Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 High Yield > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

What is in the portal triad (hepatoduodenal ligament)?

A

Proper hepatic artery
Portal vein
Common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What connects the liver to the abdominal wall? What fetal structure is it derived from?

A

Falciform ligament; Ligamentum teres hepatis (fetal umbilical vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between the submucosal nerve plexus (Meissner) and the muscularis externa (Auerbach)?

A

Meissner - secretory

Auerbach - contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are Brunner’s glands located?

A

Submucosa of the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are Plicae circulares found? Where are Peyer patches found?

A

Plicae Circulares - Jejunum

Peyer Patch - Lamina propria/submucosa of Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are the largest numbers of goblet cells found in the small intestine?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What nodes drain the rectum above the pectinate line?

Below the pectinate line?

A

Above: Lymphatic drainage to deep nodes
Below: Lymphatic drainage to superficial inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the differences between internal and external hemorrhoids?

A

Internal Hemorrhoids: Above the pectinate line and not painful (visceral innervation)
External Hemorrhoids: Below the pectinate line and painful (somatic innervation - pudendal nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What distinguishes Zone 3 of the liver from the other zones?

A

Affected 1st by ischemia
Contains cytochrome P-450 system
Most sensitive to metabolic toxins
Site of alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GIP
Source:
Action: (Endocrine and Exocrine)

A

Source: K cells (duodenum and jejunum)
Action: Endocrine (Increases insulin release); Exocrine (Decreases gastric H+ secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is an oral glucose load used more rapidly than the equivalent given by IV?

A

Due to GIP secretion (Increased by fatty acids, amino acids, and oral glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vasoactive Intestinal polypeptide
Source:
Action:

A

Source: Parasympathetic ganglia in sphincters, gallbladders, small intestine
Action: Increased water and electrolyte secretion; Increased relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle and sphincters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Atropine Affect GI function?

A

Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that inhibits parasympathetic action on Gastric parietal cells - Decreased acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What things inhibit the gastric parietal cell?

A 
Atropine (blocks parasympathetic activation)
Proton pump inhibitors
Prostaglandins/Misoprostol
Somatostatin
H2 blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is conjugated to bile salt to make it water soluble?

A

Glycine or taurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What catalyzes the rate limiting step of bile synthesis?

A

Cholesterol 7alpha-hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A 
Calcinosis
Raynauds phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangectasias
 - associated with anti-centromere antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between a Curling ulcer and a Cushing ulcer?

A

Curling ulcer: Decreased plasma volume leads to sloughing of gastric mucosa (Burns)
Cushing ulcer: Increased vagal stimulation leads to increased ACh and thus increased acid (H+) production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the difference between type A and type B gastritis?

A

Type A: Fundus/body - autoimmune

Type B: Antrum - H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Menetrier disease?

A

Gastric hypertrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells (Rugae look like brain gyri)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Virchow node? What is a Krukenberg tumor? Sister Mary Joseph nodule?

A

Virchow node: Involvement of left supraclavicular node by metastasis from stomach
Krukenberg tumor: Bilateral metastases to ovaries - signet ring cells
SMJ nodule: Subcutaneous periumbilical metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which hemorrhage affects the left gastric artery? Which affects the gastroduodenal artery?

A

Ruptured gastric ulcer on lesser curvature of stomach - LGA

Posterior wall of the duodenum - GDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What genetics are associated with Celiac Sprue?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the differences in Th response to Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A

Ulcerative colitis: Th2 mediated response (Crypt abscesses and ulcers)
Crohn’s disease: Th1 mediated response (Noncaseating granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant syndrome featuring multiple nonmalignant hamartomas throughout the GI tract - hyperpigmented mouth, lips, hands genitalia

26
Q

Describe the following precursors to colorectal cancer:
Gardner syndrome:
Turcot syndrome:
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome):

A

Gardner: FAP + osseous and soft tissue tumors
Turcot syndrome: FAP + malignant CNS tumor (TURcot = TURban)
HNPCC/Lynch syndrome: Mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes (80% progress to CRC and proximal colon is always involved)

27
Q

What are the ALT and AST findings in…
Alcoholic hepatitis
Viral hepatitis

A

Alcoholic hepatitis: AST>ALT (2:1)

Viral hepatitis: ALT>AST

28
Q

In what disease is there a decrease in ceruloplasmin?

A

Wilson Disease

29
Q

What is the serum marker for both Acute pancreatitis and Mumps? What marker is specific for acute pancreatitis?

A

Amylase; Lipase

30
Q

What serum marker is increased in various liver and biliary diseases but not in bone disease?

A

gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)

31
Q

How are serum markers different between NAFLD and alcoholic hepatitis?

A

In NAFLD: ALT>AST

32
Q

How is hepatic encephalopathy treated?

