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175 LIMITATIONS > REV 4 175 TEST QUESTIONS > Flashcards

REV 4 175 TEST QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

After turning BATT 1 & 2 to ON and AUTO in the Safety and Power Up Checklist, you
notice that display unit 1, 2 and 3 are powered. What should you do?

A

WRITE IT UP THEN

CALL MX

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2
Q

You arrive to the airplane for an early morning departure. After establishing AC
power, you see that the ATIS is reporting an OAT of -20 degrees Celsius. You notice
that your PFDs are displaying airspeed information and you have an AFCS FAULT
message on EICAS. Should you immediately call maintenance?

A

No, follow the ADSP procedure in the SOPM for frozen contamination removal.

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3
Q

What visual indications signify an acceptable fire system test?

A

a. 6 red overhead lights (2 engine fire handles, Fwd and Aft Cargo Smoke
Buttons, APU Fire Button, APU Emergency Stop).
b. 5 red EICAS messages (“ENG 1/2 FIRE”,” APU FIRE”, “CRG FWD/AFT
SMOKE”).
c. 2 glareshield warning lights, and 2 “FIRE” icons on the ITT gauges.

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4
Q

While performing the external inspection, the APU suddenly shuts down and you
notice smoke coming out of the tail cone. It takes you 60 seconds to get from the
rear of the aircraft, up the jet bridge, and back to the flight deck. Once in the flight
deck, what do you expect to see?

A

The APU Fire Extinguishing button illuminated red

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5
Q

You are sitting at the gate with a GPU powering the aircraft. The GPU suddenly
comes unplugged, what should you do?

A

c. Power down the aircraft using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist then
power back up using the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

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6
Q

On the Safety and Power Up Checklist, what does the SOPM say to check prior to
initiating the fire system test?

A

a. No fire protection fail messages are displayed on EICAS.

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7
Q

What will you do if the electrical portion of the flight control PBIT is interrupted?

A

c. You may continue as long as “FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED” message is not displayed.

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8
Q

What will interrupt the hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT?

A

b. Flight control movement.

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9
Q
  1. On a winter morning in Calgary, you arrive to a cold soaked airplane. The hydraulic
    reservoir temp is -19 degrees C. What are your options to get home?
A

d. Accomplish a Hydraulic System Warm-up.

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10
Q
  1. On the Status page, if the crew oxygen indicator is ______, sufficient oxygen is
    available for up to 3 flight deck members. If the crew oxygen indicator is ______,
    sufficient oxygen is available for ONLY 2 flight deck members.
A

a. Green, cyan.

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11
Q
  1. Where does a passenger with an infant in arms need to be seated?
    a. Left side
    b. Right side
    c. Last three rows
    d. Either Side
A

d. Either Side

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12
Q
  1. The CLR indicates there is a live animal in the cargo. Which of the following
    statements is TRUE?
    a. The animal must be placed in the forward cargo compartment.
    b. The animal must be placed in the aft cargo compartment.
    c. The animal can be placed in either cargo compartment.
    d. We cannot carry live animals in either cargo compartment.
A

a. The animal must be placed in the forward cargo compartment.

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13
Q
  1. The ramp agent brings you a CLR with the weights listed below. What adjustments,
    if any, must be made to stay within aircraft limits?
    Fwd Cargo: 3,400 lbs Aft Cargo: 2,800 lbs
    a. No adjustments needed.
    b. Reduce the Fwd Cargo to no more than 3,306 lbs and the Aft Cargo to no
    more than 2,535 lbs.
    c. Reduce the Fwd Cargo to no more than 2,535 lbs and the Aft Cargo is fine.
    d. Reduce the Aft Cargo to no more than 2,535 lbs and the Fwd Cargo is fine.
A

b. Reduce the Fwd Cargo to no more than 3,306 lbs and the Aft Cargo to no
more than 2,535 lbs.

