Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Path > Reproductive System (1-4) > Flashcards

Reproductive System (1-4) Flashcards

1
Q

this is an individual possessing gonadal tissue of both sexes due to failure of embryological differentiation of gonads which leads to the presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue (combined into an ovotestis or one gonad of each type)

A

true hermaphrodite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

this is when sex chromosomes and gonads are of one sex but the ducts and external genitalia are modified towards, or are of, the opposite sex;
classed by sex of gonadal tissue

A

pseudohermaphrodite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

this is genetically female calf born co-twin with a male calf;
TDF, MIS and testosterone enter the female twin’s circulation via the placental anastomosis and impairs normal female gonadal development

A

Freemartinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name 6 possible morphological features in a female affected by freemartinism

A
  1. normal external genitalia
  2. enlarged clitoris, long tufts of hair around vulva, skin fold from groin to umbilicus
  3. hypoplastic vagina, vulva and vestibule
  4. underdeveloped uterus
  5. underdeveloped mammary gland
  6. stunted ovaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 3 congenital abnormalities of the ovaries

A
  1. ovarian agenesis or duplication
  2. ovarian hypoplasia
  3. cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name 2 types of acquired ovarian cysts

A
  1. follicular
  2. luteinized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name the type of acquired ovarian cyst

Failure of follicle to ovulate due to failure of LH release;
may secrete oestrogen and can affect cyclic activity/behaviour;
may also cause changes in the rest of reproductive tract

A

follicular cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the type of acquired ovarian cyst

Failure to ovulate but cyst partially luteinised (thicker wall);
Usually no oestrogen production but if multiple in sows may cause infertility

A

luteinized cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

this means inflammation of the ovaries

A

oophoritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name 3 types of ovarian neoplasia

A
  1. germ cell origin
  2. from gonadal stroma
  3. tumors of surface epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

this is the most common type of ovarian neoplasia (esp. in mare and cow);
Encapsulated, nodular white grey surface; may be cystic ± haemorrhage; Often secrete oestrogen/progesterone/testosterone and may cause anoestrus, persistent oestrus or male behaviour

A

granulosa-theca cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name the two main conditions of uterine (fallopian) tubes

A
  1. obstruction
  2. inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name the term

uterine tubes distended with mucus secretions

A

hydrosalpinx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the term

inflammation of the uterine (fallopian) tubes

A

salpingitis/pyosalpinx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name 3 pathologies of the uterus due to abnormal position/location

A
  1. torsion
  2. prolapse
  3. rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name 3 endometrial changes that cause patholgy of the uterus

A
  1. atrophy
  2. hyperplasia
  3. endometrial polyps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name the term

inflammation of the endometrium

A

endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name the term

inflammation of the whole uterine wall

A

metritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name the term

inflammation of the fetal attachment point of the uterine wall

A

placentitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

name the term

chronic endometritis (mare)

A

endometrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name the term

chronic suppurative infection with accumulation of pus in the uterine lumen

A

pyometra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name 6 possible sequelae of endometritis

A
  1. ascending infection
  2. descending infection
  3. septicemia
  4. embolic spread
  5. chronic endometritis
  6. pyometra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most bitches with pyometra will also have this associated disease which occurs due to oestrogen priming followed by elevated progesterone

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name the term

accumulation of fluid in the uterus due to endometrial hyperplasia or proximal to an obstruction in the uterus, cervix or vagina

A

hydrometra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

name the term

accumulation of mucus in the uterus due to endometrial hyperplasia or proximal to an obstruction in the uterus, cervix or vagina

A

mucometra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

name 2 types of neoplasia in the uterus

A
  1. uterine carcinoma
  2. leiomyoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

name 4 common pathologies of the vagina and vulva

A
  1. congenital defects
  2. swelling
  3. trauma
  4. inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

name the term

inflammation of the vulva and vagina

A

vulvo-vaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

name 4 common types of vagina and vulva neoplasia

A
  1. sqaumous cell carcinoma
  2. canine transmissible venerea tumor
  3. melanotic tumors
  4. vaginal leiomyoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

name 8 non-infectious conditions of the pregnant uterus that cause pathology

A
  1. rupture
  2. ventral herniation
  3. adventitial placentation
  4. hydramnios & hydroallantois
  5. prolonged gestation
  6. twinning
  7. post parturient hemorrhage
  8. umbilical cord torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

this accumulation of excess fluid is associated with fetal abnormalities (esp. facial ones)

