Preventative and Therapeutic Strategies Flashcards

PT01-03

1
Q

start of PT01

would you give antimicrobials for a subsolar abscess?

A

no, drainage alone is usually curative

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2
Q

would you give antimicrobials to a horse with diarrhoea?

A

no

(not usually)

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3
Q

name 5 practical considerations when choosing an antimicrobial

A
  1. route of admin
  2. frequency of admin
  3. duration of therapy
  4. potential complications
  5. licensing
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4
Q

name a potential complication that can develop in horses with any antimicrobial

A

antimicrobial associated diarrhoea (AAD)

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5
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and time dependent;
++ for gram neg and pos, useless for anaerobic;
first line abx choice for horses, esp good for resp and urinary

A

Trimethoprim-sulphonamides (TMPS)

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6
Q

what is the main consideration/downside of TMPS

A

inactivated in purulent/necrotic tissue

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7
Q

what is the main complication of TMPS

A

fatal cardiac arrhythmias

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8
Q

name the only licensed oral antibiotic in horses

A

TMPS
(Equibactin, Trimadiazine)

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9
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, time dependent;
++ for gram pos, + for gram neg (NOT rods), ++ for most anaerobes;
injectable only;
often used in combo with Gentamicin for broad spectrum cover in hospital setting

A

penicillin (beta lactam)

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10
Q

name 3 possible complications of penicillin (beta lactam) in horses

A
  1. inadvertant IV injection (ataxia/seizure)
  2. hypersensitivity
  3. rapid IV admin (colic, loose faeces)
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11
Q

name the type of penicillin that should NOT be used in horses because it fails to reach MIC

A

Benthazine penicillin G
(Norocillin LA)

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12
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, concentration dependent;
+++ for gram neg;
injectable only;
commonly used in combo with penicillin for broad spectrum cover in hospital setting

A

Aminoglycosides
(Gentamicin)

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13
Q

what is the possible complication of aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) in horses

A

nephrotoxicity
(esp when dehydrated and used with NSAIDs)

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14
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, time dependent;
++ for gram neg, gram pos and anaerobes;
injectable only,
used for septic foals or following C&S;
NOT first-line usually, protected

A

cephalosporins
(Ceftiofur)

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15
Q

what is the possible complication of cephalosporins in horses

A

hypersensitivity
(urticaria, angioedema)

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16
Q

name the antimicrobial

bacteriostatic (cidal at high conc), both time and concentration dependent;
++ for gram neg and pos, + for anaerobes;
first line for intracellular oragnanisms: erlichial, rickettsial organisms, lawsonia, anaplasma

A

tetracyclines
(Oxytet, Doxy)

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17
Q

name 4 possible complications of tetracyclines in horses

A
  1. rapid IV injection (hypotension, collapse)
  2. oral ulceration
  3. nephrotoxicity (oxytet)
  4. incr risk of AAD
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18
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal, concentration dependent;
+++ for gram neg, + for gram pos, no anaerobe;
protected, no licensed products;
used for renal disease and some pyogenic infections or for organisms resistant to other abx

A

fluoroquinolones
(Enrofloxacin)

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19
Q

name 2 possible complications of fluoroquinolones in horses

A
  1. oral ulceration
  2. arthropathy (foals)
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20
Q

name the antimicrobial

bacteriostatic (cidal at high conc), both conc and time dependent;
+++ for gram pos, + for gram neg and anaerobes;
not licensed for use in horses, canNOT be used in adult horses;
used in combo with Rifampin for treatment of Rhodococcus equi

A

Macrolides
(Azithromycin)

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21
Q

what is the complication of Macrolides in horses

A

fatal colitis if used in adults

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22
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and conc dependent;
+++ for gram pos, ++ for anaerobes, + for gram neg;
must be used in combo with other abx due to rapid development of resistances;
not licensed

A

Rifampin/Rifampicin

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23
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and conc dependent;
+++ for anaerobes, not for gram pos or neg;
not licensed in horses and NOT for food producing animals;
often used in combo with other abx if anaerobic coverage required (peritonitis)

A

Metronidazole

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24
Q

what is the potential complication of metronidazole in horses

A

anorexia

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25
Q

name the antimicrobial

bactericidal and conc dependent;
+++ for gram pos and neg and anaerobes;
not licensed, not for use in food producing animals, can cause aplastic anaemia in humans;
most common first line ocular choice for conjunctivitis

A

Chloramphenicol

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26
Q

what age must every horse have a passport and microchip by?