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14
Q

While attempting an engine start, the FADEC automatically aborts for a hung start.
After performing the Engine Abnormal Start memory item, the SOPM states you
must reference start abort procedures before you can attempt another start. In what
section of the QRH would you find this information?
a. Non-Annunciated
b. Normal Checklists
c. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures
d. Smoke

A

a. Non-Annunciated

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15
Q

What would cause a red light for the tug driver prior to pushback?

a. The FWD cargo door being open
b. The nose gear pin being installed
c. Inadequate tire pressure in the main wheels
d. The external steering disengage switch in the engaged position

A

d. The external steering disengage switch in the engaged position

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16
Q
  1. While the First Officer is performing a cross-bleed start, what is the minimum duct
    pressure required?
    a. 30 PSI
    b. 35 PSI
    c. 40 PSI
    d. It depends on the airport elevation and temperature
A

c. 40 PSI

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17
Q

During cold weather operations if no oil pressure indication is displayed by the
time idle RPM is achieved, what is the appropriate response?
a. Allow engine to idle for two minutes to warm up the oil
b. Perform an immediate shutdown
c. Increase N1 to 40% RPM for 30 seconds to increase oil flow.
d. This is considered normal and oil pressure indication only needs to be
present before takeoff.

A

b. Perform an immediate shutdown

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18
Q
  1. According to the QRH, what consideration must be made in regard to a single engine
    taxi with the engine #2?
    a. Turn HYD ELEC PUMP 2 ON.
    b. Turn HYD ELEC PUMP 2 OFF.
    c. Turn HYD ELEC PUMP 1 ON.
    d. Ensure HYD ELEC PUMP 1 is in the AUTO position.
A

c. Turn HYD ELEC PUMP 1 ON.

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19
Q
  1. During an engine start with a tailwind there is no positive N1 increase before starter
    cutout. What is the appropriate action?
    a. Perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.
    b. FADEC will automatically abort the start.
    c. Turn the associated ignition knob to OFF.
    d. Refer to the QRH.
A

a. Perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.

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20
Q
  1. If you decide to dry motor an engine after an abnormal start, how long must you
    wait between the dry motor and the second start attempt?
    a. 2 min.
    b. 90 sec.
    c. 5 min.
    d. 3 min.
A

c. 5 min.

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21
Q 
23. After starting engine #1 with the APU still running what source(s) is/are powering
the electrical system?
a. IDG 1 only.
b. The APU gen only.
c. Both IDG 1 and the APU gen.
d. IDG 2 only.
A

c. Both IDG 1 and the APU gen.

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22
Q

After engine start you turn the APU knob to OFF only to realize that you need it for
takeoff performance. You must wait for the 1-minute cool down period to restart the
APU.
a. True.
b. False.

A

b. False.

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23
Q 
If there is no ITT indication within \_\_\_\_ after engine start, the start should be
manually aborted.
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 90 seconds
d. 120 seconds
A

a. 30 seconds

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24
Q

After starting engine #1, the Captain calls “Flaps 2, APU off, Flight Control Check”.
What EICAS message(s) should you be aware of before completing the After Start
Checklist flow?
a. APU SHUTTING DOWN
b. HYD PUMP NOT AUTO
c. PRK BRK SET
d. FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG

A

d. FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG

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25
Q
  1. If performing the flight controls check with one engine operating, checking one
    surface at a time will avoid spurious FLT CONTROL NO DISPATCH messages.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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26
Q
  1. A “FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” message will appear after starting engine #1 and after
    the parking brake is released. What does it indicate?
    a. The electrical portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress.
    b. The hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress.
    c. Both electrical and hydraulic portions of the flight control PBIT are in
    progress.
    d. Neither pilot should move the flight controls for 3 minutes.
A

b. The hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress.

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27
Q
  1. If deicing is anticipated, the after start checklist will be deferred until after deicing is
    complete.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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28
Q
  1. APU shutdown can only be performed after confirmation of power transfer. What
    are the two ways to confirm this transfer?
    a. View the PFD or wait 10 seconds.
    b. View the Map Page or wait 20 seconds.
    c. View the Electrical Synoptic Page or wait 30 seconds after N2 stabilizes.
    d. View the Status Page or wait 10 seconds after N2 stabilizes.
A

c. View the Electrical Synoptic Page or wait 30 seconds after N2 stabilizes.

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29
Q

Which engine is recommended to be started for a single engine taxi and why?
a. Engine #2. Hydraulic system 2 can power both inboard and outboard brakes.
b. Engine #1. Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically come on with the left engine
running, the parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO.
c. Engine #1. Nose wheel steering is powered by hydraulic system 1.
d. Engine #2. Hydraulic ACMP 1 will automatically come on with the right
engine running, the parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO.

