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RUSVM Pathology II 2016 > Reproductive System > Flashcards

Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

What gene promotes ovarian differentiation and development?

A

DAX 1 gene

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2
Q

What gene codes for testicular differentiation?

A

SRY gene

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3
Q

What does MIS stand for?

A

Mullerian inhibitory substance

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4
Q

What does AMH stand for?

A

Antimullerian hormone

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5
Q

What does Intersex mean?

A

a general, nonspecific term meaning that ambiguous genitalia are present, but doe not indicate the nature or etiology of the abnormality

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6
Q

What are the three ways sexual development disorders are categorized?

A

Abnormalities of chromosomal sex
Abnormalities of gonadal sex
Abnormalities of phenotypic sex

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7
Q

What syndrome results from the chromosomal abnormality XXY?

A

Klinefelters Syndrome

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8
Q

What syndrome results from the chromosomal abnormality XO?

A

Turner’s Syndrome

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9
Q

Animals with trisomy and monosomy have…

A

underdeveloped genitalia and are sterile

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10
Q

Give an example of chromosomal sex disorders in cats

A

male tortoiseshell or calico cats with testicular hypoplasia and are almost infertile

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11
Q

Chimera

A

individuals composed of two or more cell populations each arising from different individuals

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12
Q

Mosaics

A

individuals composed of two or more cell populations, but the cells originate within the same individual

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13
Q

What is an example of Chimeras?

A

Freemartin calves

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14
Q

Freemartin

A

Genetic female born co-twin with a male

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15
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a Freemartin?

A

vascular anastomoses between placentas allowing male hormones (including Mullerian inhibitory substance) and cells to cross and suppress development of female genital system

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of a Freemartin

A

small ovaries, blind ended uterus, poorly developed vagina, enlarged clitoris and seminal vesicles

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17
Q

Is the male twin of the Freemartin affected?

A

NO

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18
Q

What is a true hermaphrodite?

A

Ovary and testis present in the same individual

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19
Q

What are the three types of True hermaphrodites?

A

Lateral
Bilateral
Unilateral

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20
Q

What is a lateral hermaphrodite?

A

testis on one side and ovary on the other

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21
Q

What is a bilateral hermaphrodite?

A

Ovotestes on both sides

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22
Q

What is a unilateral hermaphrodite?

A

ovotestis on one side, ovary or testis on the other side

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23
Q

What species are true hermaphrodites seen in?

A

Dogs, goats and pigs

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24
Q

What is sex reversal?

A

an animals in which gonadal sex does not follow chromosomal sex

Gonad is not the type corresponding to the XX or XY makeup of the individual

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25
Q

What animals can display Sex reversal?

A

American Cocker Spaniel

Polled goats

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26
Q

What is pseudohermaphroditism?

A

When chromosomal and gonadal sex agree, but the internal or external genitalia are ambiguous

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27
Q

What can cause female pseudohermaphroditism?

A

iatrogenic administration of androgens or progestagens during gestation

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28
Q

What causes male pseudohermaphroditism?

A

Due to failure of Mullerian duct regression

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29
Q

What breed is male pseudohermaphroditism seen in?

A

Miniature Schnauzers

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30
Q

What is segmental aplasia of the paramesonephric ducts?

A

Failure of short or long segments of the uterine horn to develop

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31
Q

What is uterus unicornis?

A

Complete absence of an entire horn

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32
Q

What is the other name for Segmental aplasia of the paramesonephric ducts seen in White shorthorn cattle?

A

White heifer disease

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33
Q

What is white heifer disease associated with?

A

recessive gene for white coat color

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34
Q

What is an imperfect fusion of the paramesonephric ducts?

A

Double vagina, double cervix, and uterus didelphys

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35
Q

Imperforate hymen

A

Persistence of tissue band running across the vagina just cranial to the opening of the urethra

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36
Q

Ovarian hypoplasia

A

small ovaries without follicles

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37
Q

What breed is ovarian hypoplasia seen in?

A

Swedish Highland Cattle

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38
Q

What are paraovarian cysts called in horses?

A

Hydatids of Morgagni

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39
Q

Where can hydatids of morgagni be located

A

On or around the ovary
On the fimbriae
On the mesonephric duct

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40
Q

What is the most common type of cystic change?