A

Lactulose (for increased NH4+); Low protein diet; Rifaximin (kills intestinal bacteria)

33
Q

What serum marker is associated with HCC?

A

Increased alpha-fetoprotein

34
Q

What malignant tumor of endothelial origin is associated with exposure to arsenic and vinyl chloride?

A

Angiosarcoma

35
Q

Whipple disease and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency both are positive in what?

A

PAS positive

36
Q

How is Wilson Disease treated?

A

Penicillamine or trientine

37
Q

Why doesn’t hemochromatosis cause pancreatic insufficiency? What mutations are associated with hemochromatosis?

A

The iron deposits in alpha cells of the pancreas and not beta cells; HFE gene (transferrin binding) and C282Y

38
Q

What are some causes of acute pancreatitis? (GET SMASHED)

A 
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune disease
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcemia (Increases pancreatic enzyme release)/Hypertriglyceridemia
ERCP
Drugs (Sulfa drugs)
39
Q

What tumor marker is associated with Pancreatic adenocarcinoma? Where is the tumor most commonly found?

A

CA-19-9 (also CEA although less specific)

Pancreatic head

40
Q

What is migratory thrombophlebitis (associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma)?

A

Redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities (Trousseau syndrome)

41
Q

What are the retroperitoneal structures?

A 
SADPUCKER
Suprarenal
Aorta (and IVC)
Duodenum (2nd through 4th parts)
Pancreas
Ureters (Descending and Ascending)
Colon
Kidneys
Esophagus (lower 2/3)
Rectum (partially)
42
Q

What is the innervation of the foregut and midgut?

What is the innervation of the hindgut?

A

Foregut and midgut: Vagus nerve

Hindgut: Pelvic nerve

43
Q

What anastamoses can compensate for blocked branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

1) Subclavian → Internal thoracic → Superior epigastric → Inferior epigastric → External iliac
2) Celiac trunk → Superior pancreaticoduodenal → Inferior pancraticoduodenal → SMA
3) SMA → Middle colic → Left colic → IMA
4) IMA → Superior rectal → middle/inferior rectal → Internal iliac

44
Q

Lymphatic drainage occurs in the ______ __ _____

A

Space of Disse

45
Q

What is the arrangment of femoral region components from lateral to medial?

A

NAVL

Nerve (not in the sheath) → Artery → Vein (venous near the penis) → Lymphatics

46
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia
More common in:
Location:
Cause:

A

More common in: male infants
Location: enters internal inguinal ring lateral to inferior epigastric artery
Cause: failure of processus vaginalis to close

47
Q

Direct inguinal hernia
More common in:
Location:
Cause:

A

More common in: Adult males
Location: Bulges through hesselbach’s triangle medial to inferior epigastric vessels
Cause: Weakness of transveralis fascia

48
Q

Which amino acids are potent stimulators of gastrin secretion?

A

Phenylalanine and tryptophan

49
Q

Through what mechanism does CCK cause pancreatic secretion?

A

Acts on neural muscarinic pathways

50
Q

Through what mechanism does gastric increase gastric acid secretion (mostly)?

A

Gastrin effects enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells leading to histamine release which causes acid release from parietal cells

51
Q

How are glucose and galactose absorbed in the intestine? What is this dependent on?

A

Glucose and galactose are taken up by SGLT1 in a Na+ dependent process

52
Q

What are the salivary gland tumors and which is malignant?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma - painless, mobile mass, with chondromyxoid stroma and epithelium
Warthin tumor - benign cystic tumor with germinal centers
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma - most common malignant tumor

53
Q

What is the difference between HSV esophagitis and CMV esophagitis?

A

HSV - punched-out ulcers
CMV - linear ulcers
“HSV punched CMV because he was straight”

54
Q

What skin condition can be seen in stomach cancer?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

55
Q

What type of malignancy is associated with celiac sprue?

A

T-cell lymphoma

56
Q

Which malabsorption syndrome can cause night blindness?

A

Abetalipoproteinemia (along with failure to thrive, acanthocytosis, steatorrhea, and ataxia)

57
Q

What is the location of a Zenker diverticulum?

A

Between the thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal parts of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

58
Q

What mutation is associated with Hirschsprung disease?

A

Mutations in the RET gene

59
Q

What findings are associated with the following areas of colorectal cancer…
Ascending colon:
Descending colon:

A

Ascending colon: Exophytic mass, iron deficiency anemia, weight loss
Descending colon: Infiltrating mass, partial obstruction, colicky pain, hematochezia

60
Q

Oral contraceptives can cause what kind of liver tumor?

A

Hepatic adenoma

61
Q

Which gallbladder stones are radiolucent? Which are radiopaque?

A

Radiolucent: Cholesterol stones
Radiopaque: Pigment stones

Step 1 High Yield (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions