Musculoskeletal Flashcards

MSK01-06; MSK08 (07 is in Miscellaneous); MSK09-11

1
Q

name the 7 steps of investigation of a lame horse

A
  1. Take History
  2. Examine at rest
  3. Palpate and manipulate limbs
  4. Observe horse moving
  5. Flexion tests
  6. Diagnostic nerve and/or joint blocks
  7. Diagnostic Imaging
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2
Q

this is a clinical sign of musculoskeletal pain

A

lameness

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3
Q

what is the best gait for determining which limb(s) is lame?

A

the trot

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4
Q

what is the main sign that is key to recognising forelimb lameness

A

head nod

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5
Q

what is the cardinal sign of hindlimb lameness?

A

asymmetric movement of the gluteal regions/tubercoxae

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6
Q

with unilateral forelimb lameness, what direction with the horse’s head nod with the SOUND limb and with the LAME leg?

A

DOWN with the SOUND limb
UP on the LAME limb

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7
Q

a horse with unilateral hindlimb lameness will show increased excursion of gluteal region on which side?

(sound or lame)

A

LAME

(the ‘hip hike’)

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8
Q

name the lameness grading scale

graded from 1-5;
an overarching grade when looking at the horse on various surfaces and gaits;
easier to utilise but does not allow for more subtle changes, particularly when performing diognostic anaesthesia

A

AAEP

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9
Q

name the lameness grading scale

graded from 1-10;
sliding scale that can be used for each trot up

A

Wyn-Jones

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10
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

Lameness not perceptible under any
circumstance

A

0

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11
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

lameness that is difficult to observe and is not consistently apparent, regardless of circumstances

A

1

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12
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

lameness that is difficult to observe at a walk or when trotting in a straight line, but is consistently apparent under certain circumstances

A

2

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13
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

lameness is consistently observable at a trot under ALL circumstances

A

3

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14
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

lameness is obvious at a walk

A

4

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15
Q

name the AAEP lameness grade

non-weightbearing

A

5

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16
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

sound

A

0

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17
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

minimal degree of lameness is detectable, which may be inconsistent

A

1

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18
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

a consistent, but mild, degree of lameness - detectable and consistent subtle head nod

A

2

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19
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

consistent and obvious head nod/pelvic asymmetry

A

3

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20
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

pronounced head nod / pelvic asymmetry

A

4

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21
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

marked head nod/pelvic asymmetry

A

5

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22
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

very marked head nod/pelvic asymmetry

A

6

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23
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

difficulty trotting;
only just able to place heels to ground

A

7

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24
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

minimal weight-bearing, heels not placed on the ground

A

8

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25
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

only able to touch the limb to the ground

A

9

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26
Q

name the Wyn-Jones lameness grade

unable to put limb on ground

A

10

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27
Q

what is the most commonly used local anaesthetics for perineural anaesthesia?
nerve blocks used for assessing lameness

A

Mepivicaine

(onset 5-10min; duration 2-3h)

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28
Q

name the nerve block for assessing lameness

1-2mL;
limb position: limb held up, digit in partial flexion;
landmark: axial to the neurovascular bundle at the level of the ungular cartilages (NOT in the mid-pastern region)

A

palmar/plantar digital nerve block

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29
Q

name the nerve block for assessing lameness

1-2mL;
forelimb position: limb held in partial flexion;
hindlimb position: limb weight bearing or held up;
landmarks: palmar to the medial and lateral neurovascular bundle at the level of the distal aspect of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

abaxial sesamoid nerve block

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30
Q

name 3 landmarks blocked by the abaxial sesamoid nerve block

A
  1. all of the hoof capsule
  2. proximal interphalangeal joint
  3. palmar pastern region
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31
Q

name 5 parts of the palmar pastern region blocked by the abaxial sesamoid nerve block

A
  1. sesamoidean ligaments
  2. DDFT
  3. SDFT
  4. distal part of tendon sheath
  5. part of metacarpophalangeal joint
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32
Q

name the nerve block to assess lameness

1-2mL;
forelimb position: limb held up in partial flexion;
hindlimb position: limb weight bearing or held up;
landmarks: distal to button of the splint, 1-2” proximal to DFTS, subcutaneously between suspensory ligament and flexor tendons, at level of the button of the splint, adjacent to the abaxial margin of the extensor tendon

A

low 4-6 pt nerve block

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33
Q

name 3 areas blocked by the low 4-6 pt nerve block

A
  1. everything the abaxial blocks
  2. DFTS
  3. fetlock region (incl. suspensory branches)
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34
Q

name 4 advantages of ultrasound for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. non-invasive
  2. readily available
  3. relatively cheap
  4. horse side
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35
Q

name 4 disadvantages of ultrasound for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. fast learning curve
  2. can be tricky to interpret
  3. anatomy knowledge essential
  4. false/artefacts
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36
Q

name 5 advantages of radiography for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. relatively cheap
  2. readily available
  3. easier to interpret than u/s
  4. useful for bone pathology
  5. horse side
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37
Q

name 3 disadvantages of radiography for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. health and safety implications
  2. radiographic changes often historical
  3. difficult to image proximal limbs/pelvis
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38
Q

name 4 advantages of scintigraphy for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. good for ‘active’ bone pathology
  2. occasionally useful for enthesopathy
  3. proximal limb/trunk injuries
  4. concerns over fractures
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39
Q

name 4 disadvantages of scintigraphy for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. referral hospital
  2. take 10-14d before a fracture is ‘active’
  3. expensive (1400-2000)
  4. requires min of 48h hospitalisation
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40
Q

name 3 advantages of MRI for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. soft tissue and bone
  2. particularly within the foot and pastern region
  3. standing
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41
Q

name 5 disadvantages of MRI for diagnosing lameness

A
  1. referral hospital
  2. expensive
  3. not good at cartilage
  4. susceptible to movement
  5. can’t go more proximal than carpus/tarsus
    .
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42
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

shortened cranial phase, with an abrupt catching of the forward swing, followed by a slapping of the foot onto the ground ;
occurs on EVERY step of the effected leg;
single leg usually;
scar tissue of semitendinosus muscle

A

Fibrotic Myopathy

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43
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

subluxation of scapulohumeral (shoulder) joint ;
muscle atrophy (supraspinatous mm and/or infraspinatous mm);
suprascapular nerver neuropraxia due to blunt trauma

A

Sweeney

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44
Q

what is the 4 treatments for Sweeney

A
  1. anti-inflammatories
  2. electrostimulation
  3. physiotherapy
  4. vit E and selenium supplements
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45
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

exaggerated upward flexion of a hindlimb or both hindlimbs;
every stride;
affected limb is brought up, underneath the horse, frequently to the ventral abdomen

A

Stringhalt - neuropathy

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46
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

draft breed and warmbloods;
early or mild disease can resemble stringhalt or upward fixation of the patella;
EPISODIC hyperflexion and abduction of the hindlimb (for several seconds), before placing foot on ground ;
exacerbated by picking up of the limb

A

Shiverer

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47
Q

what treatment can be tried for shiverer gait?

A

change to a high fat, low starch and low sugar diet

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48
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

decreased force of muscle contractions (biceps femoris and quadriceps);
episodically unable to flex the stife, and drag extended limb behind them on the toe;
unilateral > bilateral

A

upward fixation of the patella
(‘locking patella’)

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49
Q

how to treat upward fixation of the patella

A

exercise
(conditioning, work on hills)

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50
Q

what surgery can be done for upward fixation of the patella?

A

medial patella ligament desmoplasty / desmotomy

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51
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

often trauma related, resulting in hyperextension of the limb or laceration;
allows hock to extend while stifle is flexed;
characteristic dimple in the contour of the distal aspect of the crus

A

ruptured peroneus tertius

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52
Q

how long should a horse with ruptured peroneus tertius be box rested?

A

3 months

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53
Q

name the characteristic lameness gait

dropped elbow;
inability to lock out the carpus;
often associated with trauma, young horses turned out together

A

radial nerve paralysis

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54
Q

name 5 differentials for a ‘drop elbow’

A
  1. radial nerve paralysis
  2. olecranon fracture
  3. triceps myopathy
  4. shoulder fracture
  5. humerus fracture
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55
Q

name 5 treatments for radial nerve paralysis

A
  1. time
  2. anti-inflammatories
  3. electrostimulation
  4. physiotherapy
  5. vit E and selenium supplements
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56
Q

start of MSK02

name the 7 structures making up the Podotrochlear apparatus of the foot

A
  1. deep digital flexor tendon (DDFT)
  2. suspensory ligament of navicular bone
  3. collateral sesamoidean ligament
  4. distal interphalangeal joint
  5. distal sesmoidean impar ligament (DSIL)
  6. navicular bursa
  7. navicular bone
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57
Q

name the foot pathology

due to single episode of trauma or repetitive overloading (foot imbalance);
diagnose with inspection and hoof testers

A

bruising

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58
Q

name 3 parts of treatment for bruising of the foot

A
  1. rest
  2. NSAIDs
  3. solar pads or glue on shoes
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59
Q

name the foot pathology

a specific bruise at the angle of the bar;
more common medial than lateral;
usually due to presure from heel of shoe (either shod too short or shoe left on too long)

A

corns

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60
Q

name the foot pathology

very common cause of lameness;
acute, severe lamness or intermittent;
incr prevalence in winter/wet;
variable clinical signs;
any insult to sole can create ideal inflamm medium for bacterial growth

A

foot abscess

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61
Q

name the foot pathology

a nail is driven close to the sensitive laminae during shoeing, resulting in compression and pain

A

nail bind

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62
Q

name 3 clinical signs of nail bind

A
  1. lameness
  2. incr digital pulses and heat
  3. pain on hoof testers over location of nail
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63
Q

where do foot abscesses most commonly occur?

A

around the white line

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64
Q

what can be used to soften to hoof to help find the foot abscess for diagnossi

A

warm poultice

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65
Q

name the 3 parts of treatment for a foot abscess

A
  1. release infection & adequate drainage
  2. poultice until infection is controlled
  3. warm bath with povidone and magnesium salt (5-10min)
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66
Q

name the foot pathology

benign, hyperplasticity mass made of keratin;
originate from epidermal cells of the coronary band;
between sensitive laminae and hoof wall (stratum internum/medium;
usually dorsal half of foot

A

keratoma

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67
Q

name the foot pathology

inflammation of the distal phalanx;
demineralisation of the solar margin

A

pedal osteitis

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68
Q

name 5 parts of treatment for aseptic or concussive pedal osteitis

A
  1. corrective farriery (with shoes)
  2. improve solar palmar angle
  3. correct mediolateral imbalance
  4. avoid work on hard ground
  5. may require 6mo paddock rest
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69
Q

name the foot pathology

recurring foot abscess in the same site;
+ve hoof testers;
+ve PDNB/ABNB;
x-ray or MRI in combo with history to diagnose

A

septic pedal osteitis

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70
Q

name the 3 parts of treatment for septic pedial osteitis

A
  1. surgical debridement
  2. abx + NSAIDs
  3. hospital plate
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71
Q

name the foot pathology

infection of the ungular/collateral cartilages;
result of a hoof wall crack, puncture wound, or chronic abscess;
chronic abscessation, with intermittent purulent discharge above the coronary band

A

quittor

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72
Q

name the 2 parts of treatment of quittor

A
  1. surgical excision of infected cartilage and surrounding tissue
  2. opening of ventral drainage portal
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73
Q

name the foot pathology

pododermatitis of the frog;
bacterial: Fusobacterium necrophorum;
foul smelling, black discharge and degeneration of the frog