A

b. Engine #1. Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically come on with the left engine
running, the parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO.

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30
Q

When should you not single engine taxi?

a. Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
b. Taxi time to/from a runway is < 5 minutes
c. Airport-specific regulations prohibit single engine taxi
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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31
Q
  1. During a cross-bleed engine start, you must monitor the ECS Synoptic page to verify
    duct pressure.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

a. True.

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32
Q

While taxiing, the Captain calls “Start Engine 2”. The FO turns the Powerplant
START/STOP selector from STOP to RUN. Before selecting to START, the FA calls to
advise there is a passenger out of their seat. After about a minute, the situation is
resolved and the FO moves the START/STOP selector to START but nothing happens. What should the FO do?
a. Select the Ignition to OFF then AUTO to reset the system.
b. Hold the powerplant selector in the START position for 30 seconds to reset
the system.
c. Return powerplant selector to STOP, then RUN, then START to reset the
system.
d. Have the Captain stop and call maintenance.

A

c. Return powerplant selector to STOP, then RUN, then START to reset the
system.

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33
Q

What is an operational difference with carbon brakes?
a. Carbon brakes wear less than steel brakes when operated at high
temperatures and fewer applications.
b. Carbon brakes wear more when operated at high temperatures so more
frequent, shorter applications are ideal.
c. Carbon brakes are heavier than steel brakes.
d. Carbon brakes absorb less energy than steel brakes.

A

a. Carbon brakes wear less than steel brakes when operated at high
temperatures and fewer applications.

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34
Q
  1. Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 2 or 3
A

b. 2

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35
Q
  1. What system configuration does the “TAKEOFF OK” aural not verify?
    a. Flaps
    b. Parking brake
    c. Engines
    d. Pitch trim
A

c. Engines

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36
Q
  1. If the Ice Protection switch is in AUTO and the system is selected OFF in the MCDU,
    when is the earliest the ice protection system will come on?
    a. As soon as ice is detected.
    b. At 1,700’ AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff, whichever occurs first.
    c. Approximately 5 minutes after takeoff.
    d. When the EGPWS detects the aircraft clear of significant terrain.
A

b. At 1,700’ AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff, whichever occurs first.

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37
Q
  1. After runway heading verification while in position, the Captain arms the auto
    throttles and both pilots should silently verify the correct modes are displayed in
    the FMA. What should be displayed?
    a. White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral field) and Green
    TO (upper vertical field)
    b. Green TO (upper left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral field) and Green
    TO (upper vertical field)
    c. White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green TRACK (upper lateral field) and
    Green TO (upper vertical field)
    d. Green TO (upper left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral field) and Green
    GA (upper vertical field)
A

a. White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral field) and Green TO (upper vertical field)

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38
Q

During the Before Takeoff Checklist below the line, the FO notices the brake temps
are amber. Can you depart?
a. Yes, if the temps are all below 100.
b. No, we cannot depart with amber brake temp indications.
c. Yes, if the temps are all below 50.
d. Both a and c are correct.

A

b. No, we cannot depart with amber brake temp indications.

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39
Q
  1. With the thrust levers at TOGA, when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?
    a. Difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%.
    b. One engine failure during takeoff or go-around.
    c. Windshear detection.
    d. Any of the above.
A

d. Any of the above.

40
Q

What is the job of the PTU?
a. The PTU is a backup source for nose wheel steering should hydraulic system
2 fail.
b. The PTU is a backup to hydraulic pump 3A.
c. The PTU assists landing gear retraction or extension, should the left engine
or left EDP fail.
d. The PTU assists landing gear retraction or extension, should the right engine
or right EDP fail.

A

d. The PTU assists landing gear retraction or extension, should the right engine
or right EDP fail.

41
Q

On takeoff, when do the auto-throttles engage?

a. Passing through 60 knots.
b. Passing through 100 knots.
c. When thrust levers are beyond 50 degrees TLA.
d. When the AT button is pressed when lined up on the runway.

A

c. When thrust levers are beyond 50 degrees TLA.

