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Miscellaneous Flashcards

EQ02-06, MSK07

1
Q

start of EQ03

what is the anaesthetic-related mortality rate in horses

A

1.9%
(1 in 53)

(in 2002)

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2
Q

name the 4 stages of general anaesthesia

A
  1. sedation/premedication
  2. induction
  3. maintenance
  4. recovery
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3
Q

name the premedication

phenothiazine, calming effects;
30 min before sedation;
no hypovolemic and foals;
contraindicated in stallions, although priapism is rare

A

acepromazine

(10-30 micrograms/kg, IM or IV)

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4
Q

name the type of sedation drug

sedation & analgesia;
muscle relaxation;
‘head down’ position;
decr minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of inhalants;
incr urine production

A

alpha-2 agonists

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5
Q

name 4 adverse effects of alpha-2 agonists

A
  1. resp depression
  2. bradycardia
  3. arrhythmias
  4. 2nd degree AV block
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6
Q

name 5 alpha-2 agonists that can be used for sedation

A
  1. xylazine
  2. detomidine
  3. romifidine
  4. medetomidine
  5. dexmedetomidine
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7
Q

name 4 NSAIDs that could be used in a multimodal analgesic approach

A
  1. flunixin meglumine
  2. phenylbutazone
  3. ketoprofen
  4. meloxicam
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8
Q

name 3 opioids that could be used as part of a multimodal analgesic approach

A
  1. butorphanol
  2. morphine
  3. methadone
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9
Q

what type of sedation should NOT be used in foals <4-6wks

A

NO alpha-2 agonists

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10
Q

what should foals less than 4-6wks be induced with for GA?

A

propofol

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11
Q

what should foals over 6wks of age be induced with for GA

A

ketamine + diazepam or midazolam

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12
Q

name the induction agent

main induction agent;
‘dissociative anaesthesia’;
analgesic at low doses;
minimal cardiopulmonary effects;
muscle rigidity

A

ketamine

(2.2 mg/kg IV)

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13
Q

name the induction agent

muscle relaxant;
anticonvulsant & anxiolytic

A

midazolam or diazepam

(0.05-0.06 mg/kg IV)

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14
Q

name 4 advantages of TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) over inhalant-based anaesthesia

A
  1. good under field conditions
  2. easy to use & cheap
  3. good CV function
  4. good recovery qualities
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15
Q

name 3 disadvantages of TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) over inhalant-based anaesthesia

A
  1. difficult to maintain a good anaesthetic depth
  2. difficult to monitorise and provide O2 in the field
  3. long anaesthesias (>90min)
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16
Q

name 4 bolus options for TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) lasting 15-20min

A
  1. ketamine
  2. ketamine + alpha-2 agonist
  3. ketamine + benzodiazepine
  4. ketamine + butorphanol
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17
Q

what should be used for TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) lasting 20-90 min?
relatively safe, minimal CR depression, good surgical conditions, good recovery qualities if short procedures

A

triple drip

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18
Q

name the 4 components of the triple drip for TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) lasting 20-90min

A
  1. 250mL NaCl (0.9%)
  2. 250mL Guaiphenesin
  3. 20mL Ketamine
  4. 2.5mL Romifidine
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19
Q

what is the infusion rate for the triple drip for TIVA (total IV anaesthesia) lasting 20-90min

A

1 mL/kg/h

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20
Q

if the horse was in lateral recumbency for surgery, how should it be placed in the recovery box?

A

same recumbency

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21
Q

if the horse was in dorsal recumbency for surgery, how should it be placed in the recovery box?

A

left lateral recumbency

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22
Q

name 6 possible complications during recovery from GA

A
  1. post-anaesthetic myopathy (PAM)
  2. Neuropathies
  3. orthopaedic and ocular trauma
  4. upper airway obstruction
  5. post-operative colic
  6. IV catheter-related problems
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23
Q

start of MSK07

this is degradation of articular cartilage, usually with concomitant subchondral bone and synovium changes

A

osteoarthritis

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24
Q

name the 4 periarticular soft tissues found in joints

A
  1. joint capsule
  2. collateral ligaments
  3. muscles
  4. tendons
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25
Q

name the p[art of the joint

precisely organised arrangement of collagen and proteoglycans;
responsible for load-distribution in the joint;
frictionless

A

articular (hyaline) cartilage

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26
Q

these are responsible for maintaining a balance between matrix degredation and repair;
complex interaction between them, cytokines and mechanical stimuli