A

thrush

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74
Q

name 3 predispositions to thrush

A
  1. damp environment and poor stable sanitation
  2. poor hoof health/care
  3. sheared heels
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75
Q

name 5 parts of treatment for thrush

A
  1. debride frog
  2. move to dry clean environment
  3. daily hoof cleaning
  4. foot baths
  5. regular exercise
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76
Q

name the foot pathology

hypertrophic, moist dermatitis of the frog and bulbs of the heel;
gram neg bacterial infection (F. necrophorum) and chronic pododermatitis;
results in abnormal keratin production

A

canker

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77
Q

name the 3 parts of treatment for canker

A
  1. repeat radical debridement
  2. topical abx (metronidazole and chloramphenicol)
  3. caustic agents

(difficult!)

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78
Q

start of MSK03

name the foot pathology:
combo of bacteria and fungi produce separation of the white line;
occasionally will cause lameness, but often an incidental finding during trimming;
white line often has a grey/black chalky appearance

A

seedy toe/white line disease

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79
Q

which part of the sole does seedy toe/white line disease start at?

A

stratum medium and junction of stratum internum

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80
Q

name the foot pathology

vertical cracks in hoof wall from coronary distally

A

sand cracks

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81
Q

name the foot pathology

vertical cracks in hoof wall from ground proximally

A

grass cracks

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82
Q

name 5 causes of hoof wall cracks

A
  1. chronic foot imbalance
  2. lack of trimming
  3. trauma
  4. nutrition
  5. poor hoof quality
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83
Q

which radiographic view allows you to see the upright navicular bone

A

dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique (upright navicular)

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84
Q

which radiographic view allows you to see the navicular skyline

A

palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique

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85
Q

name the 3 types of treatment options for navicular disease

A
  1. farriery
  2. surgical
  3. medical
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86
Q

name the 3 ways to treat navicular disease with farriery

A
  1. shorten toe
  2. aid break-over
  3. elevate heels
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87
Q

name the 4 medical treatments for navicular disease

A
  1. intra-thecal anti-inflammatories
  2. intra-articular (DIPj)
  3. Biphosphates
  4. NSAIDs
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88
Q

name 3 intra-thecal anti-inflammatories that can be used to treat navicular disease

A
  1. corticosteroids
  2. hyaluronic acid
  3. polyacrylamide gel
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89
Q

name 2 surgical treatments for navicular disease

A
  1. buroscopy
  2. palmar digital neurectomy
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90
Q

name the foot pathology

mineralisation of the ungular cartilages - normal part of the ageing process;
often an incidental finding ;
BUT extensive ossification has been associated with lameness

A

sidebone

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91
Q

name the 3 characteristics of remedial farriery to treat fracture of ungular cartilage

A
  1. bar shoe with extra clips
  2. wide bar on fractured side
  3. groove hoof wall, proximal to fracture site
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92
Q

how long should a horse with fractured ungular cartilage be on box rest?

A

3-4mo

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93
Q
A
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94
Q

name 2 treatments for distal phalanx fractures

A
  1. external coaptation
  2. internal fixation
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95
Q

name the type of distal phalanx fracture

abaxial fracture WITHOUT joint involvement

A

type 1

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96
Q

name the type of distal phalanx fracture

axial, periaxial and abaxial fractures INVOLVING the joint

A

type 2 & 3

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97
Q

name 2 parts of treatment of type 1 distal phalanx fracture

A
  1. cast or bar rim shoe for 2mo
  2. box rest 2-4mo
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98
Q

name the 2 parts of treatment of type 2 & 3 distal phalanx fractures

A
  1. surgery (lag screw)
  2. box rest 2mo, then hand walking 2mo
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99
Q

name the type of distal phalanx fracture

extensor process fragments

A

type 4

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100
Q

name the type of distal phalanx fracture

multifragment fractures

A

type 5

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101
Q

name the type of distal phalanx fracture

solar margin fractures

A

type 6

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102
Q

name the treatment for type 4 distal phalanx fractures

A

remove small fragments,
lag screw large fragments

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103
Q

name the conservative treatment for type 5 distal phalanx fractures

A

rim shoe / cast

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104
Q

name the surgical treatment for type 5 distal phalanx fractures

A

articular joint reconstruction

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105
Q

name the treatment for type 6 distal phalanx fractures

A

usually heal by bony union

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106
Q

name the 3 synovial structures present in the middle of the foot that can be damaged by solar penetration

A
  1. DFTS
  2. NB
  3. DIPj
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107
Q

what is the treatment for coronary band laceration

A

debridement and primary closure

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108
Q

start of MSK05

which part of the long bone is ossified at birth and which part remains partly cartilaginous?

A

diaphysis ossified at birth;
epiphysis remain partly cartilaginous

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109
Q

name th 4 steps of endochondral ossification

A
  1. cartilage proliferation and hypertrophy
  2. calcification of cartilage
  3. deposition of primary bone
  4. remodelling into bony trabeculae
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110
Q

this is a focal disturbance in the process of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis (OC)

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111
Q

cartilage superficial to an osteochondrosis lesion can fracture, giving rise to fragments in joints known as these

A

osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)

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112
Q

name the 3 osteochondrosis stages

A
  1. Osteochondrosis latens
  2. osteochondrosis manifesta
  3. osteochondrosis dissecans
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113
Q

name the osteochondrosis stage

characterised by a focal area of necrotic cartilage (chondronecrosis), within the epiphyseal cartilage (visible histologically)

A

osteochondrosis latens

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114
Q

name the osteochondrosis stage

necrotic cartilage results in focal failure of endochondral ossification - visible macroscopically (similar to a bone cyst)