A

Cystic Graafian follicle

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41
Q

What causes Cystic Graafian follicles?

A

insufficient release of luteinizing hormone

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42
Q

What can cystic epithelial structures of the bitch lead to?

A

Neoplastic transformation - Adenomas or adenocarcinomas

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43
Q

Oophoritis

A

Inflammation of the ovary

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44
Q

What causes oophoritis in poultry?

A

Salmonella pullorum

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45
Q

What causes oophoritis in cattle?

A

IBR

BVD

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46
Q

Dysgerminoma

A

tumors of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad (female counterpart of testicular seminoma)

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47
Q

Teratoma

A

Umcommon neoplasm composed of abnormal tissue derived from at least two of the three germ cell layers

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48
Q

Are Dysgerminomas benign or malignant?

A

malignant

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49
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumor in cows and mares?

A

Granulosa cell tumor (Granulosa-theca cells tumors)

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50
Q

What is diagnostic for gonadostromal tumors?

A

Call-Exner bodies (rosettes of granulosa cells surrounding pink proteinaceous fluid)

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51
Q

Hydrosalpinx

A

the uterine tube is distended and filled with clear watery mucus
Usually secondary to obstruction

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52
Q

Salpingitis

A

Secondary to endometritis

may lead to pyosalpinx and interfere with fertility

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53
Q

What is salpingitis associated with?

A

Mycoplasma

Ureaplasma

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54
Q

Pyosalpinx

A

Accumulation of pus in the tube following obstruction of the lumen

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55
Q

Cystic Gartner’s ducts

A

vestigial remnants of Wolffian ducts

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56
Q

Cystic Bartholin’s gland

A

vestibular gland

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57
Q

Vulval tumefaction

A

Physiological response to estrogens

Also due to persistent hyperestrogenism

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58
Q

What is vulval tumefaction associated with in sows?

A

estrogenic effect of zearalenone in moldy grains

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59
Q

What can vulval tumefaction lead to?

A

Vaginal prolapse

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60
Q

Granular vaginitis

A

nodular appearance of the vaginal mucosa associated to lymphoid follicle proliferation in cattle

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61
Q

What is granular vaginitis associated with?

A

Mycoplasma or Ureaplasma infection

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62
Q

What causes Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (PIV) of cattle

A

Bovine Herpes Virus 1

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63
Q

How is Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (IPV) transmitted?

A

Venereally

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64
Q

Transmissible venereal tumor

A

contagious neoplasm

Solitary or multiple, papillary to pedunculated or multi-lobulated masses often ulceratd, inflamed and friable

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65
Q

What are the causes of uterine prolapse?

A 
Uterime hypotony
Prolonged dystocia
Retained placenta
Hypocalcemia
Hyperestrogenism
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66
Q

Uterine Hypotony

A

Loss of any muscle tone usually through a calcium or Magnesium deficiency

67
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia

A

cystic distention of endometrial glands

endometrial secretions accumulate

68
Q

Adenomyosis

A

Presence of endometrial glands and stoma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium

69
Q

Endometriosis

A

Actively growing endometrial tissues are explanted to aberrant sites within and outside the uterus

70
Q

Hydrometra or

Mucometra

A

Accumulation of thin or viscid fluid in the uterus

71
Q

Endometritis

A

inflammation of endometrium only

72
Q

metritis

A

inflammation of all layers of uterine wall

73
Q

Perimetritis

A

inflammation extending to tissues surrounding uterus

74
Q

pyometria

A

accumulations of pus in the lumen of the uterus

75
Q

Contagious equine metritis (CEM)

A

veneeal disease of mares

76
Q

What causes CEM in mares?

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

77
Q

Pyometra

A

Acute or chronic suppurative inflammation characterized by accumulation of pus in the uterine lumen

78
Q

What species are Uterine adenocarcinomas common in?

A

Rabbits

79
Q

What neoplasm is most common in cattle?

A

Lymphosarcoma

80
Q

What are the types of mastitis?

A

Contagious
Environmental
Other

81
Q

What causes contagious mastitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Mycoplasma spp.

82
Q

What causes Environmental mastitis?

A

Coliforms (E. coli)

Environmental streptococci

83
Q

What causes other types of mastitis?