A

hydroamnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this accumulation of excess fluid is seen with adventitial placentation or twin pregnancy

A

hydroallantois

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

this is generalized oedema and may occur in the fetus due to hydramnios or hydroallantois

A

anasarca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the absence of this in the fetus can cause prolonged gestaston due to failure of release of foetal corticosteroids and failure of induction of parturition

A

pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

this is when the fetus dies but the corpus luteum is retained and there
is no bacterial infection;
fetal fluids are resorbed and the fetus is retained as black leathery mass

A

mummification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

this occurs when dead fetal tissue is invaded by gas forming bacteria (clostridia)

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

this is fetal death before the fetus is considered viable

A

abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

this is fetal death after the fetus is considered viable

A

stillbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

name 4 infectious diseases of pregnant uterus that may cause of pregnancy failure

A
  1. endotoxins or pyrexia
  2. immediate placentitis
  3. delayed placentitis
  4. direct damage to fetus due to viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

name 4 viruses that cause abortion

A
  1. herpes viruses
  2. bovine viral diarrhea virus
  3. border disease virus
  4. porcine parvovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

name 5 bacterial causes of abortion

A
  1. Brucella abortus
  2. Listeria spp.
  3. Capylobacter fetus or C. jejuni
  4. Chlamydophila abortus
  5. Coxiella burnetti
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

name 2 protozoal causes of abortion

A
  1. Toxoplasma gondii
  2. Neospora caninum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name the 8 main causes of ovine abortion

A
  1. Toxoplasma
  2. Enzootic abortion (by Chlamydophila abortus)
  3. Salmonella
  4. Tick borne fever (Anaplasma phagocytophilum)
  5. Border disease
  6. Listeria
  7. Q-fever (Coxiella burnetti)
  8. Campylobacter

(TESTBLQC) - ‘test block’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

name 5 non-infectious causes of abortion

A
  1. genetic defects
  2. nutrition (mycotoxins, plants)
  3. hyperthermia
  4. iatrogenic
  5. trauma
45
Q

how many teat canals do ruminants have

A

1 (single teat canal)

46
Q

this means “false-pregnancy” and may be seen in the normal diestrus period of bitches

A

galactorrhea

47
Q

this is when neonatal animals (rarely) secrete fluid/milk from their mammary glands due to the effects of maternal hormones on the fetal pituitary;
should resolve spontaneously

A

galactorrhea (“witches milk”)

48
Q

name the term

inflammation of the mammary gland;
usually due to bacterial infection

A

mastitis

49
Q

nme 3 possible routes of bacterial infection of the mammary gland leading to mastitis

A
  1. invasion of teat canal]
  2. percutaneous
  3. hematogenous
50
Q

name 3 common factors that contribute to the development of disease in the mammary gland

A
  1. innate and acquired resistance
  2. teat damage
  3. mechanical injury
51
Q

list the pathogenesis of mastitis (4 steps)

A
  1. trauma and cell damage
  2. bacterial invasion of udder and proliferation
  3. inflammation ad epithelial cell death
  4. clinical mastitis (exudation and desquamation causing changes in milk/gland)
52
Q

name 5 possible sequelae of mastitis

A
  1. involution of gland with fibrosis
  2. chronic infection
  3. abscessation
  4. sloughing of gangrenous tissue
  5. death
53
Q

name the 2 categories of etiological agents of bovine mastitis

A
  1. contagious
  2. environmental
54
Q

name 2 common etiological agents of contagious bovine mastitis

A
  1. Streptococcus agalactiae
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
55
Q

name the common etiological agent of environmental bovine mastitis

A

E. coli

56
Q

name 2 orgnanisms that can persist both on skin and in the environment to cause bovine mastitis

A
  1. Steptococcus uberis
  2. Strep. dysgalactiae
57
Q

name 5 possible inflammatory patterns of bovine mastitis

A
  1. acute catarrhal
  2. acute suppurative
  3. necrotizing (gangrenous)
  4. endotoxic shock syndrome
  5. chronic suppuratice or granulomatous
58
Q

name the inflammatory pattern of bovine mastitis

with hyperemia, interstitial oedema, lymphatic dilation and migration of neutrophils into interlobular tissue and alveoli;
Streptococci;
may be subclinical