A

chondrocytes

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27
Q

name 3 clinical signs of osteoarthritis in high motion joints

A
  1. joint effusion
  2. pain on flexion
  3. moderate lameness
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28
Q

name 3 high motion joints affected by osteoarthritis

A
  1. metacarpophalangeal joint
  2. carpal joint
  3. stifle
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29
Q

name 3 clinical signs of osteoarthritis (OA) in low motion joints

A
  1. no palpable effusion
  2. pain on flexion
  3. low grade lameness
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30
Q

name 2 low motion joints commonly affected by osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  1. distal tarsal joint
  2. proximal interphalangeal joint
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31
Q

name 4 radiographic changes associated with osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  1. osteophyte formation
  2. joint space narrowing
  3. subchondral bone lysis
  4. subchondral bone sclerosis
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32
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

COX inhibitors;
reduce synthesis of prostaglandin, namely PGE2;
consequently reduce inflammation and pain;
PALLIATIVE ONLY

A

NSAIDs

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33
Q

name 3 side effects of NSAIDs

A
  1. R dorsal colitis
  2. gastric ulceration
  3. renal papillary necrosis in dehydrated horses
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34
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

commonly given intra-articularly (IA);
most potent anti-inflamm drug available;
inhibit phospholipase A2 and hence PGE2

A

corticosteroids

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35
Q

name 3 available preparations of corticosteroids for treatment of osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  1. methylprednisolone acetate
  2. triamcinolone
  3. bethamethasone
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36
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

glycosaminoglycan component of articular cartilage and synovial fluid;
provides visco-elasticity and lubrication;
helps maintain synovial haemostasis;
specific mode of action unknown

A

hyaluronan (HA)

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37
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

3D network of cross-linked polymers;
gel seems to be integrated into joint producing synovial hyperplasia;
best effects on lameness reduction at 4-12wks

A

polyacrylamide gel 2.5%

(Arthramid)

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38
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

thought to be chondroprotective and anti-inflammatory;
potentiate the infective dose of bacteria so should be combined with an abx (gentamycin) if given IA;
used most frequently for subacute osteoarthritis;
can be given IM

A

polysulphated glycosaminoglycans (PSGAGs)

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39
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

thought to be chondroprotective and anti-inflammatory with similar effects to PSGAGs;
also used in dogs;
given by IM injection once weekly for 4wks

A

pentosan polysulphate

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40
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

inhibit osteoclasis (bone resorption);
potent analgesia;
banned in <4y old racehorses

A

biphosphonates

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41
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

coated glass spheres;
incubated overnight at 37C;
centrifuged then serum collected;
stimulates anti-inflammatory acronym soup (IL-4, IL-10, IL-Ra, bFGF, TGF-beta);
3 injections 14d apart

A

autologous condition serum (ACS)

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42
Q

name 2 advantages of autologous condition serum (ACS) to treat osteoarthritis

A
  1. autologous
  2. overnight production
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43
Q

name 2 disadvantages of autologous condition serum (ACS) to treat osteoarthritis

A
  1. exact cytokines produced in equine blood not published
  2. unknown duration of action
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44
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

fraction of venous blood with a concentrated platelet count;
platelet aggregation during wound healing, results in release of bioactive substances that promote tissue repair, regulate inflammation and stimulate stem cell recruitment;
high concentration of growth factors

A

platelet rich plasma

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45
Q

name the medical treatment for osteoarthritis (OA)

recommended to treat mild-moderate lameness;
non-septic joint inflammation in horses

A

intra-articular stem cells

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46
Q

name 4 surgical treatment options for osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  1. arhtroscopic removal of osteochondral fragments
  2. accurate articular fracture reduction and repair
  3. debidement of articular surface defects
  4. arthrodesis
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47
Q

name 3 uses of arthroscopy for osteoarthritis (OA) treatment

A
  1. remove OCD fragments
  2. joint assessment and removal of cartilage lesions
  3. aid fracture repair and joint congruity
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48
Q

name the surgical treatment of osteoarthritis (OA)

last resort following lack of response to medical treatment;
prognosis better for low motion joints;
small tarsal joints and proximal interphalangeal joint (pastern joint)

A

arthrodesis

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49
Q

start of EQ02

name the injection for euthanasia:
large dose, rapid injection, less commonly used in UK

A

pentobarbital (barbiturate)

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50
Q

name the injection for euthanasia

common agent used in UK, with skill and knowledge is a good choice;
a barbiturate and a cardiotoxic local anaesthetic;
the barbiturate depresses central nervous system including resp centres;
the cardiotoxic drug causes cardiac arrest;
injection speed is very important - want horse unconscious before cardiac arrest occurs

A

Somulose
(Secobarbitone + Cinchocaine)

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51
Q

how long should the somulose injection for euthanasia be given over?

