Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 High Yield > Reproductive System > Flashcards

Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?

Which contains the uterine vessels?

A

Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?
- Suspensory ligament/infundibulopelvic ligament
Which contains the uterine vessels?
- Cardinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What nerve controls erection?
What nerve controls emission (movement of sperm to penis)?
What nerve controls ejaculation?

A

Erection: Pelvic nerve (PNS)
Emission: Hypogastric nerve (SNS)
Ejaculation: Pudendal nerve (Visceral and somatic nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What landmark is used for the pudendal nerve block?

A

Ischial spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of androgen binding protein secreted by the Sertoli cells (which also secrete antimullerian hormone and inhibin)?

A

Maintains the level of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Name the corresponding female structures for each male structure...
Glans penis
Corpus spongiosum/corpus cavernosum
Bulbourethral glands
Prostate gland
Ventral shaft of penis
Scrotum
A

Name the corresponding female structures for each male structure…
Glans penis - Glans clitoris
Corpus spongiosum/corpus cavernosum - Vestibular bulbs
Bulbourethral glands - Greater vestibular glands (Bartholin glands)
Prostate gland - Urethral/paraurethral glands (Skene glands)
Ventral shaft of penis - Labia minora
Scrotum - Labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the testicular germ tumors?

A 
Seminoma
Yolk Sac
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Embryonal carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which testicular germ cell tumor is associated with increased hCG, hematogenous metastasis to lungs and brain, and synctiotrophoblasts?

A

Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which testicular germ cell tumor has Schiller-Duval bodies and increased AFP?

A

Yolk Sac tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which testicular germ cell tumor is painful and has normal AFP and increased hCG?

Which testicular germ cell tumor has a fried egg appearance?

A

Which testicular germ cell tumor is painful and has normal AFP and increased hCG? Embryonal

Which testicular germ cell tumor has a fried egg appearance?
Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which non-germ cell testicular tumor secretes estrogen?

A

Sertoli cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do you give to treat BPH and why?

A

Alpha 1 antagonists (Terazosin, Tamulosin, Prazosin) - because they cause relaxation of smooth muscle

Tamsulosin does not block Alpha1b receptors so does not cause hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the SE of non-selective Alpha-1 blockers?

A

Dizziness, Postural hypotension, Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the order of incidence of gynecologic tumors from most common to least common?

What is the order of prognosis from worst to best?

A

Incidence: Endometrial > Ovarian > Cervical

Worst prognosis: Ovarian > Cervical > Endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Meigs syndrome? (Triad)

A

Type of fibroma

Triad of Ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What pattern is seen in a granulosa theca cell tumor? What is produced?

A

Cal-Exner bodies: Granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

Produces Estrogen, Progesterone, and Inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Krukenberg tumor?

A

Metastasis to the ovary by a gastric carcinoma

Signet ring cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of ovarian tumor presents with an intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material (pseudomyxoma peritonei)?

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

- Due to mucinous tumor of the appendix with metastasis to the ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What ovarian tumor is testosterone-secreting?

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What ovarian tumor contains Psammoma bodies?

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which ovarian tumor resembles bladder epithelium?

A

Brenner tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the changes to the following during pregnancy…
Plasma volume (as compared to RBC volume):
BP:
GFR:

A

Plasma volume increases 50% and RBC volume increases 30% (decreases risk of anemia with post partum bleeding)

BP decreases early in pregnancy but then peaks at 16-20 weeks (accomodation by blood vessels prior to increase in volume)

GFR is increased (with decreased BUN and Cr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to ventilation during pregnancy? How does this affect PACO2 and PaCO2?

What happens to TSH?

A

Increased minute ventilation with decreased PACO2 and PaCO2 as well as mild respiratory alkalosis - this creates a gradient so CO2 can be more easily transferred from fetus to mother

Normal TSH and free T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the levels of AFP, hCG, and estriol in maternal screen of trisomy 21?

A

Decreased AFP
Decreased estriol
Increased hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the levels of AFP, hCG, and estriol in maternal screen of trisomy 18?

A

Decreased AFP, estriol, and hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
Describe the level of monozygotic twinning if it occurs at the following dates of pregnancy...(which is most common?)
0-4 days:
4-8 days:
8-12 days:
>13 days:
A

0-4 days: Dichorionic, diamniotic
4-8 days: Monochorionic, diamniotic (75%)
8-12 days: Monochorionic, monoamniotic
>13 days: Conjoined twin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What screen markers are used to diagnose trisomy 13?

A

Decreased hCG
Decreased PAPP-A
Nuchal translucency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What gene is affected in Fragile X syndrome?

What are features of individuals with this disorder?

A

Gene: FMRI1 gene
Features: Autism, Large jaw, Elongated face, Everted ears, Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What drugs can cause gynecomastia? (STACKED)

A 
Spironolactone
THC
Alcohol
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Estrogens
Digoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the types of proliferative breast disease?

