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Vet Path > Musculoskeletal (1-4) > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal (1-4) Flashcards

1
Q

each fascicle in a muscle is composed of multiple of these

A

myofibers

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2
Q

what are the 3 main functions of skeletal muscle

A
  1. maintaining posture and facilitating movement
  2. play role in respiration
  3. maintencance of body temp; glucose metabolism
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3
Q

which myofiber type?

function: posture;
slow rate of contraction;
aerobic activity;
high oxidative activity, use lots of O2;
high myoglobin level;
gross color: red

A

type 1

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4
Q

which myofiber type

function: exercise;
fast rate of contraction;
anaerobic activity;
high glycolytic activity, use little O2;
low myoglobin level;
gross color: white

A

type 2

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5
Q

what are the 4 ways muscle responds to injury

A
  1. degeneration/necrosis
  2. regeneration
  3. atrophy
  4. hypertrophy
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6
Q

what is the final common pathway of necrosis in muscles (as a response to injury)

A

excessive intracellular calcium

(leads to activation of destructive enzymes)

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7
Q

what are the 3 requirements for muscle regeneration

A
  1. intact basal lamina (pportive scaffold)
  2. macrophages (blood supply)
  3. viable satellite stem cells
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8
Q

what will occur if the 3 conditions required for muscle regeneration are not met?

A

fibrosis

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9
Q

name 3 causes of muscle atrophy

A
  1. disuse
  2. denervation
  3. malnutrition, cachexia, old-age
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10
Q

what is the classic histological lesion for denervation atrophy of muscles

A

angular atrophy of myofibers

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11
Q

what is the cause of muscle hypertrophy

A

increased work load on myofibers

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12
Q

this is inflammation of muscle

A

myositis

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13
Q

wht are the two main causes of infectious myositis

A
  1. bacteria
  2. parasite
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14
Q

what is the disease or manifestation caused by Clostridium chauvoei in sheep and cattle

(musculoskeletal)

A

Black leg

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15
Q

what is the pathogenesis for black leg caused by Clostridium chauvoei in sheep and cattle

A

spores gain entry to GIT → blood → lie latent → under right conditions (usually anaerobic following injury) they germinate → bacilli grow → toxins → capillary damage

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16
Q

what is the disease or manifestation of:
Truperella pyogenes, Streptococcus equi, Corynebacterium paratuberculosis

(musculoskeletal)

A

abscesses

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17
Q

what is the disease or manifestation of:
C. septicum, C. novyi, C. perfringens, C. sordelli

(musculoskeletal)

A

gas gangrene

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18
Q

what is the disease or manifestation of:
Actinobacillus lignieresii

A

wooden tongue

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19
Q

name two immune-mediated causes of myositis

A
  1. canine masticatory muscle myositis (MMM)
  2. polymyositis
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20
Q

what is the pathogenesis of canine masticatory muscle myositis (MMM)

A

autoantibodies selectvely attack type IIM fibers

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21
Q

name the drug

coccidiostate toxic to horses, donkeys, zebra, cattle, sheep, dogs and birds;
disturbs transport of Na and K across cell membrane leading to incr. free calcium in the cells causing necrosis in heart and skeletal muscle

A

Monensin

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22
Q

what is the cause of white muscle disease

A

selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency

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23
Q

what is the pathogenesis of white muscle disease

A

oxygen free radicals (ORF) damage cell membranes → calcium entry and mitochondrial damage → cell swells and dies

(less selenium/vit E to mop up/neutralize ORFs)

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24
Q

name the exertional myopathy

excercise following prolonged period of rest: unable to move, sweating, tremors;
breaking up of skeletal muscle so that myoglobin escapes from muscle cells, leaks into urine and damages renal tubes

A

equine exertional rhabdomyolysis

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25
Q

what causes acquired myasthenia gravis (MG)

A

antibodies directed against acetyl choline receptors

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26
Q

what causes congenital myasthenia gravis (MG)

A

born with deficiency in acetyl choline recepotors (rare)

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27
Q

what causes Botulism

A

ingestion of Clostridium botulinum toxin

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28
Q

what affect does Clostridium boltulinum toxin have on acetyl choline release

A

inhibits it

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29
Q

this is a benign primary tumor of muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