42
Q
  1. On takeoff you encounter windshear and the thrust rating has changed to TOx-RSV.
    The PF is not required to move the thrust levers to the MAX position.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

a. True.

43
Q

During takeoff, you experience an engine failure at V1. You accomplish the actions
and callouts per the SOPM. At acceleration altitude (1000ft AFE) and reaching VFS
you call “CONTINUOUS, BANK OFF”. How do you set engine thrust to continuous?
a. In this scenario the aircraft automatically sets it.
b. Pull the operative thrust lever to the climb detent.
c. Press the TRS button on MCDU, select CON.
d. Press the PERF button on MCDU, select CON.

A

c. Press the TRS button on MCDU, select CON.

44
Q

LNAV may be armed on the ground prior to takeoff

a. True.
b. False.

A

a. True.

45
Q

After takeoff you are unable to move the gear handle? When should you use the “DN
LOCK REL” button?
a. Any time the landing gear will not retract normally.
b. As an alternate method for extending the landing gear.
c. When needed to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance.
d. Only if the aircraft current weight exceeds MLW.

A

c. When needed to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance.

46
Q
  1. In response to the PF saying “CHECK THRUST,” what should the PM verify prior to
    saying “THRUST CHECKED”?
    a. Only that the thrust levers are in the TOGA position.
    b. N1 has reached N1 target, ATTCS is green, and engine parameters are
    normal.
    c. Only that the engine ITT and oil pressure are within limits.
    d. N2 is at an appropriate level, ATTCS extinguishes, and engine parameters are
    normal.
A

b. N1 has reached N1 target, ATTCS is green, and engine parameters are
normal.

47
Q

While hand-flying a departure, you feel an unusual amount of nose up pressure and
suspect runaway trim. What should you do?
a. A/P Disc Button – PRESS AND HOLD, Thermal Circuit Breakers C21 and C25
– OPEN
b. A/P Disc Button – PRESS AND HOLD, Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout
Button – PUSH IN
c. A/P Disc Button – PRESS AND HOLD, Electronic Circuit Breaker (MCDU,
PITCH TRIM) – SELECT OUT
d. Elev Disc Handle – PULL OUT

A

b. A/P Disc Button – PRESS AND HOLD, Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout
Button – PUSH IN

48
Q

After takeoff you observe an “AI WING VLV OPEN” status message. What does this
likely mean?
a. Wing valves have failed open.
b. This is a normal test after every takeoff.
c. A QRH procedure should be accomplished.
d. Ice is detected.

A

b. This is a normal test after every takeoff.

49
Q
  1. Someone is attempting to gain access to the cockpit using the EMERG ENTRY
    pushbutton on the door control panel in the cabin. How much time do you have to
    press the INHIB button before the door unlocks?
    a. 10 seconds.
    b. 90 seconds.
    c. 45 seconds.
    d. 30 seconds.
A

d. 30 seconds.

50
Q
  1. In the event of an engine fire or other severe malfunction, the only way to shut off
    the engine fuel shutoff valves is with the engine fire extinguishing handles.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

a. True.

51
Q

During the “Climb Sequence” what is the flap retraction schedule for a flaps 2
takeoff?
a. At 1000 AFE select flaps 1, at V2 +20 select flaps up.
b. At V2 +20 select flaps 1, at VFS select flaps up.
c. Retract flaps using the F-BUG.
d. Retract flaps using green dot.

A

c. Retract flaps using the F-BUG.

52
Q

What is the most likely meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?
a. The message will become a warning if not reconciled.
b. This message must be addressed before any others including any warning
messages.
c. Addressing this item first will likely clear other related messages.
d. Identifies a memory item.

A

c. Addressing this item first will likely clear other related messages.

53
Q

If the FO’s ADS (Air Data System) fails, what is the reversionary logic?

a. Automatic reversion to ADS 2.
b. Automatic reversion to ADS 4.
c. Automatic reversion to ADS 1.
d. Automatic reversion to ADS 3.

A

d. Automatic reversion to ADS 3.

54
Q
  1. It is possible to have a “FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL” EICAS warning message with more
    than 660 lbs. in a tank.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

a. True.

