Retina/Vitreous AAO Self-Assessment Flashcards

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1
Q

The early manifestations of idiopathic juxtafoveolar retinal telangiectasis includes which of the following findings?
Pigmentary migration into the retina
Asymmetric presentation
A focal pattern of late staining surrounding the fovea on fluorescein angiography
Temporal whitening of the macula

A

Many patients with idiopathic juxtafoveolar retinal telangiectasis present with symptoms in one eye only. The early angiographic findings reveal late staining of the retina, often in an oval configuration. The earliest clinical feature is graying of the retina temporal to the fovea. Only in the later stages of the disease does pigmentary migration occur. This acquired form of idiopathic juxtafoveolar retinal telangiectasis usually presents in the middle-aged to elderly population. Most patients retain good vision in at least one eye. The most common cause of visual loss is atrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium. Choroidal neovascular membranes may also occur.

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2
Q

A 32-year-old man presents without complaints for routine examination. On indirect ophthalmoscopy, multiple patches of peripheral lattice degeneration containing multiple atrophic retinal holes are noted in the superior retina OD. Lattice degeneration without retinal breaks is noted inferiorly OS. Which of the following statements regarding prophylactic treatment is most correct?
The patient’s right eye should receive prophylactic treatment with laser photocoagulation or cryoretinopexy prior to cataract surgery.
Only the patient’s right eye should be prophylactically treated with laser photocoagulation or cryoretinopexy.
Both of the patient’s eyes should be prophylactically treated with laser photocoagulation or cryoretinopexy.
If there is a prior history of retinal detachment in the left eye, prophylactic laser photocoagulation or cryoretinopexy should be considered in the right eye.

A

Lattice degeneration occurs in 6% to 8% of the population, with 20% to 30% of patients with lattice degeneration also having coexisting retinal holes. The decision to treat prophylactically is based on the risk of developing a retinal detachment without treatment, how much the treatment will reduce the risk of retinal detachment, and the risks of treatment. The rate of retinal detachment in eyes with lattice degeneration has been estimated to be less than 1%. Retinal breaks following cataract surgery are less likely to be associated with lattice degeneration than with the development of new flap tears. There are no studies documenting the value of prophylactic treatment in eyes with lattice degeneration except in the fellow phakic eyes with lattice degeneration of previous retinal detachment patients. In untreated eyes, a 2.5 times greater risk (1.8% vs 5%) of a new tear or detachment was found than in treated eyes.

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3
Q

A vitreous biopsy of a 66-year-old patient demonstrates cryptococcal organisms on fungal stain and culture. Which of the following statements accurately describes endogenous ocular cryptococcal infections?
Cryptococcal meningitis is frequently associated with ocular cryptococcal infections.
Cryptococcal infections occur only in immunosuppressed patients.
Chorioretinitis is the least common intraocular presentation of Cryptococcus.
Ocular involvement is the result of direct extension along the optic nerve and not by hematogenous spread.

A

Cryptococcal infections are caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, an ubiquitous fungus found in bird droppings. Cryptococcal infections are more common in, but not limited to, immunocompromised patients. Chorioretinitis, with or without vitritis, is the most common intraocular presentation of cryptococcosis; cryptococcal endophthalmitis is rare. Many disorders must be considered in the differential diagnosis of chorioretinal lesions with vitritis, such as those seen in cryptococcosis. Similar lesions may be found in tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, CMV retinitis, candidiasis, and toxoplasmosis. Acute retinal necrosis syndrome also presents with retinal inflammation and vitritis, but given this patient’s age, would be unlikely. Large-cell lymphoma should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. Ocular cryptococcal organisms may gain access to the eye by hematogenous spread, by direct inoculation as in trauma, or by direct extension along the optic nerve from the often accompanying cryptococcal meningitis, which is often fatal.

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4
Q

A 42-year-old man has a total retinal detachment and a circumferential, 150-degree peripheral retinal tear with an inverted flap. What surgical approach would be most appropriate?
360-degree peripheral laser photocoagulation
Intravitreal injection 0.3 mL of SF6 gas
Pars plana vitrectomy, retinal reattachment with perfluorocarbon liquid, laser photocoagulation, and complete fluid-gas exchange
Scleral buckle with intravitreal injection of SF6 gas

A

Retinal detachments from giant retinal tears, tears of greater than 90 degrees, have a high redetachment rate due to proliferative vitreoretinopathy. Because of the high risk of failure the preferred approach would usually include pars plana vitrectomy, use of perfluorocarbon liquid, laser photocoagulation demarcation and complete fluid-gas exchange. The other options, performed alone, would not be likely to temporarily flatten or reattach the retina.