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30
Q

this s a malignant primary tumor of muscle

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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31
Q

name 5 functions of bones

A
  1. support
  2. protection
  3. movement
  4. stem cell storage
  5. mineral bank
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32
Q

what 2 things is bone composed of

A
  1. cells
  2. matrix
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33
Q

what 3 cells are in bone

A
  1. osteoblasts
  2. osteocytes
  3. osteoclasts
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34
Q

name the bone cell

mesenchymal cells of bone marrow stromal origin;
form the bone matrix, known as osteoid

A

osteoblasts

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35
Q

name the bone cell

osteoblasts that have become surrounded by mineralized bone matrix;
occupy cavities called lacunae

A

osteocytes

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36
Q

name the bone cell

multinucleated cells derived from hematopoietic stem cells;
responsible for bone resorption

A

osteoclasts

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37
Q

name 7 minerals found in bone;
accounts for 65% of bone

A
  1. Ca
  2. P
  3. Mg
  4. Mn
  5. Zn
  6. Cu
  7. Na
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38
Q

what 2 things is the matrix of bone composed of

A
  1. type 1 collagen
  2. mineral
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39
Q

name the bone organization

only normal in the fetus;
collagen is arranged in a “random weave”

A

immature (woven) bone

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40
Q

name the bone organization

collagen is arranged in orderly layers which are much stronger than woven bone

A

mature (lamellar) bone

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41
Q

this is a sheath of connective tissue covering bone (except at the articular surfaces);
blood supply to mature bone enters through this;
damage to it triggers rapid formation of new or reactive bone

A

periosteum

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42
Q

this is essentially a remnant of the cartilage model located at the junction of diaphysis and epiphysis;
aka the growth plate

A

physis

43
Q

name the 3 zones of the growth plate (physis) cartilage

A
  1. reserve
  2. proliferative
  3. hypertrophic
44
Q

what 2 hormones mediate bone resorption

A
  1. PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  2. calitonin
45
Q

name the hormone

produced by chief cells in parathyroid glands in response to decreased serum calcium;
activates osteoclasts;
binds to osteoblast receptors which detaches them from bone surface causing osteoclasts to incr. in number, attach to bone and resorb mineralized matrix (Ca2+);

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

46
Q

name the hormone

produced by C-cells in the thyroid glands in response to increased serum calcium;
inhibits osteoclasts to keep calcium inside the mineralized matrix

A

calcitonin

47
Q

what are the two types of bone fractures

A
  1. traumatic
  2. pathological
48
Q

this is when a normal bone is broken by excessive force

A

traumatic fracture

49
Q

this is when an abnormal bone is broken by minimal or no trauma

A

pathological fracture

50
Q

what are the 4 overlapping processes that contribute to bone fracture repair

A
  1. inflammation
  2. soft callus formation
  3. hard callus formation
  4. remodelling
51
Q

lists the steps involved in fracture and fracture repair

A
  1. fracture
  2. periosteum tears, fragments displaced
  3. hematoma formation, bone necrosis and inflammation
  4. phagocytosis of necrotic bone
  5. mesenchymal cells (fibroblasts, chondrocytes) proliferate in hematoma
  6. fibroblasts and chondrocytes produce fibrous connective tissue and hyaline cartilage (soft primary callus)
  7. vascularization of callus begins
  8. woven bone formed by osteoblasts (hard secondary callus)
  9. remodelling to mature lamellar bone (years)
52
Q

name 4 factors which slow bone fracture healing

A
  1. malnutrition
  2. excessive movement
  3. presence of necrotic bone
  4. bacterial infection
53
Q

name the 3 main nutritional/endocrine systemic diseases that can manifest in the skeleton and lead to metabolic bone disease

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. rickets/osteomalacia
  3. hyperparathyroidism (fibrous osteodystrophy)
54
Q

name the metabolic bone disease

most common;
reduction in bone quantity (not quality);
bone resorption exceeds formation leading to pathological loss of bone

