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Reproductive System Flashcards

REP01-06

1
Q

start of REP01

what is the normal duration of equine pregnancy

A

342d

(321-385d)

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2
Q

name 3 ways to monitor pregnancy

A
  1. clinical exam
  2. transrectal or transabdominal scanning
  3. biochem/haematology (SAA/hormonal assays)
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3
Q

name 5 signs of pregnancy complications

A
  1. vaginal discharge
  2. colic
  3. ventral abdominal swelling
  4. premature mammary gland development/lactation
  5. systemic illness
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4
Q

death of embryo before this day is called early embryonic death (EED)

A

< 42d

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5
Q

name 3 ways to prevent early embryonic death (EED)

A
  1. reduction in causal factors
  2. good breeding management (caslicks)
  3. Buserelin (shown to increase preg rates)
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6
Q

name 3 risk factors for prepubic tendon rupture/abdominal hernia in the pregnant mare

A
  1. twins
  2. trauma
  3. hydrops
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7
Q

name the 5 parts of management for a pregnant mare with prepubic tendon rupture/abdominal hernia

A
  1. box rest
  2. support
  3. analgesia
  4. reduce haemorrhage
  5. monitor to return
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8
Q

name the 2 types of hydrops that can occur in prengnant mare

A
  1. hydrops allantois
  2. hydrops amnion
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9
Q

name 4 clinical signs of hydrops in pregnant mare

A
  1. enlarged abdomen
  2. colic
  3. premature mammary development
  4. anorexia
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10
Q

what is the treatment for hydrops in the pregnant mare

A

gradual transcervical fluid drainage

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11
Q

how to diagnose uterine torsion in pregnant mare

A

rectal palpation

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12
Q

name 3 treatments for uterine torsion in pregnant mare

A
  1. rolling under GA
  2. laparotomy
  3. standing flank laparotomy
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13
Q

the failure of foetus between these days is considered an abortion

A

between 40-300d

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14
Q

name 3 infectious causes of abortion

A
  1. Equine Herpes Virus 1
  2. Equine Viral Arteritis
  3. Placentitis
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15
Q

name the cause of infectious abortion

sporadic outbreaks ‘abortion storms’;
spread through resp disease in young adults and reactivation of latent carriers;
usually in last 3rd of gestation;
fresh foetus or weak viraemic foals born

A

Equine Herpes Virus 1

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16
Q

name the cause of infectious abortion

severe illness in dam followed by abortion in 7-10d;
CS: fever, lethargy, depression, conjunctivitis, nasal discharge;
spread via mating, teasing, AI, aborted foetal material and via resp route;
stallions can silently shed disease - major source of infection;
NOTIFIABLE disease

A

Equine Viral Arteritis

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17
Q

name the cause of infectious abortion

ascending bacterial infection most common;
haematogenous, focal mucoid (nocardioform) and multifocal also occur;
Strep equi subsp. zooepidemicus, E. coli, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

placentitis

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18
Q

name 3 risk factors for placentitis

A
  1. poor perineal conformation or cervical defects
  2. older multiparous mares
  3. previous abortion or placentitis
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19
Q

name 4 ways to diagnose placentitis

A
  1. transrectal u/s (CTUP and dluid appearance)
  2. inflammatory markers
  3. hormone assays
  4. milk electrolytes
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20
Q

name 3 treatments for placentitis

A
  1. broad-spectrum abx (TMPS or Pen/Gen)
  2. Altrenogest (Regumate)
  3. NSAIDs (fibrocoxib or phenylbutazone)
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21
Q

name 4 non-infectious causes of abortion

A
  1. placental insufficiency
  2. twinning
  3. cord abnormalities
  4. poor health of dam
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22
Q

if twinning is undetected, when will most abortions occur
(either without warning or premature lactation)

A

8-10mo

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23
Q

how are 95% of twins managed?

A

manual crushing
(before day 30)

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24
Q

name 4 ways of managing twins after day 30 of gestation

A
  1. termination
  2. transvaginal u/s guided aspiration
  3. thoracic compression
  4. cranio-cervical dislocation
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25
Q

when does transvaginal u/s guided aspiration have the best success rates for twin management

A

before day 40

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26
Q

when does thoracic compression have the best success rates for twin management
(compression of foetus against pelvis)

A

between days 55-75

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27
Q

what days can cranio-cervical dislocation be performed transrectally for management of twins

A

60-70d

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28
Q

what days can cranio-cervical dislocation be performed surgically for management of twins

A

70-150 d

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29
Q

how to induce abortion between 5-35 days of gestation?