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5
Q
A patient develops a hemorrhagic choroidal detachment following cataract surgery. Their intraocular pressure remains in the normal range. Surgical intervention is not needed in which of the following developments?
	Proliferative vitreoretinopathy
	Markedly elevated IOP and severe pain
	Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
	Spontaneous anatomical resolution
A

In a patient with a hemorrhagic choroidal detachment and normal intraocular pressure, spontaneous anatomical resolution is the most likely outcome. Surgical intervention is needed for retinal tears, detachment or incarceration. As well as for PVR and severe pain with markedly elevated IOP.

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6
Q

A 24-year-old man with a 10-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus presents with a visual acuity of 20/25 OD and 20/200 OS. Examination of the macula in the right eye demonstrates hard exudates and retinal thickening within 500 microns of the foveal center. A small area of flat retinal neovascularization is present in the right eye off the superotemporal arcade. The vitreous in the right eye is clear. Examination of the left eye demonstrates diffuse retinal thickening throughout the macula, scattered hard exudates, and blot hemorrhages. Marked neovascularization of the disc is present in the left eye, as well as nasal retinal neovascularization with mild vitreous hemorrhage. Ignoring the use of intravitreal injections. What is the best sequence of photocoagulation treatment for this patient?
Initial focal photocoagulation OU, followed by panretinal photocoagulation OU
Initial panretinal and focal photocoagulation OS, followed by focal photocoagulation OD
Initial panretinal photocoagulation OS, followed by focal photocoagulation OU
Initial panretinal photocoagulation OU, followed by focal photocoagulation OS

A

According to the criteria of the Diabetic Retinopathy Study (DRS) and the Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study (ETDRS), this patient has both high-risk proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) in the left eye, and clinically significant diabetic macular edema in both eyes. Therefore, panretinal photocoagulation in the left eye, and focal photocoagulation in both eyes are needed. However, panretinal photocoagulation has been shown to exacerbate coexisting diabetic macular edema. The ETDRS found that to reduce the effects of panretinal photocoagulation on diabetic macular edema, the procedure is best delayed until focal photocoagulation is completed. However, in cases in which high-risk PDR characteristics and diabetic macular edema coexist, the ETDRS does not recommend delaying panretinal photocoagulation in lieu of focal photocoagulation. Therefore, in this patient, concurrent focal and panretinal photocoagulation would be the best choice to initiate treatment for the high-risk PDR in the left eye, while reducing the effects of panretinal photocoagulation on the diabetic macular edema.

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7
Q

Which one of the following represents a risk factor for the development of atrophic retinal holes?
Young age
Macular degeneration
Family history of atrophic holes or lattice degeneration
Hyperopia

A

Atrophic retinal holes are associated with a family history of such holes, or of lattice degeneration. In addition, they are associated with increasing age and axial myopia. There is no association with macular degeneration.

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8
Q
What is the most frequent complication associated with pars plana vitrectomy and membrane peeling?
	Glaucoma
	Accelerated cataractogenesis
	Retinal tear
	Retinal pigment epithelial disturbance
A

Cataract is the most frequent complication associated with pars plana vitrectomy for phakic patients. Accelerated cataractogenesis leads to cataract surgery in 50% of patients within 2 years of vitrectomy. Glaucoma, retinal tears, and retinal pigmented epithelial disturbances occur at a frequency of less than 5%.

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9
Q

What mechanism, prognosis or treatment applies to asymptomatic atrophic retinal holes?
Requires demarcation treatment
Usually caused by blunt trauma
Low likelihood to progress to symptomatic retinal detachment
Highly likely to progress to asymptomatic retinal detachment.

A

As asymptomatic atrophic retinal holes have a low incidence of progression to retinal detachment; treatment is not usually indicated. Atrophic retinal holes are rarely caused by traumatic. Blunt trauma is more closely associataed with retinal dialysis.

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10
Q
What is a pertinent element in the history of a patient with suspected albinism?
	Absence of nystagmus
	Another family member affected
	Brown or dark colored eyes
	Onset in adulthood
A

As oculocutaneous albinism is an autosomal recessive disorder, other family members may be affected. Associated findings include childhood onset, nystagmus, and hypopigmented irides.

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11
Q
Branch retinal venous occlusion is most commonly associated with which systemic disease?
	Osteoarthritis
	Diabetes insipidus
	Arterial hypertension
	Hypothyroidism
A

Risk factors for branch retinal venous occlusion include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and primary open angle glaucoma. Branch retinal venous occlusion is most commonly associated with systemic hypertension.