A

Fibrosis
Cystic
Sclerosing adenosis
Epithelial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is hyperplastic in fibrosis of the breast?

A

Breast stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe a cystic form of proliferative breast disease

A

Fluid filled, blue dome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does the increase in epithelial layers occur in epithelial hyperplasia of the breast?

A

Terminal duct lobule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is increased in sclerosing adenosis?

A

Increased acini and intralobular fibrosis

34
Q

What type of cell is seen in lobular carcinoma in situ?

What receptors are expressed in this condition?

A

Signet ring cells

ER and PR positive

35
Q

What is the same and what is different between invasive ductal carcinoma and fibroadenoma?

A

Both contain firm, rock hard mass with sharp edges

Invasive ductal carcinoma is fixed and immobile whereas fibroadenoma (

36
Q

What happens with dermal lymphatic invasion by breast carcinoma?

A

Peau d’orange (Inflammatory carcinoma)

37
Q

What breast pathology is associated with loss of e-cadherin cell adhesion gene on chromosome 16?

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

38
Q

Which breast pathology commonly presents with nipple discharge?
Eczematous patches on the nipple?

A

Nipple discharge - Intraductal papilloma

Eczematous patches on the nipple - Paget disease

39
Q

What is the most common malignant breast tumor?

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

40
Q 
Name the origin and main activity of the following genes...
Sonic hedgehog gene:
Wnt-7 gene:
FGF gene:
Hox genes:
A

Sonic hedgehog gene: Produced at base of limbs in zpa; Patterning along anterior-posterior axis
Wnt-7 gene: Produced at apical ectodermal ridge; proper organization along dorsal-ventral axis
FGF gene: Produced at apical ectodermal ridge; lengthening of limbs
Hox genes: Involved in segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction

41
Q

During which week of fetal development does gastrulation (epiblast invagination to form primitive streak) and neural plate formation begin?

A

Week 3 (formation of trilaminar embryonic disc)

42
Q

What are the mesodermal defects during fetal development?

A

VACTERL

Verterbral defects
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheo-Esophageal fistula
Renal defects
Limb defects (bone and muscle)
43
Q 
What is the embryologic derivative of the following...
Melanocytes:
Gut tube epithelium:
Parafollicular cells of the thyroid:
Thyroid follicular cells:
Bones of the skull:
A 
Melanocytes: Neural crest
Gut tube epithelium: Endoderm
Parafollicular cells of the thyroid: Neural crest
Thyroid follicular cells: Endoderm
Bones of the skull: Neural crest
44
Q

Limb defects in a child (phocomelia, micromelia, “flipper” limbs) are most likely due to which maternal medication?

A

Thalidomide

45
Q

What are the two layers of the chorionic villi? Which secretes hCG?

A

Inner layer: Cytotrophoblast (makes cells)

Outer layer: Synctiotrophoblast - secretes hCG

46
Q

What are the three complications from failure of the urachus to obliterate? Which one can lead to adenocarcinoma?

A

Patent urachus: urine discharge from umbilicus
Urachal cyst: Fluid filled cavity between umbilicus and bladder; can lead to infection and adenocarcinoma
Vesicourachal diverticulum: Outpouching of bladder

47
Q

In the branchial/pharyngeal apparatus, what are the derivatives of the following?
Clefts:
Arches:
Pouches:

A

Clefts: ectoderm
Arches: mesoderm
Pouches: endoderm

“Cap covers outside to inside”

48
Q

Which branchial cleft persists? What does it form?

What happens if the other branchial clefts persist?

A

1st cleft develops into external auditory meatus

Persistence of 2nd-4th clefts = cervical sinus (branchial cleft cyst within lateral neck)

49
Q

What occurs with failure of 1st arch neural crest cells to migrate?

A

Treacher Collins syndrome: mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities (meckel cartilage)

50
Q

Which branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

Which arch forms Reichert cartilage (stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid)?

A

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue is from arches 3 and 4
Reichert cartilage is from the 2nd arch
*Greater horn of hyoid is 3rd arch

51
Q

______ cells secrete MIF that suppresses development of the _______________ ducts

A

Sertoli cells secrete MIF that suppresses development of the paramesonephric ducts

52
Q

What is the female remnant of the Gubernaculum (which anchors the testes within the scrotum)?

A

Ovarian ligament + round ligament of the uterus

53
Q

Which ligament connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall:
Which connects the cervix to the side wall of the pelvis:
Which connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora:

A

Ovaries to lateral pelvic wall: Suspensory ligament
Cervix to side wall of pelvis: Cardinal ligament
Fundus to labia majora: Round ligament (of the uterus)

54
Q

What two cells line the seminiferous tubules?

A

Spermatogonia and Sertoli cells

55
Q

What is the progression of sperm cell development?

How long does full development take?

A

Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatids → Spermatozoon → Sperm

Takes 2 months

56
Q

What is the order of potency of the different estrogen types? Which is an indicator of fetal well-being?