A

single prostaglandin (PG) injection

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30
Q

how to induce abortion between 35-70 days of gestation?

A

daily PG injections for 3 days

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31
Q

how to induce abortion after 300 days of gestation?

A

oxytocin, PG, dexamethasone
(or combo)

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32
Q

between what days of gestation is there no reliable method of inducing abortion via drugs

A

70-300

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33
Q

start of REP06

when do most foalings occur

A

at night

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34
Q

when does mammary development occur in relation to parturition

A

2-6wks before

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35
Q

when does relaxation of perineal ligaments and muscles occur in relation to parturition

A

1-3wks prior

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36
Q

when does waxing of teats occur in relation to parturition

A

48-72h prior

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37
Q

when does milk leakage occur in relation to parturition

A

12-24h

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38
Q

when does vulva relaxation occur in relation to parturition

A

0-24h prior

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39
Q

describe the changes in calcium, K+, and Na+ levels seen prior to parturition

A
  1. Ca in milk increases
  2. K+ increases
  3. Na+ decreases
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40
Q

when should Caslick be opened to prevent severe perineal tears

A

4wks prior to parturition

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41
Q

why should parturition NOT be induced

A

HPA axis matures in final 3d of pregnany
(foal will be dysmature)

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42
Q

what does stage 1 of parturition terminate with?

A

rupture of chorioallantoic membrane and release of allantoic fluid

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43
Q

most foals are delivered how long after chorioallantoic membrane ruptures

A

20-30min

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44
Q

what is the most common cause of dystocia in mares

A

abnormal foetal posture

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45
Q

name 4 indications for intervention during foaling

A
  1. no progress toward delivery after 15-20min after chorioallantois rupture
  2. evidence of ‘red bag’
  3. progress toward delivery abruptly stops
  4. mare becomes acutely painful or exhibits signs of shock
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46
Q

name 3 ways to stop mare contracting for internal examinations for assisted parturition

A
  1. clenbuterol
  2. epidural
  3. place NG tube
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47
Q

name 4 options for managing dystocia

A
  1. assisted vaginal delivery
  2. controlled vaginal delivery (under GA)
  3. C-section
  4. foetotomy
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48
Q

name the management option for dystocia

attempted with mare awake and either standing or recumbent;
foetus lined up or oriented normally in birth canal or in posterior position with both hind limbs extended

A

assisted vaginal delivery (AVD)

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49
Q

name the management option for dystocia

GA used to facilitate repositioning of foetus into correct orientation to allow for vaginal delivery;
elevation of anaesthetised mare’s hindquarters may be beneficial to make it easier to reposition foetus;
liberal application of obstetrical lube along side of foetus and within uterine cavity will help repositioning and extraction of foetus

A

controlled vaginal delivery (CVD)

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50
Q

what does a ‘redbag’ delivery indicate in the foaling mare

A

premature placental separation

(foal is suffocating!)

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51
Q

how many days post-foaling oes uterine involution occur?

A

6-10 days

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52
Q

when is the first oestrus post-foaling?

A

6-7d post-foaling

(ovulation by day 9-11)

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53
Q

how long does it usually take for the chorioallantois to be passed following foaling

A

within 3h

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54
Q

name 4 risk factors for retained foetal membranes

A
  1. abnormal foaling - abortion, dystocia, placentitis
  2. previous history of RFM
  3. Fresian mares
  4. mares >15y
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55
Q

what is the initial treatment for retained foetal membranes

A

tie up the placenta
low dose oxytocin every hour

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56
Q

name the technique for treating retained foetal membranes

instilling large volumes of fluid directly into the allantoic cavity

A

Burns Technique

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57
Q

name the technique for treating retained foetal membranes

instilling water directly into umbilical cord vessels

A

Dutch Method

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58
Q

name 4 things that should be done/given following removal of retained foetal membranes

A
  1. large volume uterine lavage
  2. broad spectrum abx
  3. NSAIDs
  4. tetanus prophylaxis
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59
Q

foetal membranes retained longer than this is associated with increased risk of metritis which can lead to endotoxaemia, laminitis and death

A

greater than 6h

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60
Q

what is the most common cause of peri-partum haemorrhage?