A

over 10-15s

(perhaps a bit slower in practice)

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52
Q

what is the dosing rate for somulose for euthanasia

A

1mL/10kg BW

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53
Q

how should the somulose injection for euthanasia be given?

A

14G jugular catheter

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54
Q

EQ04-05

this is a non-profit organisation that chiefly aims to facilitate research into the training of horses to enhance horse welfare and improve the horse-rider relationship

A

International Society for Equitation Science (ISES)

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55
Q

do horses have excellent short-term or long-term memory?

A

excellent long-term memory

(poor short-term memory)

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56
Q

name the type of learning

habituation;
sensitisation;
it is the horses’ perception of potential harm that determines if they habituate or become sensitised - NOT whether there is actual potential for harm

A

non-associative learning

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57
Q

name the type of learning

make associations between 2 previously unrelated stimuli;
predictability;
order important

A

classical conditioning

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58
Q

name the type of learning

primarily aimed at changing the way a horse feels

A

classical counter conditioning

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59
Q

name the type of reinforcement for operant conditioning

adding something to train a behaviour;
ex: food, stroking/scratching withers, timing important

A

positive reinforcement

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60
Q

name the type of reinforcement for operant conditioning

removing something to train a behaviour;
ex: pressure-release, timing important

A

negative reinforcement

61
Q

name the type of reinforcement for operant conditioning

adding something to stop a behaviour;
applying an aversive stimulus after an unwanted behaviour has occurred to suppress it

A

positive punishment

62
Q

name the type of reinforcement for operant conditioning

removing something to stop a behaviour;
removing something pleasant from the horse after an unwanted behaviour has occurred to suppress it

A

negative punishment

63
Q

name 5 cons of using punishment to train a horse

A
  1. lowers motivation of horse to trial new responses in training - tells horse what not to do but not what it should be doing
  2. horse can become desensitised to the punishing stimulus
  3. timing
  4. horse may have extreme reaction to the stimulus
  5. creates powerful assoc. with vet
64
Q

name the part of equine emotional state

happy or sad

A

valance / affect

65
Q

name the part of equine emotional state

intensity of emotion or level of alertness

66
Q

start of EQ06

this is a mlae donkey crossed with a female horse

67
Q

this is a female donkey crossed with a male horse

68
Q

this is a male donkey

69
Q

this is a female donkey

A

jenny / jennet

70
Q

this is a male mule

A

jack / john

(young: mule colt)

71
Q

this is a female mule

A

mare mule / molly

(young: mule filly)

72
Q

what respiratory disease is common in older donkeys

A

pulmonary fibrosis

73
Q

where is the naso-lacrimal duct opening located in a donkey, making flushing the tear ducts more tricky

A

dorso-lateral aspect of the nares

74
Q

name 4 anatomical differences in donkeys vs horses

A
  1. naso-lacrimal duct opening is dorso-lateral aspect of the nares
  2. wider and more extensive nasopharyngeal recess
  3. nasal passages narrower
  4. foot has more upright HPAxis
75
Q

normal temp of an adult donkey?

76
Q

normal HR of an adult donkey?

77
Q

normal RR of an adult donkey?

78
Q

normal temp of a neonate donkey?

A

37.5-38.5 C

79
Q

normal HR of a neonate donkey?

A

80-120 bpm

80
Q

normal RR of a neonate donkey?

A

60-80 bpm first hour;
30-40 after 12h

81
Q

a heart rate higher than this indicates severe disease, hypovolaemic shock or pain in donkeys

82
Q

name 3 licensed wormers for donkeys

A
  1. ivermectin
  2. pyrantel
  3. fenbendazole
83
Q

the death of a donkey can lead to this condition in companion due to strong pairs they form

A

hyperlipaemia

84
Q

name 8 possible Ddx for a dull donkey

A
  1. oral/dental pain
  2. laminitis
  3. orthopaedic pain
  4. mild-severe colic
  5. hyperlipaemia
  6. resp disease
  7. liver disease
  8. grieving
85
Q

what percent reduction in BW a month sould be aimed for in weight loss programmes for donkeys