A

by 6 months
or by 31 Dec

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27
Q

what is the most important part of a horse passport

A

section IX, for human consumption or not

(impacts drugs able to be used)

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28
Q

start of PT02 - name the type of vaccination

induces an antigen specific immune response: dead antigen, live antigen, DNA expressing protein antigen

A

active vaccination

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29
Q

name 6 active vaccinations for horses

A
  1. equine influenza
  2. tetanus
  3. equine herpes virus
  4. equine viral arteritis
  5. strangles
  6. lawsonia
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30
Q

name the type of vaccination

administer pre-formed antibodies;
ex: tetanus antitoxin, plasma transfusion

A

passive vaccination

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31
Q

name the 3 UK brands of Equine Influenza vaccines

A
  1. Prequenza
  2. Equip
  3. Proteq
32
Q

when should the 3 doses of equine influenza vaccines be given to horses

A
  1. from 5-6 months old
  2. 4-6 weeks
  3. 5 months
33
Q

what is the booster interval for equine influenza vaccines?

34
Q

name the tetanus vaccine for horses

two vaccines 1 month apart;
booster 2 years;
booster 6 weeks prior to parturition

A

tetanus toxoid

35
Q

name the tetanus vaccine for horses

passive immunisation;
foals and unvaccinated horses;
remote site to vaccination

A

tetanus antitoxin

36
Q

name the combined flu/tetanus vaccine for horses

A

Equilis Prequenza TE

37
Q

name the disease horses should be vaccinated against

type 1: respiratory, abortion and neurological;
type 4: respiratory and occasionally abortion;
general protection for respiratory disease/racehorses: initial course 4 weeks apart, booster q6months;
breeding mares: vaccinate at 5,7 & 9 months to reduce abortion risk

A

Equine Herpes Virus

38
Q

name the disease horses should be vaccinated against

initially 2 vaccines, 4wks apart;
booster every 2 months (3-6mo off-license);
reduces clinical signs/shedding;
serological ELISA test negative

A

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi

39
Q

name the disease horses should be vaccinated against

2 doses 3-6wks apart from age of 9mo;
establishment of negative status of stallions prior to vax is important;
mostly used in competitions stallions traveling to endemic areas

A

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)

40
Q

name the disease horses should be vaccinated against

live pig vaccine;
two doses (30mL) per rectum a month apart;
aim to complete a full course before risk period

41
Q

name the equine parasite

most pathogenic equine nematode;
encysted larvae in large colon over winter can lead to ‘en masse’ emergence late winter/early spring;
commonly affects horses <5years old and geriatric horses;
common cause of colic, diarrhoea, and weight loss

A

Cyathostomes

42
Q

name 3 available diagnostic tests for parasites in horses

A
  1. faecal worm egg count (FWEC)
  2. Cyathostome ELISA (blood)
  3. tapeworm ELISA (saliva or blood)
43
Q

name the anthelmintic regime for horses

encourages resistance;
not recommended now

A

interval dosing

44
Q

name the anthelmintic regime for horses

anthelmintic dosing at specific times of year
ex: when first turned out, mid-season, autumn

A

strategic dosing

45
Q

name the anthelmintic regime for horses

for adults only;
FWEC every 10-12wks during grazing season (spring to autumn),
no Tx if less than 250epg,
worm if more than 250 epg (ivermectin or pyrantel),
FECRT if more than 1000epg ;

treat for encysted redworm (moxidectin) +/- tapeworm (praziquantel) in december,
tapeworm saliva test 1-2 times yearly

A

targeted strategic

46
Q

name 5 aspects of pasture management that can help reduce worm burden in horses

A
  1. minimum twice weekly removal of faeces from pasture
  2. avoid high stocking density/overgrazing
  3. avoid horses with high FECs
  4. avoid presence of young horses
  5. co-graze/alternate with other species
47
Q

name 4 factors in anthelmentic resistance

A
  1. suboptimal dosing
  2. over-worming using interval programme
  3. use of only one drug class
  4. leaving no pasture refugia
48
Q

when should routine worming be started in foals?

A

from 4-6wks of age
(single dose fenbendazole OR pyrantel)

49
Q

name the wormer

macrocytic lactone;
commonly used to treat horses with high FWEC during summer;
resistance common in ascarids - avoid in youngstock

A

Ivermectin

50
Q

name the wormer

macrocytic lactone;
often used yearly as part of targeted strategic worming programme +/- praziquantel;
reserve for encysted cyathostomes where possible (i.e. NOT in summer, save for winter)

A

Moxidectin

51
Q

name the wormer

pyrimidine;
commonly used to treat horses with high FWEC during summer;
double dose for tapeworm

52
Q

name the wormer

benzimidazole;
5-day course licensed to treat encysted redworm (rarely used in adults now due to resistance);
useful in foals and for pinworm

A

Fenbendazole
(Panacur)

53
Q

name the wormer

Pyrazinosiquinoline;
tapeworm only;
no OTC products available, off-license vet product only

A

Praziquantel

54
Q

this is a disease that has appeared in a population for the first time, or that might have existed previously but is rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range

