Integument Flashcards

IN01-04

1
Q

start at IN03

name the diagnostic technique:
perform on pruritic cases;
detects surface ectoparasites;
stiff brush (sterile nail or denture brush);
sweep hair/debris to petri dish;
examine using microscopy

A

groomings/coat brushings

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2
Q

name the diagnostic technique

indicated if broken hairs, crusts, scales, alopecia;
includes hair follicles (site assoc with dermatophytes);
from margins of fresh lesions;
submit in sterile bottles;
microscopy, fungal PCR and culture

A

hair pluck

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3
Q

name the diagnostic technique

useful in pruritic cases;
ID’s burrowing mites;
moisten with 0.9% saline;
do it until specks of blood appear;
microscopy, PCR and fungal culture

A

skin scrape

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4
Q

name the diagnostic technique

useful for suspected bacterial lesions;
amies transport medium;
maybe contaminated by surface commensals;
improved results with deeper ones/aspirates;
submit for culture and sensitivity

A

swabs

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5
Q

what medium should be used for fungal cultures

A

Sabouraud’s medium

(Dermatophytes changes agar from amber to red)

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6
Q

name the diagnostic technique

attach syringe to 19G or 20G needle;
advance to centre of mass,
apply maximal suction repeatedly for few seconds,
withdraw needle,
draw air into syringe and release through needle onto slides;
results often disappointing;
useful for melanomas

A

aspirates

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7
Q

name the diagnostic technique

use fresh lesion or remove dry surface epithelium with blade;
discuss fixing/staining slides with pathologist

A

impression smear

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8
Q

name the diagnostic technique

useful for culture, histopath, IF, IGC, VI;
often useful to discuss sampling technique with pathologist;
includes punch, shave, wedge, excision

A

biopsy

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9
Q

name the diagnostic technique

no skin prep;
mark, sedation (avoid local directly into lesion);
5-9mm biopsy;
snip tag of fascia;
10% formalin;
sutures not required

A

punch biopsy

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10
Q

name 2 lice species affecting horses

A
  1. Damalinia equi (aka Bovicola equi)
  2. Haematopinus asini
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11
Q

name the pruritic disease

louse infestation;
biting and sucking lice

A

pediculosis

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12
Q

what is the treatment for lice?

A

topical treatment with synthetic pyrethroids;
2 treatments at 14d intervals

(Deosect - cypermethrin)

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13
Q

how to diagnose Chorioptes bovis on horses

A

microscopic exam of coat brushing/superficial scrap

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14
Q

name 3 treatments for Chorioptes bovis

A
  1. topical ivermectin (Mallender’s solution)
  2. permethrins
  3. clip hair
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15
Q

name the pruritic disease

seasonal - July/August;
pruritis of head/limbs;
orange/brown colour to legs from mites + serum accumulation on legs

A

harvest mites
(Tombicula autumnalis)

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16
Q

name the pruritic disease

adult migrates from rectum to lay eggs;
intense perineal pruritis;
perineum rather than tail;
diagnose with tape

A

Oxyuris equi - Pinworm

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17
Q

name the immunotherapy option to treat pruritic diseases

unlicensed vaccine (licensed for ringworm);
2 injections, 14d apart;
prior to midge seasom (Jan/Feb);
deep IM;
imported under special import certificate

A

Insol Dermatophyton vaccine

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18
Q

name the pruritic disease

type 1 hypersensitivity;
extreme pruritis;
diagnosis by exclusion, ID skin tests (RAST or ELISA on serum);
treat by removing contact or hyposensitisation to allergen;
corticosteroids

A

atopy

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19
Q

name 8 causes of alopecia

A
  1. Dermatophilus congolensis (rain scald)
  2. ringworm (Trichophyton equinum var equinum)
  3. Microsporum gypseum
  4. Occult sarcoid
  5. alopecia areata
  6. multisystemic epitheliotrophic eosinophilic disease (MEED)
  7. chemical dermatoses
  8. linear keratosis
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20
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose Microsporum gypseum as cause fo alopecia

A
  1. hair pluck and skin scrape for microscopy ad fungal culture
  2. some fluoresce with Woods lamp
  3. PCR
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21
Q

how to treat Ringworm?