A

Estradiol > Estrone > Estriol (increased 1000 fold in pregnancy - fetal well-being)

57
Q

How do estrogen and progesterone affect prolactin release?

A

Estrogen stimulates prolactin secretion and progesterone inhibits prolactin secretion (fall in progesterone after deliver disinhibits prolactin)

58
Q

What stage is the oocyte in prior to ovulation?

What stage is the oocyte in between ovulation and fertilization?

A

Prophase I until ovulation (meiosis I)

Metaphase II until fertilization (meiosis II)

59
Q

Which hormones share the α subunit with hCG

A

LH, FSH and TSH

60
Q

Which sex chromosome disorder presents with dysgenisis of seminiferous tubules and the presence of a Barr body (inactivated X chromosome)?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

61
Q

What types of error can lead to Turner syndrome? What is needed to allow pregnancy in these patients?

A

Error: Mitotic or meiotic error (can be complete monosomy or mosaicism)
For pregnancy: Oocyte donation, exogenous estradiol-17β and progesterone

62
Q

Which sex hormone disorder in a 46XY individual presents with a normal appearing female with an absent uterus and fallopian tubes? (testes often found in labia majora)

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (Male pseudohermaphrodite)

63
Q

What causes a female pseudo-hermaphrodite?

How does aromatase deficiency of the fetus affect the mother?

A

Female pseudohermaphrodite due to excessive and inappropriate exposure to androgenic steroids during early gestation
Aromatase deficiency: maternal virilization during pregnancy (fetal androgens cross the placenta)

64
Q

How is gestational hypertension treated?

A

α-methyldopa, labetalol, hydralazine, nifedipine

65
Q

What are the findings in pre-eclampsia? (what causes it?)

How is seizure prevented in preeclampsia (drug)?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema (caused by abnormal placental spiral arteries)
IV magnesium sulfate

66
Q

Describe the layer of attachement for the following placental complications…
Placenta accreta:
Placenta increta:
Placenta percreta:

A

Placenta accreta: placenta attaches to myometrium without penetrating it
Placenta increta: Placenta penetrates into myometrium
Placenta percreta: Placenta penetrates through myometrium into uterine serosa

67
Q

What are the gene products of HPV 16 and 18 and what are their functions?

A

E6 gene inhibits p53 suppressor gene

E7 gene inhibits RB suppressor gene

68
Q

How is endometritis treated?

A

Gentamicin + clindamycin

69
Q

Where is endometrial tissue (glandular) in an adenomyosis? How is this distinguished from endometriosis upon observation?

A

Uterine myometrium

Adenomyosis has uniformly enlarged uterus whereas uterus in endometriosis is normal-sized

70
Q

How is a leiomyoma different from a leiomyosarcoma?

A

Leiomyoma: Benign; Whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles with well-demarcated borders, peak incidence 20-40 years old - in myometrium
Leiomyosarcoma: do not arise from leiomyomas - necrosis and hemmorhage in the myometrium - peak incidence in postmenopausal females

71
Q

What are the findings in PCOD?

How does it present?

A

Increased LH, Decreased FSH, Increased testosterone and estrogen (aromatization)
Presentation: obesity, hirsutism, amenorrhea, acne, infertility

72
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia involves hyperplasia of _______ relative to ________

A

glands relative to stroma

73
Q

What are the benign ovarian neoplasms?

A 
Serous cystadenoma
Mucinous cystadenoma
Endometrioma
Mature cystic teratoma
Brenner tumor
Fibroma
Thecoma
74
Q

What are the malignant ovarian neoplasms?

A 
Immature teratoma
Granuosa cell tumor
Serous and mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
Dysgerminoma
Choriocarcinoma
Yolk sac tumor
75
Q

Which tumors are surface epithelial tumors and which are germ cell tumors?

A

Surface epithelium: Mucinous and serous tumors

Germ cell tumors: Teratoma, Dysgerminoma, Endodermal sinus tumor (yolk-sac), choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma

76
Q

Whar variation of cystic teratoma can cause hyperthyroidism?

A

Struma ovarri - a teratoma composed primarily of thyroid tissue

77
Q

What are the sex-cord stromal tumors?

A

Granulosa-theca cell tumor
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor (can be in the ovaries)
Fibroma

78
Q

Which type of cancer affects women who had exposure to DES in utero?

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

79
Q

What pathogen is associated with acute mastitis and how is this treated?

A

S. Aureus

Treat with dicloxacillin and continued breast feeding

80
Q

What is comedocarcinoma?

A

Subtype of DCIS with ductal caseous necrosis

81
Q

What distinguishing characteristic is found in leydig cell tumors?

A

Reinke crystals; golden brown color

82
Q

What is the difference between a mature teratoma in males and females?

A

A mature teratoma in males may be malignant

Step 1 High Yield (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions