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175 LIMITATIONS > E175 CQ 2022 > Flashcards

E175 CQ 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

Check brake wear indicators.

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the Brake wear indicators?

A

No

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3
Q

 (AOM Vol. 2 Landing Gear and Brakes)
If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walkaround?
 (AOM Vol. 2 Hydraulic)

A

Activate system 1 and 2 electric hydraulic pumps

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4
Q

On the external inspection, you notice that the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?
 (Ref. SOPM Ch. 4)

A

Turn ADSP heater switch to on to remove frozen contaminants

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5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSP’s during the pre-flight?
 (Ref. SOPM Ch. 4)

A
  1. Probes are contaminated.
  2. 0 degrees and visible moisture
  3. PFD displays erroneous airspeed indications and ECIAS displays AFC FAULT,AT FAIL AP FAIL YD FAIL APPR2 NOT AVAIL and other msgs.
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6
Q

Use the pictorial walk around - Describe the preflight action outlined in the SOPM for the Nose Landing Gear.
 (SOPM Preflight)

A
  1. Wheel and tires condition (Clear of Ice)
  2. Up Lock hook Unlocked
  3. Down lock springs Condition
  4. Strut/Wheel Well Doors condition and leaks
  5. Ground locking pin removed landing and taxi light condition.
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7
Q 
What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT.
   Rev Original 10/01/2019
Page | 6
 ERJ CQ Study Guide 2020
    (SOPM Preflight)
A

RAT

Rat Safety Lock pin Removed

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8
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?
 SOPM Preflight)

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. ensure no damage to the T12 Sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

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9
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?
 (SOPM Preflight)

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate.

Check for damage on spinner

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10
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

 (SOPM Preflight)

A

yes

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11
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?
 (SOPM Preflight)

A

3

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12
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection according to the SOPM.
 (SOPM Preflight)

A 
Wheels and tire condition 
up lock hook unlocked 
Down lock  Springs condition 
strut/wheel/ weals condition and no leaks 
ground locking pin removed 
brakes wear indicators check
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13
Q

KNOWLEDGE VALIDATION ERJ 2020 Subtask: 10.2.15 Recite Aircraft Memory Items
How many static discharges are on the aileron? Winglet? What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges?
 (SOPM Preflight, CDL)

A

6 on Winglet

3 on aileron

4 on Rudder

4 on Elevator

1 on Vertical Stab

CDL

AFM

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14
Q

You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that this action was effective?
 Verify using QRC(SOPM Attachment 2) , followed by (QRH EAP 5-1)

A

ASSOCIATED BATTERY OFF

VERIFY USING QRC followed by QRH EAP 5-1.

Verify on electrical synoptic page.

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15
Q

You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT redline. What temperature is redline, and what do you do?
 (AOM1 CH2-40, SOPM CH 2) (AOM 2-40) ( QRH NAP 1-6)

A

815C

EFFECTED ENGINE START/STOP SELECTOR STOP
QRC
QRH NAP 1-6

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16
Q

On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do? (STEERING RUNAWAY memory item)
 (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH1-16)

A

STEER DISC SWITCH PRESS steer using airplane differential braking and rudder.

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17
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do? (SMOKE EVACUATION memory item). Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?
 (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH S1-2)

A

OXYGEN MASK DON, EMER
CREW COMMUNICATION ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP PUSH IN

QRH S1-2

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18
Q

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do?
 (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH 2-1)

A

OXYGEN MASKS DON, 100%
CREW COMMUNICATION ESTABLISH

QRH 2-1

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19
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose-down control pressure. What do you do? (PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY)
 (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH NAP1-15).

A

AP DISC BUTTTON PRESS AND HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTON PUSH IN

QRH NAP 1-15

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20
Q

Where is the battery temperature read? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page(s) when troubleshooting a problem.
(27.1 NG IAS Pilot guide Ch.7-56)

A

Electrical synoptic page.

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21
Q

What CAUTION message will populate when the Associated Battery is selected off?
 (AOM2 14-05-45) Rev Original 10/01/2019
Page | 7

A

Batt 1 (2) OFF

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22
Q

ERJ CQ Study Guide 2020 List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A
  1. No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N@ speed starts to increase.
  2. No N1 before starter cutout (50% N2)
  3. No Itt within 30 sec after initiation of fuel flow.
  4. ITT exceeds start limit (815C)
  5. Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limits.
  6. N1 and/or N2 filing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
  7. an intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.
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23
Q

 (SOPM CH 4, ENGINE START ABNORMAL ENGINE START INDICATION)
What action does the SOPM require when the cabin altitude reaches 14,500’ on an emergency descent?
 (SOPM Chapter 5.1.8 & QRH EAP2-1)

A

Yes
10,000 ft. or MEA whichever is higher
MEA is on the enroute chart

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24
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

 (SOPM Ch.5.1.8)

A

Terrain must be on MFD

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25
Q

Is the PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?
 (QRH NAP1-15)

A

Yes

QRH NAP 1-15

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26
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?
 (QRH NAP1-15)
KNOWLEDGE VALIDATION ERJ 2020 Subtask: 10.2.16 Recite Aircraft Limitations

A

Follow QRH NAP 1-15

Continuous turns help alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies.