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses

84
Q

What are the clinical signs for Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gangrene of the teats, necrosis, abscess of the mammary gland

85
Q

What bacteria causes Mastitis in ewes and goats?

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Manheimia haemolytica

86
Q

What viruses cause mastitis in ewes and goats?

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia

Caprine Arthritic encephalitis

87
Q

What species are mammary tumors commonly seen in?

A

Bitches and Queens

88
Q

What species are mammary fibroadenomas common in?

A

Rats

89
Q

What is the most common neoplasia in the canine?

A

Canine mammary tumor

90
Q

Are tumors in dogs benign or malignant?

A

Benign

91
Q

Are tumors in cats benign or malignant?

A

Malignant

92
Q

What kind of placenta do horses have?

A

Diffusely distributed chorionic villi with Epitheliochoreal

93
Q

What kind of placenta do cows have?

A

Localized to cotyledons chorionic villi with Epitheliochoreal

94
Q

What kind of placenta do carnivores?

A

Localized to a belt chorionic villi with

Endotheliochoreal

95
Q

Chorion

A

layer that contacts the mother

in most species fused with the allantois

96
Q

Allantois

A

Contains fetal urine and other fluids arising from the membrane itself

97
Q

Amnion

A

smooth translucent membrane that surrounds the fetus and holds amniotic fluid
the fetal side can usually be identified by presence of amniotic plaques

98
Q

Fetal death later in development will lead to

A

Abortion
Stillbirth
Mummification
Maceration

99
Q

Abortion

A

the expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability

100
Q

Stillbirth

A

the death of the fetus in the last part of gestation during the period where it is independently viable

101
Q

Mummification

A

fetus is retained indefinitely and becomes dehydrated

102
Q

Maceration

A

The dead fetus is retained and infected by bacteria

May be associated with dystocia and incomplete abortion

103
Q

When is placental insufficiency seen?

A 
Twinning
Endometrial fibrosis 
Premature placental separation 
Uterine body pregnancy 
Torsion of the umbilical cord
104
Q

Adventitial placentation

A

Development of intercotylendonary placentation in cattle as a mechanism of compensation for inadequate development of placentomes

105
Q

Hydroamnios

A

Usually associated with malformation of the fetus

106
Q

Hydroallantois

A

Associated with uterine disease with inadequate numbers of caruncles and the development of adventitial placentation in cattle

107
Q

Hippomanes

A

proteinaceous soft calculi, aggregated mineral and organic allantoic concrements

108
Q

What incidental findings are found in the mare?

A

Yolk sac remnants and allantoic pouches

109
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Brucella abortis?

A

Necrotising placentitis

110
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Listeriosis?

A

tiny pinpoint yellow foci of necrosis in the liver, lung, myocardium, kidney, adrenal, spleen, and brain

111
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Ureaplasma diversum?

A

patchy thickening with fibrosis and multifocal areas of necrosis, hemorrhage, and fibrin exudation.

112
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Mycotic abortion in cattle?

A

Dermatitis in the aborted fetus

113
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Campylobacter spp.?

A

Multifocal necrotizing hepatitis

Intercotyledonary placentitis

114
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Chlamydophia abortus?

A

Placental lesions acute suppurative to chronic placentitis

115
Q

What are the characteristic lesions of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cotyledons are bright to dark red and have numerous small soft white nodules - “frosted strawberry-like lesions”

116
Q

What is the common name for Border Disease?

A

Hairy Shaker disease

117
Q

What are the characteristic lesions for Coxiella burnetii?

A

Thickened and leathery with multifocal mineralization, exudate is copious, off-white in the intercotyledonary region

118
Q

What are longer cords associated with?

A

Foal strangulation and necrosis off the cervical pole of the placenta

119
Q

Mare Reproductive loss syndrome

A

abortion syndrome due to the setae hairs of the eastern tent caterpillar embedded in the submucosa of the alimentary tract of the mare creating microgranulomatous lesions –> bacteria from the alimentary tract invades the circulatory system –> infections are established in tissues where the immune surveillance is reduced

120
Q

What lesions are characteristic for Equine herpesvirus?