A

acute catarrhal

59
Q

name the inflammatory pattern of bovine mastitis

organisms survives in ducts and penetrates the connective tissue with production of purulent material;
may become chronic;
Staphylococci, Trueperella pyogenes

A

acute suppurative

60
Q

name the inflammatory pattern of bovine mastitis

organism or toxin causes necrosis;
may lead to gangrene of the gland and death;
T. pyogenes, S. aureus

A

necrotising (gangrenous)

61
Q

name the inflammatory pattern of bovine mastitis

fever, anorexia, hypocalcemia with oedema and/or hemorrhage of mammary glands;
often per-acute;
E. coli

A

endotoxic shock syndrome

62
Q

name the inflammatory pattern of bovine mastitis

organisms may invade deeply into tissue and cause chronic or granulomatous infection;
Staphylococci, Trueperella, Actinobacillus

A

chronic suppurative or granulomatous

63
Q

name the type of bovine mastitis

Usually mixed infection (with Trueperella pyogenes);
causes sporadic cases of mastitis in animals at pasture;
often pre-existing injuries, which attract flies to the teat entrance;
results in necrosuppurative inflammation targeting the ducts (galactophoritis)

A

summer mastitis

64
Q

name the type of bovine mastits

often cause sudden agalactia with a firm, swollen and painless gland;
oedema and neutrophilic inflammation initially;
progresses to lymphocytic and macrophagic inflammation, fibrosis and lobular atrophy

A

Mycoplasma mastitis

65
Q

name the 2 most common isolates causing mastitis in sheep and goats

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Mannheimia hemolytica
66
Q

what is the outcome of goats and sheep affected with per-acute cases of mastitis

A

die in 24-48h due to septicemia

67
Q

this disease is due to Mycoplasma agalactiae and is primarily seen in goats (occasionally sheep);
initally septicemic (often fatal);
if survives: keratoconjunctivitis, arthritis and mastitis

A

Contagious agalactia

68
Q

this is a lentivirus which typically affects the lungs of sheep, causes encephalitis and bilateral lymphoplasmacytic mastitis primarily affecting the interstitial and periductal connective tissue

A

Maedi-visna

69
Q

this syndrome can occur in sows 12-48h post-partum;
lethargy, pyrexia, swollen firm mammary glands with agalactia;
contributing causes: coliforms, management changes, intensive units

A

mastitis-metritis-agalctia syndrome

70
Q

what bacteria is a common isolate in horse mastitis

A

Streptococcus zooepidemicus

71
Q

name the cause of mammary masses

typically seen in young (<2y) cycling or pregnant queens;
can spontaneously regress or require ovariohysterectomy;
marked swelling of mammary tissue with erythema +/- ulceration and necrosis;
proliferation of well-differentiated ductular epithelium and stroma

A

mammary fibroepithelial hyperplasia

72
Q

how to reduce risk of development of mammary tumors in the dog?

A

ovariohysterectomy prior to first heat

73
Q

approximately what percent of mammary tumors in dogs are malignant?

A

50%

74
Q

name 3 clinical signs which may be suggestive of malignancy of mammary tumors in the dog

A
  1. rapid growth
  2. ulceration
  3. local lymhpadenopathy
75
Q

what percent of mammary tumors in cats are malignant?

A

80-90%

76
Q

name 3 possible congenital anomalies of the scrotum

A
  1. agenesis
  2. scrotal cleft
  3. bifurcation
77
Q

this is when a defect allows abdominal contents to extend into the inguinal canal

A

inguinal hernia

78
Q

this is when abdominal contents pass through the inguinal canal and into the space between the vaginal tunics

A

scrotal hernia

79
Q

this is when fluid accumulates between the layers of the tunica vaginalis in animals with ascites

A

hydrocoele

80
Q

this is when blood ccumulates between the layers of the tunica vaginalis due to trauma

A

hematocoele

81
Q

name the term

complete failure of testicular development

A

anorchia

82
Q

name the term

failure of development of one testis

A

testicular agenesis

83
Q

name the term

incomplete descent of the testes, which may be found anywhere from posterior ple of kidney to outside the external inguinal ring