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12
Q

Which of the following is the strongest indication for prophylactic treatment (cryopexy or laser surgery) to prevent rhegmatogenous retinal detachment?
An atrophic hole in a phakic patient whose other eye developed a retinal detachment
Lattice degeneration in a pseudophakic patient with a family history of retinal detachment
High myopia and lattice degeneration with new onset of floaters in a phakic patient
An asymptomatic flap tear in an eye with a cataract that is about to be rendered pseudophakic

A

The subject of prophylaxis for rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is an area of some controversy among vitreoretinal specialists. As with any surgical decision, the decision to treat must rest on an educated assessment of the risks of treatment versus the risk of leaving the patient untreated, as well as on knowledge of how much the treatment can actually reduce the risk of detachment. A thorough exploration is beyond the scope of this discussion, but factors that prompt treatment are evidence of acute onset of symptoms and the presence of vitreous traction. Less compelling indications are a history of detachment in the other eye and imminent cataract surgery, but the combination of the latter with evidence of traction becomes a strong indication to treat.

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13
Q
In which of the following quadrants are retinal dialyses most often found following blunt trauma?
	Inferotemporal, superonasal
	Inferotemporal, superotemporal
	Superotemporal, superonasal
	Superonasal, inferonasal
A

Blunt trauma may result in a variety of retinal breaks including retinal dialyses, macular holes, giant retinal tears, horseshoe retinal tears, operculated retinal tears, and large, necrotic, sometimes posterior retinal breaks often associated with chorioretinitis sclopetaria. Retinal dialyses, however, are the most common retinal breaks found following blunt ocular trauma. Retinal dialyses resulting from blunt trauma are most often found in the inferotemporal and superonasal quadrants. All patients with a history of blunt trauma need to be given a careful retinal examination with scleral depression to look for retinal breaks after their pain, iritis, or hyphema, if any, has resolved.

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14
Q

A 27-year-old woman has had a sudden onset of a dark area inferior to fixation in the left eye earlier in the day. Examination reveals a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and an area of retinal whitening that corresponds to a branch coming from the superotemporal retinal artery. Which of the following is likely to be associated with this condition?
An abnormality detected on cardiac echography
Evidence of alcohol abuse
An abnormality demonstrated with carotid Doppler and/or ultrasound imaging techniques
A history of cluster headaches

A

Branch retinal artery occlusion is an unusual occurrence in young people, and the causes are, in general, quite different from such occlusions in the elderly. Cardiac valve abnormalities and cardiac myxoma can lead to embolic phenomena, as can oral contraceptives. Exogenous emboli (talc) are seen in intravenous drug abusers. Migraine can cause true infarction and is the most common cause in someone of this age. Carotid disease is almost never involved in arterial occlusions in persons under 40 years of age.

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15
Q

A 58-year-old woman has no particular complaints on first-time routine examination. She has not had a dilated fundus examination before. Visual acuity is normal in each eye, but you find a peripheral area of retina that is thin and elevated in the right eye. You would like to know whether the appearance of the retina is due to retinoschisis, or a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment. Which of the following is likely to indicate retinoschisis?
No signs of a scotoma on Goldmann visual field testing
Myopia
Ophthalmoscopically a highly elevated, dome-shaped configuration
Atrophy of the underlying pigment epithelium

A

In retinoschisis, the pigment epithelium under the involved retina is normal and there is no atrophy, demarcation line, or subretinal strand formation, unless it is associated with a combined rhegmatogenous retinal detachment. Both rhegmatogenous retinal detachment and retinoschisis produce scotomas, but the scotoma in retinoschisis is absolute, while in rhegmatogenous retinal detachment it is relative. Retinoschisis is typically bilateral, dome-shaped, and seen more often in hyperopic eyes.

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16
Q
For non-exudative age-related macular degeneration, which of the following conditions is associated wtih a risk of vision loss?
	Congestive heart failure
	One large druse
	Diabetes mellitus
	Controlled systemic hypertension
A

In the AREDS Study, the presence of 1 or more large drusen (greater than 250 microns) increased the risk of visual loss. Controlled systemic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and diabetes mellitus do not represent direct negative risk factors for visual loss in non-exudative age-related macular degeneration.