A

osteoporosis

55
Q

name 3 causes of osteoporosis

A
  1. nutritional (most)
  2. senility
  3. physical inactivity
56
Q

name the metabolic bone disease

failure of mineralization which disrupts endochondral ossification at growth plates;
most due to diets low in vitamin D;
growth plates are thickened and metaphyses are flared;
disease of young, fast-growing skeleton

A

Rickets

57
Q

name the metabolic bone disease

disease of the adult skeleton;
results in failure of newly formed osteoid to mineralize;
cortex may be thin, spongy and soft in advanced cases;
mostly due to diets low in vitamin D

A

osteomalacia

58
Q

name the metabolic bone disease

bone is resorbed and replaced by fibrous, “rubbery” connective tissue and poorly mineralized immature bone;
due to persistently elevated PTH

A

fibrous osteodystrophy

59
Q

name 3 secondary causes of elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A
  1. renal
  2. nutritional
  3. PTH secretion triggered by decr. plasma calcium
60
Q

what is the pathogenesis of renal hyperparathyroidism

A

chronic renal failure → retention of phosphate & inadequate vit D production by kidneys → hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia → incr. PTH output → incr. bone resorption → fibrous osteodystrophy

61
Q

what is the pathogenesis of nutritional hyperparathyroidism

A

low calcium/high phosphate diets → decr. serum calcium → incr. PTH → incr. bone resorption

62
Q

name the term

inflammation of bone

A

osteitis

63
Q

name the term

inflammation of periosteum

A

periostitis

64
Q

name the term

inflammation of medullary cavity (of bone)

A

osteomyelitis

65
Q

name the term

any disease of bone (non-specific)

A

osteopathy

66
Q

what is the most common cause of inflammation in bone

A

bacteria

67
Q

name 3 routes of infection of the bone

A
  1. implantation
  2. extension from other infected sites
  3. hematogenously
68
Q

name 4 consequences of bone inflammation

A
  1. extension to adjacent bone
  2. hematogenous spread to other bones and soft tissue
  3. pathological fractures
  4. sinus tracts to exterior
69
Q

name the osteopathy

young, fast growing dogs of large or giant breeds;
distal radius and ulna most severely affected;
bilaterally symmetrical;
welling of metaphyses of long bones, corresponding with neutrophilic infiltrate

A

metaphyseal osteopathy

70
Q

name 2 benign bone tumors

A
  1. osteoma
  2. chondroma
71
Q

name the bone neoplasm

uncommon/rare; benign;
smoothly contoured, slow-growing and well-differentiated;
horses and cattle mainly;
flat bones (skull, scapula);
disfigurement, obstruct nasal passgaes

A

osteoma

72
Q

name the bone neoplasm

benign neoplasm of cartilage;
rare in animals;
slow growing and expansile with smooth border

A

chondroma

73
Q

name the bone neoplasm

malignant neoplasm of mesenchymal origin in which cells produce osteoid;
accounts for 85% of primary bone tumors in dogs (giant breeds esp. risk);
mostly appendicular skeleton;
poor prognosis due to early metastasis

A

osteosarcoma (OSA)

74
Q

name the bone neoplasm

malignant neoplasm in which mesenchymal cells produce chondroid matrix;
most common in dog;
flat bones;
slower growth rate, longer clinical course, later to metastasize;
metastatic rate: 20%

A

chondrosarcoma

75
Q

name 4 circumstances where non-neoplastic bone proliferation can occur

A
  1. fracture repair
  2. chronic osteomyelitis
  3. superimposed on a neoplasm
  4. hyperostotic bone diseases
76
Q

name 2 hyperostotic bone diseases

A
  1. hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy (HPO)
  2. craniomandibular osteopathy
77
Q

name the hyperostotic bone disease

periosteal proliferation of bone on diaphyses and metaphyses of distal limbs;
progressive and bilateral;
most cases have intrathoracic neoplasm or chronic inflammatory focus

A

hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy (HPO)

78
Q

name the hyperostotic bone disease

west highland white terriers and scottish terriers;
puppies: arise at 4-7 months;
bilaterally symmetrical;
periosteal proliferation of bone leading to irregular thickening of the mandibular rami and some skull bones