A

emerging disease

55
Q

name the notifiable disease

genus Orbivirus (morphologically similar to Bluetongue virus) - 9 serotypes;
biologically transmitted by Culicoides spp;
zebras shown to be a reservoir in South Africa;

A

Africal Horse Sickness
(African Horse Sickness virus)

56
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness

severe pyrexia 1-2d (40-41 C);
acute onset dyspnoea, coughing;
death within a few hours;
95% mortality;
fully susceptible animals (in UK)

A

per-acute / pulmonary form

57
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness

pyrexia 3-4d (39-41C);
subcutaneous oedema of head/neck;
resultant dyspnoea, dysphagia;
petechiation;
colic signs;
mortality 50%

A

acute / cardiac form

58
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness

combination of pulmonary and cardiac forms;
majority of cases;
70% mortality

A

mixed form

59
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness

donkeys, zebras, immune horses;
pyrexia (up to 40 C);
loss of appetite, mild dyspnoea, tachycardia, congested conjunctivae (but often subclinical)

A

horse sickness fever

60
Q

name 6 differential diagnoses for African Horse Sickness

A
  1. anthrax
  2. equine infectious anaemia
  3. equine viral arteritis
  4. equine encephalosis
  5. piroplasmosis
  6. purpura haemorrhagica
61
Q

name the notifiable disease

genus Flavivirus;
humans and horses are dead-end hosts;
spread by mosquitos;
travels to LNs then blood and causes brief low grade viraemia associated with transient fever;
other CS: ataxia, weakness, recumbency, muscle fasiculations, pyrexia, impaired vision;
dying birds often precede equine outbreaks

A

West Nile Fever
(West Nile virus)

62
Q

name 7 differential diagnoses for West NIle Fever

A
  1. EEE
  2. WEE
  3. rabies
  4. EPM
  5. EHV-1
  6. verminous meningoencephalomyelitis
  7. hepatoencephalopathy
63
Q

how to diagnose West Nile Fever

A

IgM ELISA on serology

64
Q

name 3 treatments for West Nile Fever

A
  1. hyperimmune plasma
  2. supportive veterinary care
  3. euthanasia
65
Q

name 4 risks to the UK for West Nile Fever

A
  1. migrating birds from WNV regions
  2. mosquito vectors within UK
  3. susceptible native birds
  4. ‘jet-setting’ mosquitoes
66
Q

name the notifiable disease

lentivirus;
mechanical transmission by infected blood or blood products & vertical transmission;
pyrexia, inappetance, weight loss, signs of depression, anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, dependent oedema;
can be fatal;
all become carriers

A

Equine Infectious Anaemia (EIA)
(“Swamp Fever”)

67
Q

name 2 ways to diagnose Equine Infectious Anaemia (“Swamp Fever”)

A
  1. Coggins test
  2. ELISA
68
Q

name the toxic plant

alkaloids (taxines) block Na+ movement and depress myocardium;
causes collapse and sudden death;
possibly preceded by tremors and weakness

69
Q

name the toxic plants

cardiac glycocide containing plants;
inhibit Na/K ATPase transport system (alter cardiac construction);
hyperkalaemia;
arrhythmias, sudden death

A
  1. Fox-glove (Digitalis purpurea)
  2. Oleander
70
Q

name the toxic plant

tannins and their metabolites;
colic, haemorrhagic diarrhoea, haemoglobinuria, tachypnoea, tachycardia, sudden death;
treatment with fluid therapy and supplement electrolytes

71
Q

name the toxic plants

chronic over-supplementation;
oxidative stress to RBCs causing Heinz body anaemia;
potential secondary haemoglobin-induced nephropathy;
fluid and electrolyte therapy

A

onion and garlic

72
Q

name the toxin

mycotoxins produced by Aspergillus spp;
form in carbohydrates (grains) in field and storage;
cause liver disease, colic and haemorrhagic faeces;
can be fatal

73
Q

this disease is caused by toxin produced by endophyte (fungus) Neotyphodium lolii;
clinical signs of diffuse vestibulocerebellar disease (hypometria, ataxia, wide-based stance, intention-tremor, muscle tremors);
remove from pasture, provide new hay source

A

perenial ryegrass staggers

74
Q

name 2 treatments for lead poisoning

A
  1. chelation therapy with calcium disodium EDTA
  2. Ca supplementation decr further GIT absorption
75
Q

name the toxin

1st generation (warfarin) and 2nd generation (brodifacoum);
competitively inhibit vitamin K (required for clotting factors II, VII, IX, X);
haemorrhagic diathesis;
treatment with vitamin K1

A

coumarin derivatives

76
Q

name the toxin

ionophore abx - transport ions across cell membranes, used as growth promoter and coccidiostat in cattle and poultry feed;
extremely toxic to horses, interferes with Na/K transport across cell membranes;
heart is main target;
signs vary from mild inappetance to sudden death (hypovolaemic shock)