55
Q

On a flight from LAX to PDX, the PDC tells you to expect FL380 as a final cruise
altitude. While enroute, ATC assigns a final altitude of FL360. What considerations
should you make in regards to the pressurization system?
a. The automatic system takes care of all considerations in this case.
b. Change the cruise altitude in the MCDU to FL360 to lengthen the lifespan of
the airframe.
c. Select LFE on the pressurization panel and set the landing field elevation
manually.
d. Once at FL360, ensure the pressure differential is 8.34 per the pressurization
limitation.

A

b. Change the cruise altitude in the MCDU to FL360 to lengthen the lifespan of
the airframe.

56
Q
  1. If you have a dual ice detector failure, you will lose anti-ice protection.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

b. False.

57
Q
  1. While cruising at your selected altitude of FL350, your FMA shows ALT as the active
    vertical mode and your active auto throttle mode will show SPDe.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

b. False.

SHOULD BE SPDt

58
Q

While cruising at FL410, you get a master caution light and “PACK 1 FAIL” EICAS
message. The associated QRH procedure was unsuccessful in restoring the pack.
What is the maximum altitude you may cruise at?
a. FL290.
b. FL300.
c. FL310.
d. FL270.

A

c. FL310.

59
Q

Under what conditions will the FADEC shut down the APU in flight?

a. Sensor fail, APU EGT over-temperature, APU fire.
b. High oil temperature, low oil pressure, sensor fail.
c. Overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault.
d. There is no automatic FADEC shut down logic in flight.

A

c. Overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault.

60
Q

In the manual pressurization mode which statement is true when you push the
DUMP button?
a. The recirculation fans and PACKS turn off.
b. The outflow valve opens, and the recirculation fans and PACKS turn off.
c. Only the outflow valve opens.
d. Nothing happens when the DUMP button is pressed in manual mode.

A

a. The recirculation fans and PACKS turn off.

The Outflow Valves open to maintain 2,000 FPM to 12,400 ft. Only in Auto mode

61
Q

In an electrical emergency with the RAT deployed, which electric fuel pump(s) are
operational in addition to the engine driven pumps?
a. AC Pump 1 & 2, DC Pump.
b. AC Pump 1, DC Pump.A
c. AC Pump 2, DC pump.
d. DC Pump only.

A

c. AC Pump 2, DC pump.

62
Q
  1. In a dual engine failure situation the QRH will direct you to select the XFEED to LOW
  2. Why?
    a. To ensure that AC Pump 1 is on and the XFEED valve is closed.
    b. To ensure that AC Pump 2 is on and fuel can be supplied to either engine.
    c. To activate the DC Pump.
    d. To balance the fuel.
A

b. To ensure that AC Pump 2 is on and fuel can be supplied to either engine.

63
Q
  1. What is the Stabilizer Trim priority logic?
    a. Captain, FO, FCM, Backup.
    b. Captain, Backup, FO, FCM.
    c. Backup, Captain, FO, FCM.
    d. Captain, FO, Backup, FCM.
A

c. Backup, Captain, FO, FCM.

64
Q
  1. When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy and how long will they
    provide oxygen?
    a. Cabin altitude between 12,000 – 12,750 ft / 20 min.
    b. Cabin altitude between 14,000 – 14,750 ft / 12 min.
    c. When the CPCS senses more than 7.0 PSI / 12 min.
    d. None of the above.
A

b. Cabin altitude between 14,000 – 14,750 ft / 12 min.

65
Q
  1. If a fuel imbalance develops, how should you correct the abnormality?
    a. The aircraft will automatically transfer fuel when the imbalance is greater
    than 800 lbs.
    b. Transfer fuel between tanks as required using the Fuel Transfer option on
    the MCDU.
    c. Cross-feed fuel by selecting the low side with the XFEED knob.
    d. Select the DC Fuel Pump to ON.
A

c. Cross-feed fuel by selecting the low side with the XFEED knob.

66
Q
  1. If you believe you have a non-annunciated cargo fire in-flight, how many times will

you need to push the Associated Cargo Fire Extinguishing Button for both the high-
rate and low-rate bottles to discharge?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

67
Q

While flying at FL 330, one engine flames out, “ENG 1 FAIL” shows on the EICAS and
the engine doesn’t relight. At what altitude during the drift-down can you start the
APU as directed by the QRH?
a. FL 210
b. FL 300
c. FL 330
d. FL 280

A

b. FL 300

68
Q

With the APU off, what happens if both IDGs fail?
a. The RAT deploys automatically and, after 8 seconds, supplies power to the
AC ESS BUS.
b. The batteries power the DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS via the
inverter during the 8 second RAT deployment.
c. Once the RAT deploys, DC ESS BUSES are powered thought the ESS TRU.
d. All of the above are true.