86
Q

name 4 treatment steps for a dull/poor appetite/inappetant/mildly elevated TGs donkey (hyperlipaemia)

A
  1. give some feed by NG tube
  2. follow by 1-2g/kg glucose orally
  3. encourage voluntary intake
  4. ensure they have a friend/companion
87
Q

name the 4 parts of feed to restore positive energy balance (via NG tube) in a donkey

A
  1. 2-3L warm water
  2. rehydration salts
  3. 120g glucose powder
  4. 250-500g Ready Brek
88
Q

survival of a donkey with hyperlipaemia is more likely if TG levels are less than this

A

< 10mmol/L

89
Q

name 3 reasons early respiratory disease is often missed in donkeys

A
  1. insensitive cough reflex
  2. stoic
  3. not athletically challenged
90
Q

what is the most common ectoparasite in donkeys

91
Q

how to treat laminitis in donkeys

A
  1. NSAIDs BID
  2. sole support
92
Q

when is castrating advised in donkeys

A

from 6-18mo

93
Q

what is the gestation length for donkeys

94
Q

what are overweight donkeys at high risk for during pregnancy and lactation

A

hyperlipaemia

95
Q

how much should donkey foals drink for the first 6h of life?

96
Q

what do mule foals need to be monitored for?
10% of foals at risk

A

neonatal isoerythrolysis

97
Q

how often should NSAIDs be given to donkeys

98
Q

how often should NSAIDs be given to miniature donkeys

99
Q

name 2 antibiotics that are NOT advisable in donkeys

A
  1. meloxicam
  2. firocoxib
100
Q

start of EQ01

name 2 effects time delays/inappropriate temperatures of samples can have on haematology/biochemistry interpretation

A
  1. haemolysis
  2. glycolysis
101
Q

name 3 effects excitement/stress can have on biochemistry/haematology interpretation

A
  1. incr RBCs
  2. incr WBCs
  3. incr glucose
102
Q

name 3 effects dehydration can have on biochemistry/haematology interpretation

A
  1. incr PCV
  2. incr protein concentration
  3. pre-renal azotaemia
103
Q

name the distribution for reference ranges

2 standard deviations above and below the mean

A

Gaussian distribution

104
Q

name the distribution for reference ranges

delete 2.5% at upper and lower ends

A

non-Gaussian distribution

105
Q

what PCV and plasma protein concentration levels are frequently seen in acute colitis

A

incr PCV and normal plasma protein conc

(dehydration AND protein loss)

106
Q

this serum concentration shows the function of exchangeable cation content relative to total body water

A

serum sodium concentration

(exchangeable Na in ECF and exchangeable K in ICF)

107
Q

name 5 possible causes of hyponatraemia

A
  1. sweating
  2. diarrhoea
  3. blood loss
  4. excessive gastric reflux
  5. 3rd space sequestration
108
Q

name 4 causes of hypokalaemia

A
  1. diarrhoea
  2. 3rd space sequestration
  3. dietary deficiency
  4. metabolic alkalosis
109
Q

name 3 causes of hyperkalaemia

A
  1. in vitro haemolysis (false hyperkalaemia)
  2. acute renal failure (hypovolaemia)
  3. metabolic acidosis
110
Q

name 4 causes of changes in serum chloride

A
  1. diarrhoea
  2. sweating
  3. blood loss
  4. gastric reflux

(almost always associated with alteration in serum Na+)

111
Q

what is a disproportionate increase in chloride relative to Na+ associated with?

A

metabolic acidosis

(or compensation response for primary resp alkalosis)

112
Q

what is a disproportionate decrease in chloride relative to Na+ associated with?

A

metabolic alkalosis

(or compensation response for primary resp acidosis)

113
Q

name the 3 forms serum Ca exists as

A
  1. ionised (40-60%)
  2. complexed
  3. protein bound (40-50%)
115
Q

what effect does alkalosis have on serum calcium?

A

incr protein binding;
decr ionised calcium

116
Q

what effect does acidosis have on serum calcium

A

reduces protein binding

117
Q

name 4 causes of hypocalcaemia

A
  1. acute renal failure
  2. exhaustive disease syndrome
  3. transit
  4. periparturient / lactation
118
Q

name 4 causes of hypercalcaemia

A
  1. chronic renal failure
  2. primary hyperparathyroidism
  3. secondary hyperparathyroidism
  4. hypervitaminosis D
119
Q

name 4 causes of metabolic acidosis

A
  1. hypovolaemia
  2. acute colitits
  3. bowel strangulation
  4. exercise > anaerobic threshold
120
Q

name 3 causes of metabolic alkalosis

A
  1. gastric reflux
  2. excessive sweating
  3. prolonged excessive salivary losses
121
Q

what causes respiratory acidosis?