A

osteochondrosis manifesta

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115
Q

name the osteochondrosis stage

fissure originating from the necrotic cartilage, extends to the articular cartilage, creating a chondral or osteochondral flap;
likely secondary to trauma

A

osteochondrosis dissecans

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116
Q

name 4 things that cause clinical OC (osteochondrosis) progression

A
  1. biomechanical trauma
  2. exercise
  3. nutrition, hormonal factors and growth rate
  4. genetics
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117
Q

which mineral is important in the repair of lesions?
collagen and elastin crosslinks

A

copper

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118
Q

what joint in warmbloods is the most common site for osteochondrosis (OC)

A

tarsocrural

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119
Q

what joint in thoroughbreds is most common site for osteochondrosis (OC)

A

femoropatella

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120
Q

which pouch has the most obvious soft, fluctuant swelling in tarsocrural osteochondrosis (OC)

A

dorsomedial pouch

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121
Q

name 3 signs of stifle osteochondrosis (OC) appreciated on clinical exam

A
  1. effusion of femoropatellar joint and medial femorotibial joint
  2. soft fluctuant swelling cranial to medial collateral ligament of femorotibial joint
  3. soft fluctuant swelling cranial to patella
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122
Q

name 3 parts of the fetlock that can be affected by osteochondrosis (OC)

A
  1. dorsal end of sagittal ridge
  2. dorsoproximal first phalanx
  3. plantar osteochondral fragments (POF)
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123
Q

what is the most common part of the fetlock to be affected by osteochondrosis (OC)

A

dorsoproximal first phalanx

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124
Q

name 3 parts of the stifle that are affected by osteochondrosis (OC)

A
  1. lateral trochlear ridge
  2. medial femoral condyle subchondral bone cysts
  3. distal apex of patella
125
Q

name 4 parts of the tarsus affected by osteochondrosis (OC)

A
  1. distal intermediate ridge of tibia (DIRT)
  2. lateral trochlear ridge of talus (LTR)
  3. medial malleolus of tibia (MM)
  4. medial trochlear ridge of talus (rare!)
126
Q

what is the treatment of choice for most cases of OCD (osteochondrosis dissecans)

A

arthroscopy

127
Q

what is the most common location in the stifle for a subchondral bone cyst

A

medial femoral condyle

128
Q

name 4 treatment options for stifle subchondral bone cysts (SBC)

A
  1. arthroscopic debridement
  2. intra-cyst injection (corticosteroids, mesenchymal stem cells)
  3. bone graft
  4. transcortical screw
129
Q

start of MSK04

name the type of dermis (corium):
vascular, dense connective tissue;
extends elongated distally directed papillae

A

coronary corium

130
Q

name the type of dermis (corium):

series of laminae that interdigitate with epidermal laminae

A

laminar corium

131
Q

name the type of dermis (corium):

shorter papillae

A

perioplic, solar, cuneate corium

132
Q

this part of the foot provides sensation, nourishment and attachment for overlying epidermis

A

dermis (corium)

133
Q

name the type of epidermis of the foot

single layer proliferating columnar keratinocytes;
lie on and between long dermal papillae;
proliferation forces cells distal intol stratum medium

A

stratum basale

134
Q

name the 3 types of epidermis that make up the wall

A
  1. stratum internum
  2. stratum medium
  3. stratum externum
135
Q

name the part of the hoof wall

epidermal laminae interleave with dermal laminae (550-600);
secondary laminae (150-200);
0.8m^2

A

stratum internum

136
Q

name the part of the hoof wall

horn tubules and intertubular horn;
provides strength in every direction

A

stratum medium

137
Q

name the part of the hoof wall

thin from perioplic region

A

stratum externum

138
Q

name the 3 valveless venous plexus - digital veins of the foot

A
  1. dorsal
  2. palmar/plantar
  3. coronary
139
Q

name 4 causes of failure of dermal/epidermal junction in the foot

A
  1. carb overload
  2. septicaemia
  3. equine metabolic syndrome/insulin resistance
  4. mechanical overload
140
Q

name the theory of laminitis

older;
endotoxin causes peripheral vasoconstriction;
decr laminar perfusion and necrosis

141
Q

name the theory of laminitis

newer and now more accepted;
proteolytic enzymes damage collagen allowing laminar separation

A

inflammatory

142
Q

name 4 clinical signs of laminitis

A
  1. incr digital pulses
  2. if ‘sinker’ then there is a palpable dip at dorsal coronary band
  3. rotation results in pedal bone tip pressing on sole dorsal to frog = convex
  4. separation of white line
143
Q

name the radiographic evidence of laminitis being assessed

angle between dorsal surface hoof wall and dorsal surface P3;
sole thickness at P3 tip

144
Q

name the radiographic evidence of laminitis being assessed

founder distance (extensor process P3 to top of coronary band);
sole thickness

145
Q

name 5 ways to reduce stress on laminae for treatment of acute laminitis

A
  1. remove shoes
  2. deep supportive bed
  3. cryotherapy
  4. small box confinement
  5. even weight bearing/heel support
    .
146
Q

name 5 pain relief options for acute laminitis treatment

A
  1. non-steroidals
  2. morphine IM q4h
  3. acepromazine IM + morphine
  4. lignocaine + morphine as CRI + acepromazine IM
  5. ketamine CRI
    .
147
Q

name 3 advantages of glue on shoes for laminitis

A
  1. atraumatic
  2. mouldable
  3. good for re-intro of exercise
148
Q

name 2 disadvantages of glue on shoes for laminitis

A
  1. poor grip
  2. pressure!!
149
Q

name 3 goals of trimming & shoeing as treatment of chronic laminitis

A
  1. hoof capsule realigned to P3
  2. frog support
  3. reduce breakover
150
Q

start of MSK06

which angular limb deformity (ALD) is when the leg deviates inwards

151
Q

which angular limb deformity (ALD) is when the leg deviates outwards

152
Q

which angular limb deformity (ALD) is more of a problem?