A

d. All of the above are true.

69
Q

On the CREDE arrival into Denver you were assigned 300kts or greater until
advised. Descending through FL210 you experience moderate to severe turbulence.
What speed must you slow to?
a. 280 kts.
b. 260 kts.
c. 270 kts.
d. 250 kts.

A

c. 270 kts.

70
Q

You are level at FL 250 with the altitude pre-select set for 12,000, and push the DES
NOW option on the MCDU. What will the flight director command?
a. An initial descent angle of 10.
b. An initial descent of 1,000 FPM.
c. A constant descent angle of 20 through the rest of the profile.
d. A constant descent of 1,200 FPM until you re-select VNAV.

A

b. An initial descent of 1,000 FPM.

71
Q

What does the green dot on the PFD airspeed tape represent?

a. Indicates the most efficient climb speed.
b. Ideal acceleration speed for single engine profiles.
c. Represents flap retraction schedule.
d. Indicates the driftdown speed when flaps are up, and the ideal flap extension speed for the current aircraft weight.

A

d. Indicates the driftdown speed when flaps are up, and the ideal flap extension speed for the current aircraft weight.

72
Q 
In an electrical emergency, how long are the batteries capable of supplying essential
systems to the airplane?
a. 10 min
b. 15 min
c. 20 min
d. 30 min
A

a. 10 min

73
Q

You are expecting to land on Runway 16R at KDEN and the ATIS is calling winds
160/16G22. If Vref for your aircraft weight is 130, what is the correct Vap speed to
set in the MCDU?
a. 150
b. 144
c. 147
d. 158

A

b. 144

For VAP Add to VREF 130 half the headwind plus all the gust.

160/16 G22
Half the headwind is 8
plus the gust of 6 = 14
130 + 14 = 144

74
Q

The ERJ 175 is equipped with a Backup Radio. How do you operate this radio if
needed?
a. Use the Backup Tuning Unit located on the center pedestal.
b. MCDU 2, RADIO page 2/2.
c. MCDU 2, MENU button, LSK 4L.
d. Use the Cockpit Observer ACP.

A

c. MCDU 2, MENU button, LSK 4L.

75
Q

Which of the following vertical modes does not utilize SPDT?

a. FLCH
b. VS
c. FPA
d. PTH

A

a. FLCH

76
Q

While being vectored for an ILS approach, the previewed navigation source will
automatically transition to the primary navigation source upon localizer capture
with APP mode armed.
a. True.
b. False.

A

a. True.

77
Q

All of the following are considered part of a stabilized approach except …

a. The aircraft is established within 5 degrees of runway centerline.
b. Sink rate is no greater than 1,000 FPM unless briefed otherwise.
c. The aircraft is stabilized at Vapp.
d. Non-transient deviations below 500 ft.

A

d. Non-transient deviations below 500 ft.

78
Q

Which statement is true?

a. The preferred flap setting for a non-precision approach is flaps 4.
b. VOR approaches using vertical guidance require adding 50 feet to the MDA.
c. Vertical guidance is never available for non-precision approaches.
d. None of the above is true.

A

b. VOR approaches using vertical guidance require adding 50 feet to the MDA.

79
Q

What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 1 or 3.

A

b. 2.

80
Q 
The proper flap setting for a single-engine approach and landing (with all other
systems normal) is ...
a. Flaps 2.
b. Flaps 3.
c. Flaps 5.
d. Flaps 1.
A

c. Flaps 5.

81
Q
  1. If you anticipate landing with less than ______ of fuel remaining you must declare
    Minimum Fuel. If you anticipate less than _______of fuel remaining you must declare
    Emergency Fuel.
    a. 1,320 lbs, 660 lbs.
    b. 3,000 lbs, 2,000 lbs.
    c. 2,250 lbs, 1,500 lbs.
    d. The ERJ 175 can air refuel.
A

c. 2,250 lbs, 1,500 lbs.