A

Imaverol

(4 washes at 3d intervals)

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22
Q

name the cause of alopecia

rare autoimmune skin disease with thinning of mane and tail and circumscribed alopecia;
no effective treatment

A

alopecia areata

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23
Q

name the cause of alopecia

often GIT and skin;
pruritis, alopecia and systemic signs;
diagnose with biopsies of skin +/- GIT; guarded prognosis

A

Multisystemic Epitheliotrophic Eosinophilic Disease (MEED)

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24
Q

name the cause of alopecia

rare, idiopathic, possible inherited, often quarter horses

A

linear keratosis

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25
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

complex immune-mediated/allergic response to various allergens;
isolated cases respond to steroids (0.1mg/kg dexamethasone);
recurrent cases more challenging

A

urticaria

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26
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

most common skin tumour of horses;
6 types: occult, verrucose, nodular, mixed, fibroblastic, malevolent

A

sarcoids

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27
Q

name the 6 types of sarcoids

A
  1. occult
  2. verrucose
  3. nodular
  4. mixed
  5. fibroblastic
  6. malevolent
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28
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

common, usually along back;
nodules assoc with degenerate collagen;
biopsy only if necessary;
Tx rarely indicated

A

eosinophilic collagen necrosis

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29
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

cutaneous cyts;
contains cheese-like material and hair

A

Dermoid Cyst

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30
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

developmental cystic structure of epidermis;
common in false nostril

A

epidermoid cyst (atheroma)

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31
Q

name the cause of nodule/tumour/swelling

swelling in temporal region from tooth germ tissue;
drains through skin near ear;
surgical removal

A

dentigerous cyst

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32
Q

name 3 treatments for squamous cell carcinomas

A
  1. surgery
  2. cytotoxic injections
  3. radiation
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33
Q

name the cause of scaling and crusting

autoimmune disease;
autoantibodies to cell membrane of epidermal cells;
exfoliative dermatitis, vesicles, pustules, scaling, crusting;
biopsy - acantholytic keratinocytes

A

pemphigus foliaceus

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34
Q

what is the treatment for pemphigus foliaceus?

A

corticosteroids - prednisolone

(2-4 mg/kg)

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35
Q

name the cause of scaling and crusting

caused by UV radiation;
facilitated by lack of pigment;
prevent with sunblock

A

sunburn

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36
Q

this is a potent photodynamic agent produced in digestion of chlorphyll;
usually detoxified and excreted by liver;
liver failure allows accumulation in skin;
causes severe damage to white areas

A

Phylloerythrin

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37
Q

name 5 causes of pastern dermatitis

A
  1. chorioptes
  2. photosensitisation
  3. mud fever
  4. pastern leucocytoclastic vasculitis
  5. MEED
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38
Q

name the cause of pastern dermatitis

Dermatophilus congolesis;
or mixed infections with Staphylococcal spp and Streptococcal spp.

A

mud fever (‘Greasy Heel’)

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39
Q

name the cause of pastern dermatitis

affects unpigmented distal limb;
role of UV light;
clinical signs often diagnostic;
can biospy

A

pastern leucocytoclastic vasculitis

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40
Q

name the skin disease

draft types;
abnormal lymphatics cause swelling, hyperkeratosis and fibrosis;
often concurrent Choriptes bovis;
treatment challenging

A

Chronic Progressive Lymphoedema

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41
Q

name the cause of limb swelling

inflammation of cutaneous lymphatics;
often with small wound but not always;
usually hindlimbs;
leg can be 2-3x normal size

A

lymphangitis

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42
Q

name 6 treatments for lymphangitis

A
  1. abx (tetracyclins vs TMPS)
  2. NSAIDs
  3. corticosteroids
  4. hydrotherapy
  5. leg wraps
  6. exercise
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43
Q

name the cause of limb swelling

generally results from small infected wound;
causes painful swelling, pyrexia, inappetance

A

cellulitis

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44
Q

name 6 treatments for cellulitis

A
  1. abx
  2. NSAIDs
  3. corticosteroids
  4. hydrotherapy
  5. wound management
  6. bandages
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45
Q

name the cause of limb swelling

inflammation of vessel walls, commonly immune-mediated;
causes oedema, necrosis and ulceration of limbs and mucosae;
Tx: corticosteroids, symptomatic treatment

A

vasculitis

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46
Q

name the cause of limb swelling

immune-mediated vasculitis associated with with recovery from URT infection (usually strangles);
usually 2-4wks after infection

A

purpura haemorrhagica

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47
Q

start of IN01

name the 3 broad categories of wound healing

A
  1. inflammation and debridement
  2. repair
  3. maturation
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48
Q

name the stage of wound healing

initiated with acitvation of clotting cascade;
phagocytic cells enter wound, removing foreign matter and bacteria;
wound increases in diameter, inflammation evident as heat, swelling and/or redness;
therapeutic goal is to minimise duration of this phase as much as possible