(often fatal)

A

uterine artery rupture

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61
Q

name 5 clinical signs of peri-partum haemorrhage

A
  1. colic
  2. tachycardia with weak pulse
  3. pale mucous membranes
  4. laboured breathing
  5. evidence of circulatory collapse
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62
Q

name 4 ways to diagnose peri-partum haemorrhage

A
  1. clinical presentation
  2. abdominocentesis
  3. haematology
  4. rectal palpation (broad ligament haematoma palpable)
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63
Q

name the degree of perineal laceration

involves mucosa, submucosa and skin of dorsal aspect of vestibule

A

first degree

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64
Q

name the degree of perineal laceration

extends through musculature of constrictor vulvae muscle and perineal body, compromising ability of these muscles to constrict vestibule ;
causes perineum to sink cranially and ventrally, predisposing to pneumovagina and urine pooling

A

second degree

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65
Q

what is the treatment for second degree perineal lacerations

A

vestibuloplasty

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66
Q

name the degree of perineal laceration

rectovestibular laceration;
tearing of vestibular and sometimes vaginal wall and disruption of perineal body, anal sphincter and rectal wall;
results in common opening between rectum and vestibule;
usually allows faecal contamination of vagina

A

third degree

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67
Q

what is the surgical treatment for third degree perineal lacerations

A

reconstruction of rectovaginal shelf
(need to wait 4-6wks bc tissues inflamed and oedematous)

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68
Q

this is when the tissue between the rectum and vestibule is perforated but perineal body remains intact

A

rectovestibular fistula

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69
Q

when is the best time to examine for cervical lacerations?

A

during dioestrus

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70
Q

name 3 causes of agalactia/dysgalactia

A
  1. idiopathic
  2. ergot alkaloid induced toxicity
  3. systemic illness
71
Q

name 3 treatments for agalactia/dysgalactia

(supplement foals with colostrum and milk)

A
  1. oxytocin
  2. domperidone
  3. sulpiride
72
Q

start of REP01

name the 4 paired accessory sex glands

A
  1. ampullae
  2. seminal vesicles
  3. prostate
  4. bulbourethral glands
73
Q

name the accessory sex gland

nourishes, activates, cleanses sperm

74
Q

name the accessory sex gland

produce gel portion

A

seminal vesicle

75
Q

name the accessory sex gland

secretions ‘clean’ urethra

76
Q

name the accessory sex gland

cleans, lubricates, improve longevity of spermatozoa

A

bulbourethral gland

77
Q

name the 7 parts of a breeding soundness exam in a stallion

A
  1. identification
  2. history
  3. general clinical exam
  4. exam of external genitalia
  5. exam per rectum
  6. evaluation of libido and mating ability
  7. evaluation of semen quality
78
Q

name the pre-breeding test

use minitip swab, in Amies charcoal medium, check expiry date, send to authorised lab for PCR;
swab urethral orifice, fossa, prepuce and (ideally) pre-ejaculatory fluid if safe to do so

A

contagious equine metritis (CEM)

79
Q

name 3 causes of small testes

A
  1. hypoplasia
  2. degeneration
  3. retained testicle
80
Q

name 3 causes of large testes

A
  1. testicular torsion
  2. orchitis
  3. neoplasia
81
Q

name 3 testicular tumours of gram cells

A
  1. teratoma
  2. seminoma
  3. carcinoma
82
Q

name 2 testicular tumours of sex-cord stromal cells

A
  1. Leydig cell tumours
  2. sertoli cell tumours
83
Q

what is the most common, ‘classic’ testicular tumour

84
Q

this is the term for a horse with no testicles apparent but exhibits stallion-like behaviour

85
Q

what hormone can be tested to diagnose a ‘rig’
(no testicles apparent but exhibits stallion-like behaviour)

A

anti-mullerian hormone

86
Q

name the penile abnormality

persistent ejaculation;
usually after phenothiazine use

87
Q

name the penile abnormality

failure to withdraw non-erect penis;
after preputial trauma;
or caused by chronic grass sickness/botulism

A

penile prolapse

88
Q

name the penile abnormality

the penis swells and is constricted by the prepuce;
impaired venous/lymphatic drainage:
oedema > cellulitis > necrosis > gangrene ;
treatment: hydrotherapy, NSAIDs, diuretics, penile support, surgery

A

paraphimosis

89
Q

name the penile abnormality

inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce;
consider EHV-3, CEM, or other bacteria or fungi