82
Q

During landing, which of the following is false?
a. The ERJ 175 cannot fly a VOR approach in green needles.
b. A 500 ft callout will be made with reference to Radar Altitude.
c. While configuring in icing conditions, green dot + 10 knots give sufficient
stall margin.
d. Flaps 4 is only used for approaches to runways less than 8,000 ft long.

A

d. Flaps 4 is only used for approaches to runways less than 8,000 ft long.

b should be false also

83
Q

According to the SOPM, if performance considerations dictate, you may conduct a
CAT II approach with flaps selected full.
a. True.
b. False.

A

b. False.

84
Q

Shortly after takeoff, you experience smoke in the flight deck. You declare an
emergency, take the appropriate actions, and return to the takeoff airport. Over
what weight are you considered to be landing overweight?
a. 69,886 lbs.
b. 74,597 lbs.
c. 74,957 lbs.
d. 85,517 lbs.

A

c. 74,957 lbs.

85
Q
  1. On final approach, you look down at your N1 gauges and notice GA in between the
    gauges. When did this TRS mode become active?
    a. When flaps were selected to 1.
    b. When the landing gear was extended.
    c. When the flaps were set to the landing flap setting you selected in the MCDU.
    d. At an RA of 1000ft.
A

b. When the landing gear was extended.

86
Q
  1. How many ways are there to effectively lower the gear?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
A

c. 3

  1. Gear Handle
  2. Electric overide
  3. alternate gear extension lever.
87
Q
  1. If maximum performance braking is required for landing on a short runway, how is
    this achieved?
    a. Set auto brakes to RTO and use max reverse thrust.
    b. Set auto brakes to HI and use max reverse thrust.
    c. Set auto brakes to OFF, use brake pedals and max reverse thrust.
    d. Set Emergency/Parking brake ON before touchdown.
A

c. Set auto brakes to OFF, use brake pedals and max reverse thrust.

88
Q

The “After Landing Sequence” is …

a. A flow.
b. Performed by the First Officer.
c. Performed silently with no verbal confirmation.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

89
Q
  1. The SOPM requires us to use engine anti-ice while operating on contaminated
    taxiways and ramps. How is this achieved after landing while taxiing in?
    a. Automatically while the engine is running, ice is detected and the Ice
    Protection Mode Selector is in Auto.
    b. Automatically while the engine is running, REF A/I was set to ENG or ALL
    prior to departure in the MCDU and mode selector is in Auto.
    c. Manually by setting the Ice Protection Mode Selector to ON.
    d. Both a and b are correct.
A

c. Manually by setting the Ice Protection Mode Selector to ON.

90
Q

When shutting down engine #2 on the taxi in, which of the following is true?

a. You may shut down an engine after a 2 minute cool-down period.
b. Shut down the engine only after starting the APU.
c. It’s recommended to only shut down an engine while taxiing straight ahead.
d. A and C are correct.

A

d. A and C are correct.

91
Q

Pulling into the gate in DEN you realize the GPU is not available so you attempt to
start the APU. It fails to start on the first attempt. How long must you wait before
attempting a second start?
a. 60 sec
b. 90 sec
c. 5 min
d. 120 sec

A

a. 60 sec

92
Q
  1. Setting the Emerg/Parking brake requires stepping on the brake pedals to
    pressurize the system.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

b. False.

93
Q
  1. To prevent electrical power interruptions, it is recommended to wait 10 seconds
    after GPU button is pressed in, or after the APU is stabilized before shutting down
    one of the engines.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

a. True.

94
Q

After pulling into the gate single-engine with the APU off, the ramp agent gives you
the GPU connected hand signal. You look up and realize that the GPU button was left
pushed in from when you departed earlier. The GPU is now powering AC BUS 2.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

95
Q

The post flight external inspection may be waived by the inbound crew under what
circumstances?
a. The airplane is done for the day.
b. The outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew leaves.
c. The airplane is going to maintenance.
d. Inclement weather.

A

b. The outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew leaves.

96
Q

After completing the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, an agent runs up from the
ramp and tells you there is thick smoke coming from the left engine. Can you fight
an engine fire with the aircraft powered down?
a. Yes.
b. No.

A

a. Yes.

175 LIMITATIONS (21 decks)

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