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27
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?
 (AOM1 3-05, SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up) (SOPM CH2.APU LIMITS)

A

After verifying there are no fire protection fail messages

30 sec

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28
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?
 (SOPM CH2.FUEL)

A

yes, as long as it is less than 794

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29
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

 (SOPM CH2.FUEL)

A

-37

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30
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 and 2?

A

90 sec

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31
Q

 (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT) Minimum time between starts 1 and 2?
 (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

A

10 sec

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32
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

 (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

A

120 sec.

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33
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

 (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

A

50% N2

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34
Q

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan of the ERJ-175?
 (SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS)

A

Wing span

93’ 11”

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35
Q

What is maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?

 (SOPM CH2 MAX ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

A

15 knots

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36
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 30 kts?
 (SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND)

A

No max is 25 due to compressor stall possibility.

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37
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

 (SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL LIMITATIONS) Rev Original 10/01/2019

A

100’

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38
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What Altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA - demonstrate?
 (QRH EAP2-1)

A

Yes
10,000 ft. or MEA whichever is higher
MEA is on the enroute chart

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39
Q

When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?
 (AOM1 3-05,SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up)
Page | 8

ERJ CQ Study Guide 2020

A

22.5

less than 22.5 but not less than 21.0

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40
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?
 (SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

A

Vb 270/.76 (whichever is lower) target speed

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41
Q

An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instructs you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?
 (SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

A

APU max start alt is 30,000

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42
Q

If flying a CAT II approach, what flap setting is required?

A

5

43
Q

 (SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS) What is the maximum wiper speed?
 (SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

A

250 KIAS

44
Q

True/False: We can use RNAV (GPS) LP minima.

 (SOPM CH2 FMS LIMITATIONS)

A

false

45
Q

True/False: Do not attempt a go-around after deployment of the thrust reversers.
 (SOPM CH2 THRUST REVERSES)

A

true

46
Q

Is it permissible to turn the Landing lights off while on an approach in IMC if they pose a distraction?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Yes

47
Q

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Yes

48
Q

What is the PF’s verbal response after immediately fixing a deviation on approach to landing?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Correcting

49
Q

What is the PM’s deviation callout with a descent rate > 1,000 ft/min on approach to landing?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

SINK RATE

50
Q

What magnitude of deviation from glide path requires a call out by the PM? What is the SOPM callout?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

ONE DOT

GLIDE PATH

51
Q

When are speed deviation callouts required on approach to landing? What is the callout?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Target -5
or any speed less than Vref, which ever is higher.
SPEED.

52
Q

What bank angle would be considered a deviation? What is the PM’s callout?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

> 25 degrees

BANK

53
Q

What is the responsibility of the PM if the EGPWS fails to make callouts automatically?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Perform the expected call outs

54
Q

It is critical to a safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude.
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

1,000’

55
Q

What speed is mandatory by 500’ on approach to landing? What thrust setting?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct) Rev Original 10/01/2019

A

Airspeed within bug

Thrust above idle

56
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto-flight system is engaged? Why?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

Yes,

The pilot must be prepared to manually land or initiate a go-around anytime it is necessary.

57
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed above target on approach at 1,000 ft? What would the PM callout if the PF exceeds this speed?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

A

+15

SPEED

58
Q

What is the latest position on the approach to plan for landing gear down? Is there a planned speed at this position as well?
 (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)
Page | 9

A

By 1,500’ or FAF whichever occurs first.

180 kt. or less.

59
Q

Conditions for Cold WX Preflight Inspection

A
  1. OAT is 5C or less
  2. Wing fuel Temp is 0C or less
  3. Conditions conducive to icing exist.
  4. RON and may have contaminants.
  5. Through flight with residual ice from inbound flt
  6. Cold soaked ice suspected in fuel tank.
60
Q

What checklist must be completed prior to starting the deice/anti-ice process

A

The before Start checklist

61
Q

What ;is used in lieu of normal procedures Checklist from start of the deice/anti-ice process through the before takeoff checklist?

A

ERJ flight deck Deice/anti-ice checklist

62
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off

63
Q

Are there different deice procedures for Engines off vs Engines Runnings?

A

Yes

64
Q

What checklist must be complete prior
to starting the deice/anti-ice
process?

A

The

BeforeStartChecklist.

65
Q

What is used in lieu of normal proceduresChecklist from the start of
the deice/anti-ice process through the Before Take off Checklist?

A

ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECK LIST.

•

66
Q

What is the guidance the check list provides regarding running the
APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off .ERJFLIGHTDECKDEICE/ANTI-ICECHECKLIST

•

67
Q

Are there different deice procedures for
Enginesoffvs
Engines
Running?