A

Fibrin cast in the trachea
Interstitial pneumoia
Focal necrosis in the liver
Prominent lymphoid follicles in the spleen

121
Q

SMEDI

A

Stillbirths, mummification, embryonic death and infertility complex

122
Q

What causes SMEDI?

A

Porcine parvovirus

123
Q

What are two fetal anomalies?

A

Bovine amorphus globosus

Cyclopic calf

124
Q

Fertile

A

Produce healthy sperm to fertilize an egg

125
Q

Potency

A

ability to engage in copulation

126
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Failure of one or both testis to descend to scrotum

127
Q

Sperm Granuloma

A

Foreign body inflammation reaction to sperm which have escaped tubular structures

128
Q

What does testicular neoplasia cause?

A

Testicular enlargement

hormonal induced abnormalities

129
Q

What are 5 types of testicular neoplasia

A

Interstitial cell tumors
Seminomas
Sertoli cell tumors
Teratomas

130
Q

What species is interstitial cell tumors common in?

A

Dogs

131
Q

What is an interstitial cell tumor derived from?

A

endocrine cells of the interstitium

132
Q

Do you see testicular enlargement with interstitial cell tumors?

A

No

133
Q

Are interstitial cell tumors bilateral or unilateral?

A

Bilateral

134
Q

Describe Interstitial cell tumors

A

Round well demarcated masses
Pale yellow brown
Usually less than 1 cm

135
Q

Seminoma

A

Tumor of spermatogonia

136
Q

Do you see enlargement of the testis with a seminoma?

A

yes

137
Q

What is a predisposing factor for a seminoma?

A

Cryptorchidism

138
Q

Describe a seminoma

A

Bulging
Pale (tan, yellow, white)
Soft
No endocrine effect

139
Q

What is the least common testicular neoplasia?

A

Sertolic cell tumor

140
Q

Does a sertoli cell tumor enlarge the testicle?

A

yes

141
Q

What is a predisposing factor for a sertoli cell tumor?

A

Cryptorchidism

142
Q

Describe a sertoli cell tumor

A

Well demarcated
Firm
White (red/brown)
may contain cysts

143
Q

What does a sertoli cell tumor produce?

A

Estrogen

144
Q

What are the characteristics we see with a sertoli cell tumor?

A 
Atrophy of non-neoplastic testicular tissue
Mammary gland and teat enlargement 
Reduce libido 
Swelling of prepuce 
Attractive to other male dogs
145
Q

What are clinical signs of a sertoli cell tumor?

A

Symmetrical alopecia
Prostatic hyperplasia and metaplasia
Bone marrow suppression

146
Q

What neoplasia is usually in young horses?

A

Teratoma

147
Q

What germ layer/s is a teratoma composed of?

A

Multiple germ layers: Connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, nervous, glandular, hair, & dental

148
Q

Spermatocoele

A

Dilation with sperm accumulation

149
Q

Hydrocoele

A

Serous fluid accumulation

150
Q

Hematocoele

A

Blood accumulation

151
Q

What are the diseases of the scrotum?

A

Dermatitis
Scirrhous cord
Varicocele
Neoplasia

152
Q

Varicoele

A

Dilation and tortuosity of the veins of the pampiniform plexus and the cremasteric veins

153
Q

What are the two neoplasia of the scrotum?

A

Mast cell tumor

Haemangioma

154
Q

What is prostatic metaplasia caused by?

A

Estrogen:
Sertoli cell tumor
Estrogen administration

155
Q

Where does Prostatic Neoplasia metastasize to?

A

Sublumbar lymph node

156
Q

Penile Hypoplasia

A

Early castration or intersex conditions

157
Q

Persistent Frenulum

A

Connection between ventral penis and prepuce

158
Q

What does persistent frenulum cause?

A

penile deviation

159
Q

Hypospadia

A

Failure to close urogenital groove

160
Q

Diphalia

A

Duplication of penis

161
Q

Phimosis

A

narrowing of preputial orifice preventing protrusion of penis

162
Q

Paraphimosis

A

narrowing of preputial orifice preventing retraction of already protruding penis

163
Q

Posthitis

A

Inflammation of prepuce

164
Q

Balanitis

A

Inflammation of glans penis

RUSVM Pathology II 2016 (11 decks)

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