A

craniomandibular osteopathy

79
Q

name 3 types of generalized bone dysplasias

A
  1. proportionate dwarfism (not genetic)
  2. chondrodysplasia
  3. osteopetrosis
  4. osteogenesis imperfecta
80
Q

name the generalized dysplasia

“abnormal cartilage development”;
due to a genetic defect;
affects bones which form via a cartilage model (long bones are shorter than normal);
leads to disproportionate dwarfism

A

chondrodysplasia (chondrodystrophy)

81
Q

name the generalized dysplasia

failure of reabsorption by osteoclasts resulting in failure of remodelling of cancellous bone;
bones become thickened and dense but brittle;
genetic in origin

A

osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

82
Q

name the generalized bone dysplasia

due to a defect in synthesis of type 1 collagen;
rare in animals;
genetic basis

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

83
Q

name the localize dystrophy

equine disease;
narrowing of the vertebral canal due to vertebral malalignment or maldevelopment;
fast growing male TBs ranging from 8mo to 4 y;
HL ataxia due to cord compression

A

cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (“wobblers”)

84
Q

name the localize dystrophy

lateral deviation of distal portion of limb;
most common in foals;
caused by: malpositioning in utero, excessive joint laxity, hypothyroidism, trauma, overnutrition, defective endochondral ossification

A

angular limb deformity

85
Q

name 3 categories of joint pathology

A
  1. Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
  2. Inflammation
  3. Growth and development abnormalities
86
Q

name the joint pathology

destructive disease leading to loss of articular cartilage in one or multiple joints ;
can be primary (idiopathic or age-related) or secondary

A

degenerative joint disease (DJD)

(osteoarthritis)

87
Q

name 3 causes of premature degeneration of cartilage

A
  1. direct damage
  2. joint instability
  3. abnormal forces
88
Q

name the term

inflammation of the intra-articular structures, incl. synovial membrane

A

arthritis

89
Q

name the term

inflammation of the synovial membrane only

A

synovitis

90
Q

name the term

an all-encompassing term referring to any joint disease, whether inflammatory or not

A

arthropathy

91
Q

what 3 things can arthritis be classified based on

A
  1. cause
  2. duration
  3. nature of exudate
92
Q

name 4 causes of arthritis

A
  1. infectious
  2. immune-mediated
  3. urate deposits
  4. sterile
93
Q

name 4 portals of entry for infectious arthritis

A
  1. navel
  2. GIT
  3. traumatic inoculation
  4. extension from bone or periarticular soft tissue
94
Q

what reaction is non-infectious (immune-mediated) arthritis driven by?

A

type III hypersensitivity
(Ag/Ab complexes gather in joint space)

95
Q

name the two forms of non-infectious (immune-mediated) arthritis

A
  1. erosive
  2. non-erosive
96
Q

name the abnormality of growth and development

persistent congenital flexure of a joint in conjunction with muscle contraction

A

arthrogryposis

97
Q

name 4 causes of arthrogryposis

A
  1. inactivity or paralysis in utero
  2. spinal dysraphism
  3. intrauterine viral infections
  4. toxic plants
98
Q

name the abnormality of growth and development

inherited disease in which joint laxity results in secondary degenerative joint disease;
joint laxity → subluxation → flattening of dorsal rim of acetabulum → modelling of the acetabulum and femoral head

A

hip dysplasia

99
Q

name 3 contributing factors of hip dysplasia

A
  1. heredity
  2. weight
  3. over-exercise
100
Q

name the abnormality of growth and development

a disorder of growth cartilage occurring in growing animals;
focal failure of blood suppy to growing cartilage leads to ischemic necrosis of cartilage;
can lead to delayed endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

101
Q

name 5 things involved in osteochondrosis, making it multifactorial

A
  1. trauma
  2. genes
  3. rapid growth
  4. ischemia
  5. nutrition
102
Q

these dogs are predisposed to degenerative disk change from early age;
nucleus pulposus is replaced by chondroid tissue which mineralizes and fragment;
annulus fibrosus secondarily degenerates

A

chondrodystrophic dogs

103
Q

in these dogs, degeneration begins in the annulus fibrosus;
there is fibrosis of the nucleus, rather than chondroid degeneration;
middle-aged dogs affected;
thoracolumbar area predisposed

A

non-chondrodystrophic dogs

Vet Path (12 decks)

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