17
Q

Which of the following is a clinical finding in the diagnosis of pseudophakic cystoid macular edema?
A strand of vitreous to the cataract wound and a peaked pupil
A 10-year history of diet-controlled diabetes mellitus and no visible diabetic retinopathy
A loud carotid bruit on the left side
A large subretinal hemorrhage

A

Vitreous to the wound is a cause of postoperative cystoid macular edema, chronic inflammation, and predisposition to retinal detachment. While venous occlusive disease related to glaucoma (central vein occlusion) and ocular ischemia related to carotid disease can produce cystoid changes in the macula, they are not commonly associated with typical pseudophakic macular edema. A subretinal hemorrhage is highly suggestive of choroidal neovascularization due to age-related macular degeneration, although an occasional intraretinal hemorrhage, or microaneurysm, may be seen in association with pseudophakic cystoid macular edema.

18
Q

You see a 26-year-old man with a 15-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus for the first time. His visual acuity is 20/20 OU. Fundus examination of the right eye reveals the vitreous to be clear. No neovascularization is visible on the disc or elsewhere; however, there are numerous microaneurysms, venous beading, and rare cotton-wool spots. Examination of the left fundus also reveals a clear vitreous with no blood present, but there is a frond of elevated neovascularization arising from the disc and another small patch of neovascularization away from the disc along the inferonasal arcade. Which of the following statements would be most accurate about the left eye of the patient?
Xenon-arc photocoagulation is less effective than argon laser surgery in reducing the risk of severe visual loss.
According to criteria established by the Diabetic Retinopathy Study, the patient does not have high-risk characteristics yet, because there is no vitreous hemorrhage.
If there is also clinically significant macular edema, peripheral retinal photocoagulation can be expected to reduce it.
Over the next 5 years, the risk of severe visual loss can be reduced by at least 50% with peripheral retinal photocoagulation.

A

The Diabetic Retinopathy Study shows that with the treatment protocol employed, the risk of severe visual loss is reduced by at least 50% over the period of observation. However, improvement in macular edema is not associated with peripheral retinal treatment. Under the protocols tested in major trials, the treatment of high-risk proliferative retinopathy is not directed at specific targets, but rather at the periphery and midperiphery, sparing the macular area. High-risk characteristics, as defined by the Diabetic Retinopathy Study, include (1) neovascularization of the disc (NVD) greater than 114 to 113 of the disc area; (2) vitreous or preretinal hemorrhage associated with less extensive NVD, or with neovascularization elsewhere (NVE), 112 of the disc area or more in size. Xenon-arc photocoagulation was found to have a similar effect to that of argon laser photocoagulation in reducing severe visual loss, but was associated with slightly increased side effects.

19
Q

Which of the following is associated with the diagnosis of an idiopathic macular hole?
Poor visual prognosis if not treated within 6 weeks of onset.
Most prevalent in patients 50 - 80 years old.
A 75% risk of developing similar condition in contralateral eye over 3 years.
More common in males.

A

Idiopathic macular holes are most prevalent in female patients 50 - 80 years old. The risk of fellow eye involvement has been reported in the range of 1-25%. Macular holes successfully repaired within 6 months of onset have a high likelihood of visual improvement.

20
Q

During phacoemulsification for cataract, one-third of the lens nucleus drops into the posterior vitreous of a 76-year-old patient. Which of the following statements would be suggested for the treatment of this patient?
Removal of the lens fragment and vitreous by phacoemulsification.
The nuclear material needs be surgically removed immediately.
Placement of an intraocular lens may still be considered in this patient.
The cataract surgeon should attempt to irrigate the lens fragments from the anterior vitreous if they are visible.

A

Retained unencapsulated lens material can produce severe, granulomatous intraocular inflammation, and may lead to secondary glaucoma, corneal decompensation, and retinal detachment. Depending on the size of the retained nuclear material, the degree of resultant inflammation, and increased intraocular pressure, surgical removal of the retained lens by posterior vitrectomy may or may not be mandatory. Intensive topical corticosteroids and pressure-lowering medications may control the secondary inflammation and glaucoma induced by small nuclear fragments. However, larger nuclear fragments may produce protracted inflammation and glaucoma, necessitating removal by posterior vitrectomy. If the lens nucleus is dropped posteriorly during cataract extraction, the surgeon should clean any vitreous that may have come forward through the ruptured lens capsule, consider placing the posterior chamber intraocular lens if capsular support is adequate, and close the cataract wound in a watertight fashion. However, removal of lens material from the anterior vitreous by vigorous irrigation should not be attempted, because it may produce vitreoretinal traction, retinal breaks, and retinal detachment. The patient can be observed and treated medically if the nuclear fragment is small, but should be referred promptly to a vitreoretinal surgeon postoperatively if a larger nuclear fragment is present.