark (no white stripes)?

A

TRUE

91
Q

What protects the airplanes’s structure from damage due to over or under pressurization?

A

Safety relief valve and

Negative pressure relief valve.

92
Q

AUTO mode pushing Cabin DUMP

A
  1. Recirculation fans are turned off
  2. Packs are turned off
  3. Outflow valve opens to maintain 2,000 fpm to 12,400
93
Q

Packs are automatically turned off during engine start if in auto position?

A

TRUE

94
Q

Pressurization Mode button is in AUTO, the LFE is automatically set based on flt. plans destination?

A

TRUE

95
Q

AI WING VLV OPEN status msg. in VMC conditions?

A

Normal test comes on 10min after Dep.

or at 10,000 ft. Agl. whichever occurs first.

96
Q

After landing light snow and contaminated surfaces what is the crew required to do?

A

Ice protection should be turned from AUTO to ON

97
Q

Ice protection panel is dark. Buttons pushed in is Auto mode?

A

TRUE

98
Q

STALL PROT ICE SPEED is displayed what must the pilot due.

A

“With Ice Accretion” chart for determining their V speeds for landing if ACARS not available

99
Q

The Vertical and Horizontal stabilizer of the aircraft have anti-icing capabilities?

A

NO

100
Q

When is the windshield automatically heated?

A

During taxi out two engine.

101
Q

Radar range and tilt are adjusted with?

A

The CCD inner and outer knobs.

102
Q

The IRS can align on the ground or inflight?

A

TRUE

takes 17min

103
Q

While vectored to an ILS what button on the Guidance Panel arms LOC and GS on the FMA

A

APP

104
Q

Electrical Emergency what navigation sources are available?

A

NAV 1
IRS 1
FMS 2

105
Q

Navigation source information on the PFD is shown?

  1. FMS
  2. VOR/LOC
  3. Cross side.
A
  1. Magenta
  2. Green
  3. Amber
106
Q

Setting the auto brakes to RTO provides the same deceleration rate as?

A

Maximum manual braking

107
Q

Procedure for landing on contaminated runway includes?

A

Max reverse thrust

Auto brakes MED

108
Q

When would you use the DN LOCK REL button?

A

Retracting the landing gear for obstacle clearance.

109
Q

How many ways can the flt. crew attempt to lower the landing gear?

A
  2. Gear handle
  3. Electric overide.
  4. Manual handle overide.
110
Q

The landing gear and brakes are actuated using?

A

Hydraulic pressure.

111
Q

Max brake performance landing on a short runway this is a good technique?

A

Maximum manual braking.

Maximum reverse thrust

112
Q

Max tire speed?

A

195

113
Q

On the MCDU radio frequencies can be changed by?

A
  1. typing new freq. on scratchpad then selecting desired radio frequency to change it.
  2. Selecting the frequency to be changed then using the tuning knob on the MCDU
114
Q

COM 3 is deferred, how would you figure out landing performance?

A

ACARS uses COM 3 so use QRH

115
Q

It is possible to tune the radios with the PFD (primary flt. display) and CCD (cursor control device?

A

TRUE

116
Q

The Radios are primarily controlled by?

A

MCDU radio page.

117
Q

A successful FDR (Flt. Data Recorder) test consists of pressing the FDR test button and verifying that no _______

A

FDR EICAS msg. appear.

118
Q

Pressing the PAX ADDRESS button allows direct communication to the PAX regardless of what is selected on the ACP (Audio Control Panel)?

A

TRUE

119
Q

The MIC button on the Audio Control Panel must be selected to MASK to allow the oxygen mask microphone to work in the event the Auto Mode fails?

A

TRUE

120
Q

Emergency Flt Att. Call button when pressed?

A
  1. Triple Hi/Lo chime over the PA system,
  2. Green light inside the button flashes,
  3. Flashes red light on the ceiling of the FA station (on the rainbow bar)
121
Q

The control wheel PTT switch should be selected to ____ in order to communicate with ramp personnel?

A

HOT.

175 LIMITATIONS (21 decks)

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