153
Q

name 3 congenital causes of angular limb deformities (ALD)

A
  1. incomplete cuboidal bone ossification
  2. laxity of the periarticular stuctures ‘windswept’
  3. aberrant intrauterine ossification
154
Q

name 7 developmental factors for acquired angular limb deformities (ALD)

A
  1. genetic predisposition
  2. dietary imbalances
  3. trauma
  4. exercise
  5. physeal dysplasia
  6. physeal overload
  7. heavy birth rate
155
Q

name the rapid growth phase (mo) for the growth plate

proximal P1

156
Q

name the rapid growth phase (mo) for the growth plate

distal MC3/MT3

157
Q

name the rapid growth phase (mo) for the growth plate

distal radius

158
Q

name the rapid growth phase (mo) for the growth plate

distal tibia

159
Q

name the time of radiographic physis closure (mo) for the growth plate

proximal P1

160
Q

name the time of radiographic physis closure (mo) for the growth plate

distal MC3/MT3

161
Q

name the time of radiographic physis closure (mo) for the growth plate

distal radius

162
Q

name the time of radiographic physis closure (mo) for the growth plate

distal tibia

163
Q

up to what degree of angular limb deviation is considered normal

A

up to 4 degrees

164
Q

which side grows FASTER in an angular limb deformity?
the concave or the convex side?

A

concave side grows faster

(convex side grows slower)

165
Q

at what points should the fetlock be assessed for angular limb deformities (ALD)

A

at birth/1d old
and again at 30d

(or q1-2wks)

166
Q

when must an angular limb deformity (ALD) of the fetlock be resolved by?

A

by 12wks of age

(3mo)

167
Q

at what age are angular limb deformities (ALD) of the fetlock usually surgically treated at?

A

4-6wks of age

168
Q

at what age should you consider surgery for angular limb deformities (ALD) of the carpus

169
Q

name the 2 steps of hoof manipulation to correct valgus (toe out)

A
  1. outside half of hoof wall is rasped (at the sole)
  2. extension placed medial
170
Q

name the 2 steps of hoof manipulation to correct varus (toe in)

A
  1. inside half of hood wall is rasped (at the sole)
  2. extension placed lateral
171
Q

name 3 risks of hoof manipulation to correct valgus and varus angular limb deformities (ALD)

A
  1. risk of P3 fractures
  2. joint stress (distal limb)
  3. exothermic reaction (aseptic pedal osteitis, foot abscess)
172
Q

name the 2 surgical options for correction of angular limb deformities (ALD)

A
  1. growth acceleration
  2. growth retardation
173
Q

what is the surgical option for growth acceleration to correct angular limb deformities (ALD)

A

hemicircumferential periosteal elevations

(aka periosteal strip)

174
Q

what is the surgical option for growth retardation to correct angular limb deformities (ALD)

A

transphyseal bridge

(transphyseal screw OR screw and wires)

175
Q

name 4 angular limb deformities (ALD) that cause problems

A
  1. offset knees, ‘bench knees’
  2. fetlock varus
  3. long pasterns
  4. mild carpal valgus
176
Q

what is meant by the angular limb deformity (ALD) called offset knees or ‘bench knees’

A

carpal valgus & fetlock varus

177
Q

this is a limb deformity in the saggital plane

A

flexural limb deformity

178
Q

name the flexural limb deformity

flaccidity of flexor muscles;
commonly seen in newborns or premature foals;
often self-corrects within a few weeks

A

digital hyperextension

179
Q

name the flexural limb deformity

congenital;
limb in permanent flexion;
can be a cause of dystocia;
physically unable to manipulate them straight

A

contracture

180
Q

name 2 aetiologies for congenital contracture

(flexural limb deformity)

A
  1. uterine malposition
  2. toxic/viral insult in utero
181
Q

name 4 treatments for congenital contracture (flexural limb deformity)

(early aggressive treatment required!)

A
  1. IV oxytet (3g SID for 3d)
  2. corrective farriery
  3. bandaging/splints/casts
  4. analgesia (metacam/fentanyl)
182
Q

name 3 aetiologies for acquired flexural limb deformities

A
  1. rapid growth
  2. nutrition
  3. pain (reduced weight bearing)
183
Q

name 4 clinical signs of acquired flexural limb deformities

A
  1. 6wks-6mo old
  2. boxy, upright foot
  3. broken forwards HPA
  4. raised heel, walking on toe
184
Q

name the type of DIPj acquired flexural limb deformity

dorsal hoof wall does not pass beyond vertical

A

type 1 (A)

185
Q

name the type of DIPj acquired flexural limb deformity

dorsal hoof wall passes beyond vertical

A

type 2 (B)

186
Q

name 4 conservative treatments for acquired DIPj flexural limb deformity

A
  1. dietary changes
  2. NSAIDs
  3. exercise
  4. hoof trimming, bandaging +/- toe extension
187
Q

name 2 surgical treatments for acquired DIPj flexural limb deformity

A
  1. desmotomy of ALDDFT (accessory ligament of deep digital flexor tendon)
  2. DDF tenotomy

(salvage procedures)

188
Q

name the stage of acquired MCPj flexural limb deformity

straight fetlock, that is palmar to the foot

189
Q

name the stage of acquired MCPj flexural limb deformity

fetlock is dorsal to the foot, but when weight bearing, fetlock becomes palmar to foot

190
Q

name the stage of acquired MCPj flexural limb deformity

fetlock is always dorsal to the foot

191
Q

name 3 treatments for acquired MCPj flexural limb deformities

A
  1. remedial farriery
  2. analgesia
  3. surgery
192
Q

name the 2 surgical options for correction of acquired MCPj flexural limb deformity