A

balanoposthitis

90
Q

name the 4 common neoplasias of the penis

A
  1. squamous cell carcinomas
  2. melanomas
  3. viral papillomas
  4. sarcoids
91
Q

name 4 treatments for penile neoplasia

A
  1. topical 5-fluorouracil
  2. cryotherapy
  3. CO2 laser resection
  4. surgical resection
92
Q

name 10 causes of lack of libido in male horses

A
  1. genetics
  2. BCS
  3. age
  4. systemic disease
  5. psychic factors
  6. musculoskeletal disease
  7. inappropriate mount mare
  8. management factors
  9. overuse
  10. low LH levels
93
Q

what should the total progressive motility of sperm be?

A

greater than 60%

94
Q

what stain should be used for morphological evaluation of semen

A

eosin-nigrosin stain

95
Q

name 4 causes of haemospermia
(likely to afect fertility)

A
  1. infection of the tract
  2. trauma
  3. neoplasia
  4. cystic calculi in bladder (uncommon)
96
Q

name 4 primary abnormalities (spermatogenesis) of sperm

A
  1. head/acrosome defects
  2. bent mid-pieces
  3. proximal cytoplasmic droplets
  4. tail stump defects
97
Q

name 2 secondary abnormalities (in duct system) of sperm

A
  1. distal cytoplasmic droplets
  2. kinked tails
98
Q

name 2 tertiary abnormalities (in vitro) of sperm

A
  1. detached heads
  2. kinked tails
99
Q

start of REP02

name 3 reasons to castrate a horse

A
  1. behavioural modification
  2. prevent breeding
  3. pathology
100
Q

when should a horse be castrated?

101
Q

why is vaccination status important prior to castrating a horse

A

tetanus prophylaxis

102
Q

what should be given to a horse that has not been previously immunised with tetanus toxoid prior to castration?

A

tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid

103
Q

what is the best time of year to castrate a horse

A

spring and autumn
(less flies and weather is better)

104
Q

what pre-op drugs should be given before a castration

A
  1. NSAIDs (phenylbutazone, flunixin meglumine)
  2. abx (penicillin)
105
Q

what sedation should be used for a standing castration

A
  1. alpha-2 agonist (detomidine or romifidine)
    • an opioid (butorphanol)
106
Q

name 4 types of patients that are NOT good candidates for standing castration

A
  1. mules
  2. donkeys
  3. small ponies/horses
  4. stallions with temperamental behaviour during pre-op testicular palpation
107
Q

name the castration equipment

used to achieve haemostasis and simultaneously excise testis;
apply perpendicular to spermatic cord and placed ‘nut-to-nut’ so cutting side is closer to the testicle

A

emasculators

108
Q

name the 3 types of emasculators

A
  1. Serra
  2. Reimer
  3. Henderson drill
109
Q

name the type of emasculator

haemostasis achieved by compression, stretching and tearing of tissues;
spermatic cord simultaneously crushed and transected by single closing movement of jaws

A

Serra Emasculators

110
Q

name the type of emasculator

haemostasis achieved by compression of tissues;
transection performed by operator at later stage using separate handle on device

A

Reimer Emasculator

111
Q

name the type of emasculator

forceps fit into a battery-powered drill;
forceps attach to spermatic cord proximal to testicle and spun until testicle is removed;
haemostasis is achieved by crushing and elastic recoil of arterial walls

A

Henderson Castration

112
Q

name the 4 surgical options for castration

A
  1. open castration
  2. closed castration
  3. semi-closed castration
  4. cryptorchid castration
113
Q

name the 2 benefits of open castration

A
  1. fast and technically easy
  2. ideal for standing castrations
114
Q

name 2 drawbacks of open castration

A
  1. no ligatures (incr risk of post-op haemorrhage and eventration)
  2. parietic tunic not removed (incr risk of hydrocoele formation)
115
Q

name 2 benefits of closed castration

A
  1. parietal tunic not entered before ligation (reduced risk of peritoneal contamination)
  2. placement of ligature ensures better haemostasis and reduces chances of eventration
116
Q

name 2 drawbacks of closed castration

A
  1. only performed under GA
  2. ligature acts as foreign body, incr risk of local infection
117
Q

how long should emasculators be left in place?