A

Yes.

ERJ FLIGHTDECK DEICE/ANTI-ICECHECKLIST

68
Q

ARE THE DEICE/ANTI-ICE COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS REQUIRED? WHERE ARE THEY FOUND?

A
  1. Yes

2. Communication elements Table: EFB: Weather Deice/Anti-ice Checklist engines off and running.

69
Q

List two required communications elements from the Communication elements table.

A

A Specify type of fluid used
B Specify the percentage of fluid within the fluid/water mixture.
C Specify the time of the beginning of the final step
E Specify the most deicing and/or anti-icing check for clean surface is complete.

70
Q

When does HOT begin?

A

Start of final application of fluid.

71
Q

What does the HOT represent?

A

A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for the varying precipitation intestines.

72
Q

In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs Lighter precipitation.

73
Q

What should a crew use to determine precipitation intensities in order to accurately establish a HOT

A

Official WX observations, table from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensites listed in the official observations. GDPM Precipitation intensities and types.

74
Q

What are two factors that influence the effectiveness of deicing /anti-icing fluid?

A

Change in precipitation type, intensity, and moisture content.
Change in ambient and aircraft skin temp.
Position of aircraft relative to the exhaust or prop wash of other aircraft.
Change in wind direction or velocity.

75
Q

Can parking in the proximity of another aircrafts jet wash blow the deice/anti-ice fluid off the wings rendering the HOT invalid or the fluid ineffective

A

Yes

76
Q

List two precipitation types that HOTs do not exist for?

A
  1. Heavy snow
    2 Ice pellets
  2. Moderate and heavy freezing rain
  3. Hail
77
Q

When is a pretakeoff check done?

A

within the holdover time and just prior to takeoff.

78
Q

what is checked as part of the pre=takeoff check?

A

The representative surface from a vantage point in the aircraft that the Pic Determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

79
Q

What should the crew do if they are unable to determine the representative surface is free from frozen contaminants?

A

Must be deiced again.

80
Q

When is a pre-takeoff contamination check conducted:

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing wx conditions, or in heavy snow. To ensure the wings, control surfaces and other critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminates.

81
Q

Can the pre=takdoff contamination check =be performed if the deice process was initiated at a location other then the wings, say the tail?

A

No

82
Q

Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart with frozen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?

A

no

83
Q

In the TLR what percentage of reported steady state wind is used for headwind performance calculations?

A

50%

84
Q

Are wind gusts used for headwind calculations when using the TLR?

A

NO

85
Q

What percentage of the reported study state winds are used in the TLR tailwind calculations?

A

150%

86
Q

How is the reported gust velocity used when calculating crosswind components.

A

Most unfavorable direction. The reported gust is applied to the wind component to determine crew member limitations. Reported peak gusts are not considered.

87
Q

How does the PIC determine if MEL and CDL penalties are included in TLR report?

A

If they are listed int he Remarks section.

88
Q

Use the planned ATIS for your departure, is the TLR Takeoff data usable.

A

The release does not include target N1, a call to dispatch is required.

89
Q

What does the following code indicate from the landing section of the TLR
26L E200F

A

26L-E2000F. TWY 26L East end shortened by 2,000

90
Q

Are landing assessments primarily performed using the TLR or ACARS?
When can the TLR be used for landing assessments.

A

ACARS

At the PICs discretion

91
Q

In the FOM’s landing performance hierarchy, When reported, what should be used to determine landing performance

A

RWY CC values

92
Q

When RCC’s are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance.

A

Contamination type and braking Action reports.

93
Q

If RwyCC values for the same runway are different. ie 5/4/3 which RCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

A

The most restrictive. 3

94
Q

Are RCC’s bidirectional?

A

Yes, runways are evaluated to include deplaned thresholds, and are measured equally in either direction.

95
Q

Use the Flight release METAR and Planned landing weights.
What is the heaviest achievable landing weight?
Min ldg distance - Flaps 5 - No Thrust REV CREDIT?

A

Planned LDW 64005
FICON 5/4/3 100 pct wet
6829

96
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Take off and landing performance assessment

97
Q

What is RCAM

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix is the tool used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via field condition (FICON). The RCAM maps contamination type and depth to a runway condition code RWY RCC

98
Q

What percentage of th runway surface needs to be covered for the ray to be contaminated.

A

Greater than 25%

99
Q

What does the RWYCC represent?

A

The Braking Action (BA) expected for a particular contaminate level.

100
Q

What are RWYCCs used for?

A
  1. To determine landing distance.
  2. Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most living contaminant.
  3. Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway faction.
101
Q

A RwyCC value of 0 represents what type of BA

A

Nil, and results in immediate runway closure.

102
Q

How long can a CICON NOTAM be in effect?

A

24 hours and may not reflect actual condition and braking action.

103
Q

What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM does not accurately reflect current conditions?

A

Consult the dispatcher, airport, or ATC to ascertain current rwy information.

175 LIMITATIONS (21 decks)

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