A
  1. ALDDFT tenotomy
  2. ALSDFT tenotomy
193
Q

this is inflammtion and disruption of the physis

194
Q

name 3 aetiologies for physitis

A
  1. overload
  2. over exercise
  3. rapid growth
195
Q

name 5 clinical signs of physitis

A
  1. 4-8mo old
  2. pain on palpation
  3. hard swelling over physis
  4. distal radius, tibia, MC3 and MT3
  5. variable lameness
196
Q

name 2 signs of physitis seen on radiographs

A
  1. metaphyseal flaring
  2. hourglass shape to bone
197
Q

name the 3 treatments for physitis

A
  1. reduction in BW or growth rate
  2. box rest
  3. NSAIDs 2-4wks at low doses
198
Q

name the grade of cuboidal bone abnormality

some cuboidal bones of the carpus and tarsus have no evidence of ossification

199
Q

name the grade of cuboidal bone abnormality

all cuboidal bones have some form of ossification

200
Q

name the grade of cuboidal bone abnormality

all cuboidal bones (carpus and tarsus) are ossified, but small and rounded edges are present;
joint spaces are wide and lateral styloid process and malleoli are distinctly visible;
prox physes MC3/MT3 are closed

201
Q

name the grade of cuboidal bone abnormality

all criteria of grade 3 are met;
cuboidal bones are shaped like corresponding adult bones and joint spaces have expected width

202
Q

what is the treatment for cuboidal bone abnormalities

A
  1. box rest
  2. repeat radiographs q2wks
203
Q

start of MSK08

name 4 aetiologies for synovial sepsis in the adult horse

A
  1. traumatic
  2. iatrogenic (joint medication)
  3. extension from overlying/adjacent structure
  4. very rarely haematogenous
204
Q

name 7 clinical signs of synovial sepsis in adult horse

A
  1. trauma/wound overlying synovial structure
  2. visible penetration
  3. severe lameness
  4. heat/swelling
  5. rectal temp usually normal
  6. history of joint medication
  7. history of cellulitis
205
Q

name 4 ways to diagnose synovial sepsis

A
  1. obvious clinical findings (palpate and u/s)
  2. synovial fluid analysis
  3. joint distension
  4. advanced imaging
206
Q

what tube should be used for cytology of synovial fluid

207
Q

what tube should be used for bacteriology of synovial fluid

208
Q

name 4 things to assess in synovial fluid

A
  1. appearance
  2. total WCC, % neutrophils
  3. total protein
  4. lactate/serum amyloid A
209
Q

what volume should be used for joint distension/pressure test in fetlock and carpus joints?

210
Q

what volume should be used for joint distension/pressure test in tarsocrural joint

211
Q

name the 4 parts of treatment for synovial sepsis

A
  1. remove source of infection
  2. lavage joint
  3. antimicrobials
  4. anti-inflammatories
212
Q

name 4 uses of arthroscopy for treating synovial sepsis

A
  1. remove foreign material
  2. remove pannus
  3. debride tissue
  4. assess damage and prognosticate
213
Q

name 4 advantages of needle lavage over arthroscopy for treating synovial sepsis

A
  1. cheap and easy
  2. good for acute infection in foals
  3. first litre most important
  4. multiple widely spaced needles
214
Q

name 3 disadvantages of needle lavage over arthroscopy for treatment of synovial sepsis

A
  1. no visualisation
  2. no pannus removal
  3. limited FB removal
215
Q

name the 3 steps of intra-venous regional perfusion (IVRP)

A
  1. tourniquet proximal to joint
  2. catheter/needle in peripheral vein
  3. large volume
216
Q

what is the highest risk factor for foals developing septic arthritis and osteomyelitis

A

failure of passive transfer

217
Q

name the type of septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in foals

synovial membrane and fluids

218
Q

name the type of septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in foals

articular epiphyseal complex

219
Q

name the type of septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in foals

primary infection of physis

220
Q

name 4 treatments for synovial sepsis in foals

A
  1. abx
  2. needle joint lavage if no evidence of osseous involvement
  3. anti-inflammatory meds
  4. treat concurrent disease
221
Q

what is the characeristic radiological appearance of sequestrum formation

A

sequestrum surrounded by radiolucent involucrum

222
Q

start of MSK09

name the 3 general causes of fractures in horses

A
  1. acute trauma
  2. pathologic fracture
  3. repetitive stress over short intervals of time
223
Q

what is the most common general cause of fractures in horses

A

repetitive stress over short intervals of time

224
Q

name 6 clinical signs of limb fracture

A
  1. acute, severe lameness
  2. local heat, pain on palpation, swelling
  3. abnormal angulation or mobility of limb
  4. limb shortening
  5. crepitus
  6. loss of function
225
Q

list 7 differential diagnoses for a patient presenting with acute, severe lameness

A
  1. subsolar abscess
  2. fracture
  3. septic arthritis, tenosynovitis or bursitis
  4. tendon or ligament injury
  5. cellulitis or lymphangitis
  6. laminitis
  7. rhabdomyolysis
226
Q

what 4 limb fractures would have a hopeless prognosis in majority of cases

A

proximal humerus, radius, tibia and femur
in adult horses (>300kg)

227
Q

what range can the cost for repair of fractures cost?