A

varies!
at least 1min per year of horse’s age

118
Q

what type of castration should be used for donkeys

A

closed or semi-closed under GA

119
Q

name 7 possibe castration complications

A
  1. haemorrhage
  2. oedema
  3. infection
  4. evisceration
  5. inadvertent penile damage
  6. hydrocele
  7. persistent masculine behaviour
120
Q

name 5 sources of haemorrhage as a castration complication

A
  1. testicular artery (most common)
  2. pampiniform plexus
  3. small capillaries in skin and subcutaneous tissue
  4. cremaster muscle
  5. pudendal vessel
121
Q

how to treat haemorrhage as a castration complication

A

application of forceps or emasculator to spermatic cord
(until following day)

122
Q

name 4 treatments for oedema as a castration complication

A
  1. open sealed wounds
  2. rigorous exercise
  3. NSAIDs
  4. hydrotherapy (cold-hosing)
123
Q

name the castration complication

infection of spermatic cord remnant;
aka ‘scirrhous cord’;
may have variety of CS including: fever, scrotal swelling, lameness, incisional discharge, and/or granulation tissue protruding from incision

A

septic funiculitis

124
Q

how to treat septic funiculitis as a castration complication

A

re-establish drainage and abx;
surgical removal of infected portion of spermatic cord if unresponsive

125
Q

how to treat omental evisceration (escape of omentum through scrotum) as a castration complication

A

emasculation of prolapsed omentum as far as proximally possible

126
Q

name the castration complication

accumulation of fluid in vaginal tunic due to inadequate resection of parietal tunic or predisposed by open castration

127
Q

Start of REP03

what percent of the vulva should be below the level of ischium

A

at least 80%

128
Q

name 5 things to check the vagina for with a speculum

A
  1. external os of cervix
  2. varicose veins
  3. urovagina
  4. perineal tears
  5. hymen remnants
129
Q

name the 3 main categories of fertility problems in the mare

A
  1. failure to show signs of oestrus
  2. persistent oestrus
  3. failure to conceive
130
Q

name 5 possible causes of atrophied ovaries leading to failure to show signs of oestrus

A
  1. age
  2. emaciation
  3. parasitism
  4. disease
  5. stress
131
Q

name 5 reasons for failure to show signs of oestrus in mares with normal-sized ovaries

A
  1. siletn heat
  2. pregnancy
  3. early embryonic loss
  4. failure of luteal regression
  5. dioestrus ovulation
132
Q

what is the most common type of tumour found on equine ovaries;
often produce testosterone and lead to mare exhibiting stallion-like behaviour

A

granulosa (thecal) cell tumours

133
Q

what hormone do granulosa (thecal) cell tumours of the mare ovaries test positive to?

A

Anti-Mullerian Hormone

134
Q

what is the standard treatment of granulosa (thecal) cell tumours of mare ovary

A

surgical removal

135
Q

name the repro condition of mares

degeneration of the uterus;
incidence incr with age;
may not support a pregnancy;
detected on biopsy;
no effective treatment

A

endometrosis

136
Q

name 4 histopathological features of endometrosis

A
  1. lymphatic distension and lacunae
  2. cystic glandular distension
  3. periglandular fibrosis
  4. chronic inflammatory changes
137
Q

name the type of uterine cyst

protruding into lumen

138
Q

name the type of uterine cyst

within wall

A

endometrial

139
Q

how to treat uterine cysts

A

laser, electrocautery or surgical excision

140
Q

name 3 causes of endometritis

A
  1. venereal disease
  2. chronic uterine infection (CUI)
  3. persistent mating-induced endometritis (PMIE)
141
Q

what is the organism causing contagious equine metritis (CEM)?
notifiable;
rare in UK

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

142
Q

name the 3 ‘seals’ that need to be functional to prevent chronic uterine infection

A
  1. vulval lips
  2. vestibulovaginal junction
  3. cervix
143
Q

what type of semen is most likely to cause persistent mating-induced endometritis

A

frozen

(frozen > chilled > natural)

144
Q

name 2 surgical options to correct pneumovagina to prevent endometritis

A
  1. Caslick’s procedure
  2. perineo(vestibulo)plasty
145
Q

name 3 surgical options to correct urovagina to prevent endometritis

A
  1. urethral extension
  2. caudal retraction of transverse fold
  3. uteropexy
146
Q

name 3 treatments for endometritis

A
  1. flush with sterile saline/Hartmann’s
  2. oxytocin
  3. abx infusion (penicillin or gentamycin)
147
Q

start of REP04

how long is oestrus in a horse

148
Q

how long is dioestrus in a horse

149
Q

what hormone is the CL lysed by?
released from endometrium at day 15 if no embryo detected