A

inflammation debridement

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49
Q

name the stage of wound healing

granulation tissue formation and fibroplasia;
provides surface for epithelialisation to occur;
slower in limb wounds than trunk wounds and slower in horses compared to ponites;
therapeutic goal is to enable granulation tissue to cover wound ;
created by providing moist, hypoxic environment through bandaging

A

repair

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50
Q

name the stage of wound healing

epithelisation and contraction of wound;
can be very slow - with time, rea becomes more fibroblastic (scarred) and hair may regrow;
therapeutic goal should be to allow epithelial cells to migrate as easily as possible across wound;
minimise destruction and minimise distance epithelial cells need to travel

A

maturation

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51
Q

what is the toxic dose of lidocaine

A

8-10mg/kg

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52
Q

name the 4 steps of preparing the wound

A
  1. clean wound of gross debris and cover in water-soluble sterile lubricating gel or gauze
  2. clip hair surrounding wound
  3. clean wound edges with iodine or dilute chlorhexidine
  4. lavage wound with warm isotonic fluids
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53
Q

name 4 uses of u/s with wound management

A
  1. r/o involvement of tendon and ligaments
  2. ID foreign material
  3. ID evidence of infection
  4. assess blood flow (w Doppler)
54
Q

name 4 uses of radiography with wound management

A
  1. r/o potential fractures
  2. metallic foreign material
  3. positive contrast for penetrating injuries with synovial involvement
  4. sequestrum formation (chronic non-healing wounds)
55
Q

what is the purpose of saline distension of synovial structures

A

determine synovial involvement with the wound

56
Q

where should the needle be placed for saline distension of synovial structures in relation to the wound?

A

site distant from wound

(NOT through wound to avoid iatrogenic contamination)

57
Q

name 2 reasons why distal limb wounds are more difficult to manage

A
  1. risk of damage of deeper structures
  2. exuberant granulation tissue formation (‘proud flesh’)
58
Q

when is the best time for evaluation of periosteal and/or bone injury?

A

2-3wks post-injury

59
Q

name 3 types of debridement

A
  1. mechanical
  2. autolytic
  3. biosurgical
60
Q

name 2 types of mechanical debridement

A
  1. surgical
  2. wet-to-dry dressings
61
Q

name the type of debridement

most traumatic method;
non-selective, removing not just contamination but also vital healing factors and fibroblasts;
associated trauma can create a viscious cycle of persistent inflammation

A

mechanical debridement with dressings

62
Q

name the type of debridement

allow wound to ‘fester’ by maintaining moist wound environment;
very selective - preserves all vital tissue and healing factors, leukocyte phagocytosis and enzymatic reactions clear away necrotic tissue and microorganisms;
ineffective when gross amounts of necrotic debris present

A

autolytic debridement

63
Q

name the type of debridement

maggot therapy;
greenbottle fly larva (Lucilia sericata);
function by secreting proteolytic enzymes;
used for necrotic, infected or chronic nonhealing wounds

A

biosurgical debridement

64
Q

name 2 instances when systemic antibiotic therapy is indicated for a wound

A
  1. degree of infection exceeds efforts of local control
  2. local soft tissue infection or systemic infection apparent
65
Q

what is the most commonly cultured bacteria in subcutaneous wounds

A

Staphylococcus spp.

66
Q

name 2 options for empirical treatment of infected subcutaneous tissue wounds while awaiting results of C&S

A
  1. penicillin
  2. TMPS
67
Q

name 3 bacterias less commonly cultured in wounds of subcutaneous tissue

A
  1. Streptococcus spp
  2. gram-neg anaerobes
  3. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
68
Q

name the 3 most commonly cultured bacteria in wounds including synovial cavities or bone

A
  1. gram-neg enteric genera
  2. Streptococcus spp
  3. Staphylococcus spp
69
Q

what is the empirical treatment for wounds including synovial cavities or bone while awaiting results of C&S

A

beta-lactam abx + aminoglycoside

70
Q

what is the empirical treatment for cellulitis and septic myositis due to Clostridium spp

A

high dose penicillin and metronidazole

(aggressive surgical debridement and aeration)

71
Q

name 5 benchmarks for wound response to therapy

A
  1. resolution of systemic signs of inflammation
  2. continued improvement in comfort and function
  3. resolution of local signs of infection and purulent discharge
  4. negative culture results
  5. normal rate of wound healing
72
Q

name the type of wound closure

favoured whenever possible, provided no gross evidence of infection;
greater risk of dehiscence, but potentially salvages more tissue and creates biological bandage