A

2,000-10,000

(can exceed 15,000)

228
Q

name 5 criteria for humane destruction (euthanasia) in a fracture case

A
  1. large open fractures
  2. significant comminution
  3. proximal long bone fracture
  4. recumbency
  5. owner request (finances, etc)
229
Q

what should be used as sedation for an adult horse with a fracture

A

alpha-2 and opiod
xylazine or detomodone +/- butorphanol or morphine

230
Q

what should be used as sedation for a young foal with a fracture

231
Q

what should be used as sedation for an older foal with a fracture

A

butorphanol

232
Q

name 3 reasons accurate stable reduction is required ASAP with a fracture, before moving the patient, attempting radiography or transporting the patient

A
  1. provides pain relief
  2. allows horse to regain control of limb
  3. minimises further soft tossue injury or further injury to fractured bone
233
Q

name the 3 steps of fracture stabilisation

A
  1. address wounds
  2. apply bandage
  3. place splint(s) based on biomechanical divisions or type of fracture present
234
Q

name the type of bandage for stabilisation of fracture

1x diameter on distal limb
3x diameter for higher fractures

A

Robert Jones

235
Q

name the type of bandage for stabilisation of fracture

3 layers of cotton wool
better stabilisation

A

modified Robert Jones + splint

236
Q

name 5 options for splinting material

A
  1. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) pipe splints
  2. pine board
  3. aluminium or flat steel
  4. bandage cast
  5. commercial splints
237
Q

name 4 splinting options for a level 1 P1 sagittal/parasaggital fracture

A
  1. Robert Jones bandage
  2. modified Robert Jones and lateral and medial splints from ground to proximal metacarpus/tarsus
  3. bandage cast
  4. compression boot
238
Q

name 2 splinting options for a level 1 P1 frontal fracture

A
  1. bandage cast
  2. compression boot
239
Q

name the type of splinting for level 1 palmar (forelimb) process fractures of P1 and P2

A

apply splint dorsal from ground to proximal metacarpus with fetlock in flexion

(use of Kimzey leg saver)

240
Q

name the type of splinting for level 1 plantar (hindlimb) process fractures of P1 and P2

A

apply splint on plantar aspect of limb from ground to top of calcaneus with fetlock in flexion

(use of Kimzey leg saver)

241
Q

name 3 splint options for a level 2 lateral or medial condylar fracture

A
  1. splinted Robert Jones bandage (lateral and medial splints)
  2. bandage cast
  3. compression boot
242
Q

name the splinting method for level 2 sesamoid bone fractures of the forelimb

A

apply splint dorsal from ground to proximal metacarpus with fetlock in flexion

(use of kimzey leg saver)

243
Q

name the splinting method for level 2 sesamoid bone fractures of the hindlimb

A

apply splint on plantar aspect of limb from ground to top of calcaneus with fetlock in flexion

(use of Kimzey leg saver)

244
Q

where should the splint be placed for level 2 fractures of the forelimb to prevent abduction of the limb

A
  1. from ground to elbow
  2. on caudal and lateral aspect of limb
245
Q

where should the splint be placed for level 2 fractures of the hindlimb to prevent abduction of the limb

A
  1. from ground to top of tuber calcis
  2. on caudal and lateral aspect of limb
246
Q

what 2 splints should be placed for a level three fracture of the forelimb to prevent abduction of limb

A
  1. caudal - elbow to ground
  2. lateral - ground to withers
247
Q

what splint should be placed for a level three fracture of the hindlimb to prevent abduction of limb

A

one splint lateral to level of tuber coxae

248
Q

fractures of what 4 bones are considered level 4 fractures

A
  1. humerus
  2. scapula
  3. femur
  4. pelvis
249
Q

can you place a splint for a level 4 fracture?

250
Q

name 3 situations where splinting is NOT required for transport

A
  1. fractures of humerus, scapula, femur and pelvis (level 4)
  2. pedal bone fractures
  3. fractures where limb stability is preserved
251
Q

why should nerve blocks NOT be performed prior to radiographs of a fracture

A

to encourage weight-bearing

252
Q

name the type of fracture

courses completely through the bones and divides bone into 2 or more separate fragments

A

complete fracture

253
Q

name the type of fracture

does not course completely through the bone nor divide bone into 2 or more separate fragments

A

incomplete fracture

254
Q

name the type of fracture

occur when fracture fragments are separated, angulated, or overriding and no longer in anatomic apposition

A

displaced fractures

255
Q

name the type of fracture

fracture remains in anatomic apposition

A

non-displaced fracture

256
Q

name the type of fracture

skin has a wound over fracture that introduces contamination and increases risk for infection

A

open fractures

257
Q

name the type of fracture

skin overlying fractured bone is intact and not penetrated by injury

A

closed fractures

258
Q

name the type of fracture

course through the articular surface of a bone

A

articular fractures

259
Q

name the type of fracture

do not extend through an articular surface

A

non-articular fractures

260
Q

name the type of fracture

involve the end of a long bone

A

epiphyseal fracture

261
Q

name the type of fracture

involve an open physis

A

physeal fracture

262
Q

name the type of fracture

involve a region of bone adjacent to growth plate on the side closer to the centre of the long bone

A

metaphyseal fracture

263
Q

name the type of fracture

involve the central region of a long bone

A

diaphyseal fracture

264
Q

name the type of fracture

course approximately perpendicular to the longitudinal access of the bone

A

transverse fractures

265
Q

name the type of fracture

course along a flat plane but obliquely through the bone

A

oblique fractures

266
Q

name the type of fracture

have a spiral fracture component through a bone

A

spiral fractures

267
Q

name the type of fracture

have transverse and oblique components

A

butterfly fractures

268
Q

name the type of fracture

divide bone into only 2 fragments

A

simple fracture

269
Q

name the type of fracture

divide bone into 2 major fragments with small bone fragments, usually along the major fracture line

A

mildly comminuted fractures

270
Q

name the type of fracture

divide bone into 3 or more major fragments

A

comminuted fractures

271
Q

name 2 types of stress fractures

A
  1. kick injuries of distal medial radius
  2. tibial stress fractures or pelvic fractures in high-level performance horses
272
Q

what is the treatment for stress fractures

A

min 6wks box rest depending on severity

273
Q

name 5 clinical signs of pelvic fractures

A
  1. overt lameness
  2. external swelling or palpable symmetry
  3. pain with palpation
  4. possible haemorrhagic shock if artery involved
  5. muscle atrophy in chronic cases
274
Q

what is the typical treatment for pelvic fractures

A

conservative with stall rest

275
Q

how can displaced iliac shaft fractures in foals be repaired

A

internal fixation

276
Q

how can displaced tuber coxae fractures that are draining be treated?