A

cryptorchidism

84
Q

name the term

testes fail to reach normal size;
may be spontaneous or associated with cryptorchidism/intersex conditions

A

testicular hypoplasia

85
Q

this is the most common cause of reduced fertility in males;
may be caused by: infection, nutritional disorders, chemicals/hormones, hyperthermia, hypoxia, etc;
affected testis is small and soft with loss of turgor;
basement mebrane of tubules is thickened and wavy

A

testicular degeneration/atrophy

86
Q

name 3 causes of circulatory disturbances to the testes

A
  1. occlusion of testicular artery
  2. torsion of spermatic cord
  3. thrombosis
87
Q

name the term

inflammation of the testes

A

orchitis

88
Q

testicular neoplasia is most common in what species

A

dog

89
Q

name 2 types of testicular neoplasia arising from germinal cells

A
  1. teratoma (young stallion)
  2. seminoma (dog/stallion)
90
Q

name 2 types of testicular neoplasia arising from sex cord-stroma

A
  1. sertoli cell tumors (dog)
  2. leydig (interstitial) cell tumors (dog, bull)
91
Q

name the syndrome

Associated with Sertoli cell tumours due to excess estrogen;
Clinical signs: Attractive to male dogs, decreased libido, symmetrical alopecia, mammary hyperplasia, preputial oedema, hyperplasia/squamous metaplasia of prostate, contralateral testicular atrophy

A

Feminization syndrome

92
Q

name the term

accumulation of semen in the epididymis ductules

A

spermatocoele

93
Q

name the epididymis pathology

sperm escape into the adjacent tissue and stimulate a foreign body response

A

sperm granuloma

94
Q

name the term

inflammation of the epididymis

A

epididymitis

95
Q

name the term

inflammation of the spermatic cord (esp. following castration)

A

funiculitis

96
Q

name 5 developmental/congenital anomalies of the penis/prepuce

A
  1. absence, hypoplasia, duplication
  2. absence of sigmoid flexure
  3. persistant penile frenulum
  4. phimosis/paraphimosis
  5. hypospadia/epispadias
97
Q

name the penis/prepuce pathology

due to small preputial orifice and the penis cannot be extruded from the prepuce

A

phimosis

98
Q

name the penis/prepuce pathology

penis cannot retract into the prepuce

A

paraphimosis

99
Q

name the penis/prepuce pathology

Urethral malformations due to failure of the fusion of urogenital folds that create abnormal urethral openings on the ventral and dorsal surface of the penis

A

hypospadias / epispadias

100
Q

name the penis/prepuce pathology

persistent erection

A

priapism

101
Q

name the term

inflammation of the prepuce

A

posthitis

102
Q

name the term

inflammation of the glans penis

A

balanitis

103
Q

name the term

inflammation of both the prepuce and the glans penis

A

balanoposthitis

104
Q

name 4 types of penile/preputial neoplasia

A
  1. papilloma and fibropapilloma
  2. squamous cell carcinoma
  3. melanoma
  4. transmissible veneral tumor (TVT)
105
Q

name the class of testicular tumor

large, solid, cystic; may have visible teeth, hair, bone;
cells from several embryonic germ layers;
metastases is rare;
not functional

A

teratoma

106
Q

name the class of testicular tumor

spherical, soft, bulges on cut, off white-grey;
sheets of round cells with scant cytoplasm; small amount of stroma and frequent mitosis; focal lymphocytic inflammation;
matastases is rare;
not functional

A

seminoma

107
Q

name the class of testicular tumor

white, firm, often lobulated; dense connective tissue, may be cystic;
tall columnar cells forming tubular structures; dense fibrous stroma;
metastases is rare;
functional (estrogen - clinical signs!)

A

sertoli cell tumor

108
Q

name the class of testicular tumor

encapsulate, round, soft, orange-tan, frquent hemorrhage and cyst formation;
solid sheets of round cells, large amount of cytoplasm with prominent lipid vacuoles; small amounts of stroma;
metastases is very rare;
sometimes functional (androgens or estrogen - rare clinical signs)

A

interstitial (leydig) cell tumor

Vet Path (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions