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Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Which lymph node drains the head and neck?

A

Cervical

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2
Q

Which lymph node drains the lungs?

A

Hilar

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3
Q

Which lymph node drains the trachea and esophagus?

A

Mediastinal

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4
Q

Which lymph node drains the upper limb, breast and skin above the umbilicus?

A

Axillary

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5
Q

Which lymph node drains the Liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, and upper duodenum?

A

Celiac

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6
Q

Which lymph node drains the Lower duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and colon to splenic flexure?

A

Superior mesenteric

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7
Q

Which lymph node drains the Colon from splenic flexure to upper rectum?

A

Inferior mesenteric

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8
Q

Which lymph node drains the Lower rectum to anal canal (above pectinate line), bladder, vagina (middle third), and prostate?

A

Internal iliac

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9
Q

Which lymph node drains the testes, ovaries, kidneys, and uterus?

A

Para-aortic

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10
Q

Which lymph node drains the anal canal (below pectinate line), skin below umbilicus (except politeal territory)?

A

Superficial inguinal

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11
Q

Which lymph node drains the dorsolateral foot and posterior calf?

A

Popliteal

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12
Q

What is drained by the right lymphatic duct?

What is drained by the thoracic duct?

A

Right lymphatic duct: Right side of body above diaphragm

Thoracic duct: Everything else (to junction of left subclavian and internal jugular veins)

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13
Q

What encapsulated organisms have increased virulence with splenic dysfunction?

A 
SHiNE SKiS
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae (type B)
Neisseria meningitidis
Escheria Coli
Salmonella spp
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Group B Streptococci
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14
Q

Lymphocytes in the thymus originate from what type of tissue?

A

Mesenchymal

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15
Q

What are Hassall corpuscles?

A

Area of the medulla of the thymus conatining epithelial reticular cells

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16
Q

Which HLAs determine MHCI? MHCII?

A

MHCI: HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
MHCII: HLA-DR, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ

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17
Q

What is the MHC-I mode of transport to the cell surface?

A

Beta 2 microglobulin

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18
Q 
What are the following HLA subtypes associated with?
HLA-A3:
HLA-B27:
HLA-DQ2/DQ8:
HLA-DR2:
HLA-DR3:
HLA-DR4:
HLA-DR5:
A

HLA-A3: Hemochromatosis
HLA-B27:Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, IBD arthritis, Reactive arthritis
HLA-DQ2/DQ8: Celiac disease
HLA-DR2: Multiple sclerosis, SLE, hay fever, Goodpasture syndrome
HLA-DR3: Diabetes Mellitus Type I, SLE, Graves disease
HLA-DR4: Rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes mellitus type 1
HLA-DR5: Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto thyroiditis

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19
Q

What is secreted by the Th1 cell?

What is secreted by the Th2 cell?

A

Th1: IFN-gamma
Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-13 (IL-10)

20
Q

What are the functions of perforin and granzyme?

A

Perforin: Helps deliver the content of granules into target cell
Granzyme: Serine protease that activates apoptosis inside the target cell

21
Q

What are the cell surface markers/identification factors on regulatory T cells?

A

CD3, CD4, CD25 (alpha chain of IL-2 receptor), and transcription factor FOXP3

22
Q

What enzyme adds nucleotides to antibody DNA during recombination (VDJ)?

A

terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

23
Q

Which antibody fixes compliment, crosses the placenta and is the main antibody in delayed response to an antigen?

24
Q

Which antibody is a monomer in circulation, a dimer when secreted, and crosses epithelial cells by transcytosis? (associated with secretions)

25
Which antibody is secreted as a pentamer and can trap free antigens out of tissue while the humoral response evolves?
IgM
26
Which antibody binds mast cells and basophils, mediating type 1 hypersensitivity through release of histamine?
IgE
27
What induces acute-phase reactants (factors that change concentration in response to inflammation)?
IL-6, IL-1, TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma
28
What are the functions of ferritin, transferrin, and hepcidin in chronic inflammatory states?
Ferritin: Binds and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging Transferrin: Internalized by macrophages to sequester iron (downregulated) Hepcidin: prevents release of iron bound by ferritin
29
What is C-reactive protein?
An opsonin: fixes complement and facilitates phagocytosis; measured as sign of ongoing inflammation
30
What complement proteins are associated with anaphylaxis? Neutrophil chemotaxis? MAC?
Anaphylaxis: C3a, C4a, C5a Neutrophil chemotaxis: C5a MAC: C5b-9
31
What is CD55 (DAF)?
Decay accelerating factor and C1 esterase inhibitor help prevent complement activation on self cells (deficient in paroxysmal nocturnal hemogobinuria)
32
What drugs are contraindicated in a C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency? What does this deficiency cause?
ACE inhibitors; causes hereditary angioedema
33
What can be caused by C3 deficiency?
Increases risk of severe, recurrent, pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections; increased susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity reactions
34
Explain the mnemonic, Hot T-Bone stEAK in terms of IL-1,2,3,4,5 and 6
``` IL-1: Fever- pyrogen (hot) IL-2: Stimulates T cells IL-3: Stimulates BONE marrow IL-4: Stimulates IgE production IL-5: Stimulates IgA production IL-6: Stimulates aKute phase protein production ```
35
What is the function of IL-8 ("clean up on aisle 8")
Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils (Neutrophils are recruited by IL-8 to clear infections)
36
Which interleukin induces differentiation of T-cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells (secreted by macrophages and B cells)?
IL-12
37
What is the function of TNF-alpha (secreted by macrophages)?
Mediates septic shock. Activates endothelium. Causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak
38
What is the function of IL-10 (from Th2 cells)? What also secretes it?
Modulates inflammatory response and inhibits actions of activated T cells and Th1; Also secreted by regulatory T cells
39
What is the function of interferons?
Glycoproteins synthesized by viral-infected cells that act locally on uninfected cells "priming" them for viral defense - activate RNAseL (degredation of viral host mRNA) and protein kinase (inhibition of viral/host protein synthesis)
40
What are cell surface proteins on Macrophages and NK cels?
Macrophages: CD14, CD40, MHCII, B7, C3b and Fc | NK cells: CD16 (binds Fc of IgG), CD56
41
Which infectious agents can undergo antigenic variation?
Bacteria: Salmonella, Borrelia, Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Virus: Influenza Parasites: Trypanosomes
42
When are patients given preformed antibodies?
After exposure to Tetanus toxin, Botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies virus
43
Desscribe serum sickness and the Arthus reaction (Type III hypersensitivity reactions)
Serum sickness: Antibodies to a foreign particle are produced (takes 5 days) - immune complexes form and are deposited in membranes, where they fix complement (leads to tissue damage) Arthus reaction: Intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies which form antigen-antibody complexes in the skin
44
Which disorders are assosiated with Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
SLE, Polyarteritis nodosa, Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness, Arthus reaction
45
What disorders are associated with type IV Hypersensitivity reaction?
``` Multiple sclerosis Guillain-Barre syndrome Graft versus host disease PPD (test for M. tuberculosis) Contact dermatitis (poison ivy, nickel alergy) ```
46
Which diseases can be prevented with live attenuated vaccines?
Measles, mumps, rubella, polio, influenza, varicella, yellow fever

Step 1 High Yield (21 decks)

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