A

surgically by removing fracture fragment(s)

277
Q

start of MSK10

name 2 proteoglycans found in tendons

A
  1. lecticans
  2. SLRPs
278
Q

name the component of tendons

fibril forming;
tensile strength

A

type 1 collagen

279
Q

name 5 risk factors for tendinopathy

A
  1. speed
  2. surface
  3. weight of horse
  4. fatigue
  5. shoeing
280
Q

name 3 theories for how fibril damage occurs

A
  1. overstimulation
  2. understimulation
  3. aberrant differentiation of resident progenitor cells
281
Q

name the cause of fibril damage/tendinopathy

repetitive subthreshold mechanical strain;
hyperthermia;
ischaemia - reperfusion injury;
imbalance between synthesis and degradation;
ECM and cellular damage

A

overstimulation

282
Q

name the cause of fibril damage/tendinopathy

loss of local homeostatic strain results in activation of catabolic cascade;
collagenase upregulated in stress deprived tendons leading to breakdown of the extracellular matrix

A

understimulation

283
Q

name the tendon injury

acute onset lameness;
heat, soft painful swelling;
classically in the mid-cannon area;
lameness often resolved quickly for non-severe injuries BUT tendon remains weak

A

superficial digital flexor (SDFT) injury

284
Q

how long after injury should u/s be used to confirm extent of fibre damage in superficial digital flexor injuries

285
Q

what is the aim of superficial digital flexor tendinopathy treatment

A

promote longitudinal organisation of collagen fibrils

286
Q

name 4 treatments available for tendinopathy of superficial digital flexor tendon

A
  1. controlled exercise alone
  2. stem cells
  3. platelet rich plasma (PRP)
  4. desmotomy ALSDFT
287
Q

how long should a horse with superficial digital flexor tendinopathy be on box rest and 30min in hand walking

288
Q

how long after superficial digital flexor injury before a horse should resume full race/competition training

289
Q

name 5 locations for deep digital flexor tendinopathy

A
  1. within the foot
  2. within digital flexor tendon sheath
  3. assoc with osteochondroma in carpal canal
  4. assoc with ALDDFT desmitis
  5. assoc with injury to sustentaculum tali
290
Q

how to treat deep digital flexor tendinopathy within the digital flexor tendon sheath

A

tenoscopic debridement

291
Q

what is the most useful way to diagnose deep digital flexor tendinopathy within the foot

A

MRI

(sagittal split, core lesions, dorsal fibrillation)

292
Q

name 5 treatments for deep digital flexor tendinopathy within the foot

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. box rest and controlled exercise
  3. farriery (elevated heels)
  4. bursal medication
  5. bursoscopy
293
Q

this extends from the distal 1/3 metacarpus to the T ligament

A

digital flexor tendon sheath (DFTS)

294
Q

name 3 first aid treatments for complete breakdown of suspensory apparatus

A
  1. Kimzey leg saver splint
  2. NSAIDs
  3. abx if surgery indicated
295
Q

name 3 treatments for forelimb proximal suspensory desmitis

A
  1. 3mo box rest and controlled exercise
  2. shockwave
  3. platelet rich plasma intra-lesional
296
Q

what is another name for the accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon (ALDDFT)?

A

inferior check ligament

297
Q

start of MSK11

this is the articulation between vertebral column and pelvis;
synovial joint between two flat surfaces

A

sacro-iliac joint

298
Q

name the 3 ligaments required to provide stability to sacro-iliac joint

A
  1. dorsal
  2. ventral
  3. interosseus
299
Q

name 4 things to examine the back and pelvis for

A
  1. range of motion
  2. pain
  3. lameness
  4. symmetry
300
Q

name the radiograph projection of the neck

neutral position;
multiple overlapping views;
position of the neck has some but not massive impact

A

lateral-lateral

301
Q

name the radiograph projection of the neck

separates out articular process joints;
taken from both sides

A

oblique projections

(lateral 45-55° ventral-dorsal oblique)

302
Q

name 4 clinical presentations of neck pain

A
  1. weak, tripping, reduced neck movement
  2. resents contact
  3. unwilling to move neck
  4. hopping like lameness
303
Q

name 3 indications for nuclear scintigraphy of neck, back and pelvis

A
  1. screening tool for investigation of poor performance
  2. investigation of undiagnosed lameness
  3. undiagnosed but suspicion of severe pathology - fracture
304
Q

name 4 clinical signs of impingement of the nerve root at the intervertebral foramen caused by degenerative arthropathy

A
  1. localised sweating, pain
  2. reluctance to bend the neck
  3. stiffness
  4. forelimb lameness
305
Q

name 3 clinical signs of type 2 CVCM caused by degenerative arthropathy

A
  1. reduced performance
  2. subtle hindlimb gait abnormalities
  3. ataxia
306
Q

name 4 medications that can be used to manage impingement of dorsal spinous processes and back pain in general

A
  1. corticosteroids (interspinous space)
  2. NSAIDs
  3. muscle relaxants
  4. biphosphonates
307
Q

name 3 surgical resection options for treatment of impingement of the dorsal spinous processes

A
  1. subtotal ostectomy
  2. cranial wedge ostectomy
  3. interspinous ligament desmotomy
308
Q

name 4 causes of sacro-iliac joint disease

A
  1. arthrosis and microscopic instability
  2. desmitis of the sacro-iliac ligaments or lumbosacral ligaments
  3. osteoarthritis of the lumbosacral joint
  4. acute sacroiliac injury