A

primary upper/lower airway disease

(decr effective alveolar ventilation)

122
Q

what causes respiratory alkalosis

A

hyperventilation

123
Q

name 4 things that stimulate hyoperventilation and can lead to respiratory alkalosis

A
  1. hypoxaemia
  2. fear
  3. pain
  4. excitement
124
Q

name the 4 unmeasured anions making up the anion gap

A
  1. proteins
  2. sulphate
  3. phosphate
  4. lactate
125
Q

name 2 causes of a decreased anion gap

A
  1. hypoproteinaemia
  2. hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
126
Q

what is the cause of an increased anion gap

A

lactic acidosis

127
Q

name 3 causes of lactic acidosis

A
  1. anaerobic exercise
  2. grain overload
  3. hypovolaemia
128
Q

name the serum enzyme

hepatocellular-derived enzyme;
liver specific ;
indicative of hepatocellular damage;
short half-life (hours)

A

glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH)

129
Q

name the serum enzyme

highest activity in periportal region of liver, pancrease and renal tubular cells;
raised with hepatobiliary disorders and cholestasis;
normal range higher in donkeys;
elevations reported in thoroughbred racehorses in training

A

gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)

130
Q

name the serum enzyme

high concentration in skeletal and cardiac muscle, liver, kidney, and erythrocytes;
non-specific indicator of tissue damage ;
long half-life

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

131
Q

name the serum enzyme

marker of intra- or extra-hepatic obstruction of biliary system;
also released from bone, intestine and neutrophils;
used mainly for evaluating liver damage and biliary stasis

A

alkaline phosphatase (AP)

132
Q

name the serum enzyme

specific indicator of skeletal muscle damage;
short half-life (2h);
usually evaluated along with AST and LDH to monitor chronicity of skeletal muscle damage

A

creatinine kinase (CK)

133
Q

name 3 reasons for elevated bilirubin

A
  1. haemolysis (uncongugated)
  2. liver disease
  3. anorexia (incongugated)
134
Q

name 4 causes of hypoglycaemia

A
  1. fasting in neonates
  2. septicaemia
  3. endotoxaemia
  4. hyperlipaemia
135
Q

name 3 causes of hyperglycaemia

A
  1. physiological (stress, excitement)
  2. endotoxaemia (initially)
  3. Cushing’s disease
136
Q

what 4 serum proteins are usually measured

A
  1. total protein
  2. albumin
  3. globulins
  4. acute phase proteins (fibrinogen and serum amyloid A)
137
Q

name the cause of hyperfibrinogenaemia

A

inflammation (acute phase protein)

138
Q

name a cause of hypofibrinogenaemia

A

liver failure

139
Q

name 3 polymorphonuclear (PMN) leucocytes / granulocytes

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. basophils
140
Q

name 2 mononuclear leucocytes

A
  1. lymphocytes
  2. monocytes
141
Q

name 2 viral diseases that may cause neutropaenia

A
  1. EHV-1
  2. Equine influenza
142
Q

name 3 causes of lymphocytosis (rare)

A
  1. chronic viral infection
  2. autimmune disease (rare)
  3. leukaemia (very rare)
143
Q

name 2 causes of lymphopaenia

A
  1. acute viral disease
  2. endotoxaemia
144
Q

name 2 conditions that might be indicated by protein in the urine

A
  1. glomerular loss (glomerulonephritis)
  2. urinary tract infection
145
Q

name 3 causes of glucosuria

A
  1. Cushing’s disease
  2. glucocorticoids
  3. adrenaline
146
Q

what does glucosuria without hyperglycaemia suggest?

A

renal tubular damage

147
Q

name 5 causes of incr red cells in the urine - haematuria

A
  1. neoplasia
  2. trauma
  3. inflammation
  4. coagulopathy
  5. idiopathic renal haemorrhage
    .
148
Q

these are protein and cellular material that form in renal tubules in face of tubular damage;
very fragile, may not be seen in non-refrigerated urine

149
Q

what type of crystals are usually found in abundance in horse urine

A

calcium carbonate

Equine (11 decks)

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