A

primary closure

73
Q

name 4 characteristics of wounds sutiable for primary closure

A
  1. minimal contamination
  2. good blood supply
  3. moderate tissue loss
  4. no to moderate tension on wound edges
74
Q

name the type of wound closure

not ideal;
wounds in horses heal primarily by epithelialisation rather than by contraction;
forms more extensive scar that is weaker and lacks normal skin adnexa (pigment, sweat, sebaceous glands)

A

second-intention healing

75
Q

name 4 characteristics of wounds suitable for second intention healing

A
  1. gross contamination
  2. extensive tissue loss
  3. high tension on wound edges
  4. dehiscence following primary closure
76
Q

name the type of wound closure

closure delayed for 1-3d;
allow better preparation of wound bed to increase success of closure;
reduce bacterial burden and prevent biofilm formation

A

delayed primary closure

77
Q

what wounds are suitable for delayed primary closure

A

wounds suitable for primary closure but with marked: contamination, oedema or drainage

78
Q

name 5 reasons wounds heal faster when bandaged

A
  1. minimises oedema
  2. absorbs exudate
  3. maintains temp and moisture
  4. immobilises wound
  5. protects from further contamination and trauma
79
Q

name the 4 main types of primary dressings

A
  1. debridement dressings
  2. moistening dressings
  3. granulation and wound contraction dressings
  4. epithelialisation dressings
80
Q

name the type of primary dressing

remove bacteria and dead tissue from wounds

A

debridement dressings

81
Q

name the type of primary dressing

moisten wound and facilitate autolytic debridement

A

moistening dressings

82
Q

name the type of primary dressing

encourage granulation tissue formation and wound contraction

A

granulation ad wound contraction dressings

83
Q

name the type of primary dressing

incr surface temp of wound, encouraging epithelial cell migration

A

epithelialisation dressings

84
Q

name the debridement dressing

medical grade, irradiated to destroy microorganism spores;
hypertonic: debrides wounds;
reduces bacterial number;
growth factor properties but poorly understood;
use once granulation has begun;
infected wounds

A

manuka honey

85
Q

name the debridement dressing

hypertonic saline;
non-selective debridement;
osmotic activity;
for wounds with considerable necrotic tissue or abscesses

86
Q

name the moistening dressing

hydrogel, completely occlusive;
promotes autolytic debridement and white blood cell migration;
for desiccated or contaminated wounds short term, until wound is moist

87
Q

name the granulation dressing

calcium alginate;
stimilates myofibroblast/epithelial cells;
heavily exudative wounds in granulating phase, absorbs 20-30x its weight

88
Q

name the epithelialisation dressing

hydrophilic foam centre, non-adhesive, non-occlusive;
promotes haemostasis, enhances epithelialisation, minimises proud flesh;
use only once necrotic material or bacterial load is removed and healthy granulation is established

89
Q

name the primary dressing

cotton cellophane, non-adhesive, non-occlusive;
simply a wound cover;
non-exudative healing wound

90
Q

name 3 indications for casting a wound

A
  1. high motion areas
  2. wound involving supporting structures, such as tendons and ligaments
  3. skin grafts to help stabilise the graft and reduce shear forces
91
Q

name the tissue

this is due to inefficient, protracted inflammatory response, as well as imbalance in collagen homeostasis;
delays wound contraction and inhibits epithelialisation

A

exuberant granulation tissue

92
Q

name 3 risk factors for exuberant granulation tissue

A
  1. high motion areas
  2. wounds with foreign material, chronic infection or chronic inflammation
  3. distal limb wounds
93
Q

start of IN02

what is the most common equine tumour?

A

sarcoids

(90% of all skin neoplasia)

94
Q

what is the histology of sarcoids?

A

fibroblastic type tissue

95
Q

what is the causative agent of sarcoids?