A

PGF2 alpha

150
Q

name 6 options for oestrus suppression

A
  1. altrenogest (synthetic progesterone)
  2. GnRH vaccine
  3. intra-uterine devices: marble, UPOD
  4. plant oils by intrauterine infusion
  5. ovariectomy
  6. pregnancy
151
Q

name the option for oestrus suppression

synthetic progesterone - inhibits secretion of LH via neg feedback on HPA;
licensed for use during transitional period for short periods;
contraindicated in mares with uterine infection;
absorbed through skin so WEAR GLOVES

A

Regumate
(Altrenogest)

152
Q

name the option for oestrus suppression

removes stimulus of the pituitary to produces FSH and LH;
no follicle growth and no ovulation;
ovaries anoestrus-like;
may still get behavioural oestrus despite apparent ovarian inactivity;
2 injections, 4wks apart

A

anti-GnRH vaccination

153
Q

name the option for oestrus suppression

inserted and removed during oestrus;
mimic early pregnancy and prevent PGF2alpha;
efficacy moderate for up to 3mo;
removal recommended

154
Q

name the option for oestrus suppression

self-assembling magnetic device;
easy to insert and remove during oestrus or dioestrus;
mechanism unknown;
efficacy good for 2-3mo;
removal recommended

155
Q

name 2 ways to advance breeding season

A
  1. put under lights for 16h a day for 2mo (reduces melatonin production)
  2. provide blast of light for 2h approx. 9h after darkness falls
156
Q

once in the transitional period, what drug can be used to advance the breeding season

A

progesterone (10d)

157
Q

name 2 drugs that can be used for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

A
  1. prostaglandin
  2. altrenogest
158
Q

name 2 drugs for the induction of ovulation

A
  1. human chorionic gonadotrophin
  2. synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormones (deslorelin, buserelin)
159
Q

name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

causes lysis of the CL;
oestrus returns 1-5d later;
not effective in oestrus or within 5d post-ovulation;
sweating, abdominal cramps common;
also causes abortion!

A

Prostaglandin
(cloprostenol)

160
Q

name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

give daily in feed for 10d then withdraw;
oestrus should follow 3-5d later;
may occasionally ovulate during Tx

A

Altrenogest

161
Q

name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

LH-like activity;
given IV or IM;
induces ovulation if follicle >35mm w/in 36-48h as long as mare fully in season;
‘resistance’ can develop;
most commonly used in chilled semen or natural service protocols

A

human chorionic gonadotrophin

162
Q

name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone;
IM when follicle >30mm as long as mare is in full standing oestrus;
ovulation occurs 38-42h;
most commonly used in frozen semen protocols

A

Deslorelin injection

163
Q

name the drug for induction/synchronisation of oestrus

synthetic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone;
IV when follicle >40mm and full standing oestrus;
ovulation should occur w/in 24h;
less commonly used

164
Q

name 4 benefits of AI in horses

A
  1. more stallion choice
  2. lower risk of disease transmission
  3. lower risk of injury to stallion/mare
  4. no requirement for mare to travel
165
Q

name 4 disadvantages of AI in horses

A
  1. more expensive
  2. more vet intervention needed
  3. probably lower preg rates achieved
  4. not permitted in TBs in UK
166
Q

what is the longevity of sperm in natural service

167
Q

what is the longevity of sperm in chilled semen

168
Q

what is the longevity of sperm in frozen semen?

169
Q

what 3 things should be evaluated in the mare on each visit for chilled/frozen semen AI protocols

A
  1. follicle development
  2. endometrial oedema
  3. cervical relaxation
170
Q

name 3 ways to assess cervical tone

A
  1. visual examination with speculum and torch
  2. digital palpation
  3. rectal palpation
171
Q

the best pregnancy rates are achieved by inseminating the mare with chilled semen at what time in relation to ovulation?

172
Q

at what day is sexing of the foetus possible via u/s

173
Q

what hormone should be present in the blood from day 45-95 to indicate pregnancy
(will persist even if pregnancy is lost)

A

eCG
(equine chorionic gonadotrophin)

174
Q

what hormone is produced by foetal gonads and confirms the live foal is present after 120d

A

oestrone sulphate

Equine (11 decks)

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