A

Bovine Papilloma Virus
(BPV1 and 2)

96
Q

name 4 horse breeeds with a predilection for sarcoids

A
  1. Apploosas
  2. quarter horses
  3. TB
  4. Arab
97
Q

how are sarcoids transmissed

A

BPV-1 DNA on flies

98
Q

name 5 common places for sarcoidosis lesions

A
  1. head
  2. groin
  3. prepuce
  4. axillae
  5. neck
99
Q

name 6 types of sarcoids

A
  1. occult
  2. verrucose
  3. nodular
  4. fibroblastic
  5. mixed
  6. malignant/malevolent
100
Q

name the type of sarcoid

frequently on head/groin;
hairless area, thickened skin, rough surface;
superficial dermis only;
very slow growing;
topical treatment with chemotherapy or immune modulation

101
Q

name the type of sarcoid

dry, scaling, warty;
hyperkeratosis of dermis;
broad base;
head/axilla

A

verrucous (warty)

102
Q

name the type of sarcoid

subcutaneous and more mobile;
can be shelled out;
occasonally erupt through skin;
Tx with resection +/- chemotherapy

A

type A nodular

103
Q

name the type of sarcoid

ulcerated fleshy appearance;
aggressive;
pedunculated or a broad base;
occur on underside of body;
more aggressive and most require early aggressive treatment - resection with chemo/cryo/immune modulation

A

fibroblastic

104
Q

name 3 conditions that give a better prognosis for sarcoids

A
  1. treated early
  2. combined therapy (Sx resection + chemotherapy)
  3. young horse (<6y)
105
Q

name 4 treatment options for sarcoids

A
  1. resection
  2. cryotherapy
  3. chemotherapy
  4. brachytherapy
106
Q

name 3 sarcoid conditions where you could choose to do nothing as Tx

A
  1. if no interference with tack
  2. not ulcerated
  3. very occasionally self-resolving
107
Q

what size surgical margins should be used for conventional resection of sarcoids

108
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

only for lesions with limited size and depth;
risk damage to surrounding structures;
scarring common (white hairs);
time consuming and tedious;
3x freeze thaw cycles

A

cryosurgery

109
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

very caustic;
applied topically on several occasions;
obtained on case by case basis from Derek Knottenbelt;
causes skin necrosis and scarring;
painful and strongly resented

A

sarcoid cream
(AW5-LUDES)

110
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

inhibits DNA synthesis;
applied topically daily for up to 3wks

A

5-fluorouracil

111
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

anti-viral agent;
68% regression (not repeatable result);
best in small occult/verrucose

112
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

immune response modifier;
60% response

113
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

cytotoxic and immune modulation - alkaloids;
66% regression;
better for smaller lesions

114
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

inject intra-lesionally on several occasions;
electrochemotherapy;
biodegradable beads

115
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

immune stimulation likely;
periocular sarcoids ONLY (>85% success);
2-3 injections 2-3wks apart;
can get severe anaphylactoc reaction on repeat Tx’s

A

BCG injection

116
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

gold standard;
free iridium wires;
low dose;
no longer available in this country

A

interstitial brachytherapy radiation

117
Q

name the sarcoid treatment

peri-ocular sarcoids;
96% success at 1y;
radioactive source driven from shielded safe in tumour via catheter;
5-10min

A

HDR brachytherapy at AHT
radiation

118
Q

name the skin tumour

80% of grey horses >15y have them;
10% of skin tumours in horses

119
Q

name 3 predeliction sites for melanomas

A
  1. parotid area
  2. around anus/vulva/under tail
  3. inner thighs/prepuce
120
Q

name the melanoma classification

dermal melanoma;
discrete, slow growing, only cause problems if distoring normal function e.g. around anus, in guttural

121
Q

name the skin neoplasia

black lesions - can be ulcerated;
solid or soft;
black on cut surface;
occasionally amelanotic

122
Q

name 4 treatment options for melanoma

A
  1. surgical excision
  2. cryotherapy
  3. chemotherapy
  4. vaccine
123
Q

name the melanoma treatment

curative for discrete dermal lesions;
de-bulking large lesions causing a physical obstruction (perineum/prepuce)

A

surgical excision

124
Q

name the melanoma classification

only if lesion limited size and depth;
may need to repeat;
combine with de-bulking surgery?

A

cryotherapy

125
Q

name the melanoma classification

intra-lesional cisplatin;
toxic to administrator, CARE when handling

A

chemotherapy

126
Q

name the melanoma treatment

recently approved for use in horse;
insufficient data to be sure/promising

127
Q

name 5 aetiologies for squamous cell carcinomas

A
  1. UV radiation
  2. papilloma virus
  3. chronic irritation
  4. previous wound
  5. smegma?
128
Q

name 3 common distributions of squamous cell carcinoma

A
  1. non-pigmented skin
  2. head/eye
  3. external genitalia
129
Q

what is the most common neoplasm of the penis and prepuce?

A

squamous cell carcinoma