reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

what does the female reproductive system comprise of?

A

vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most useful modality to see female repro?

A

US and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the dimension of the ovaries?

A

1.5-3.0cm x 1.5x3.0cm x 1.0-2.0cm (length x width x thickness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what happens to the ovaries during pregnancy?

A

double in size due to corpus luteum producing progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where do primary lesions of ovarian cancer come from?

A

mosthy epithelial ovarian carcinomas that originate from fallopian tubes- poor prognosis due to late diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where do metastases of ovaries arise from?

A

endometrium, breast, colon, stomach, cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where does ovarian cancer spread to?

A

peritoneal surfaces- along line of abdominal cavity and to thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where can malignant cells from ovarian cancer implant to?

A

anywhere in peritoneal cavity & into the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most useful modality to detect ovarian cancer?

A

ultrasonography + chest radiography/CT (to identify spread of cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is MRI useful in detecting ovarian cancer?

A

MRI enables characterisation of tissue-type present to help ascertain malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where does fertilisation occur in the uterine tubes?

A

normally in ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the sections of the uterine tube?

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, intramural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the infundibulum surrounded with?

A

fimbriae surrounds the ovary but does not enclose it (ectopic pregnancy is possible- pregnancy in wrong place)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is salpingitis?

A

inflammation of uterine tubes, caused by bacterial infection - causes obstruction and infertility - scar tissue formation that causes obstruction of uterine tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is used to assess infertility in uterine tubes?

A

Hysterosonosalpingography- inject contrast medium and move backwards through ovary ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the average length of uterine tubes?

A

12 to 18 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the dimensions of the uterus?

A

7.5cm in length, 5cm wide at upper part, & 2.5cm in thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 2 parts of the uterus?

A

fundus (body) & cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is the uterus located?

A

between bladder anteriorly & rectum posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is the uterus positioned when bladder is full?

A

fundus may be direction backward toward the sacrum- may be suitable for imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is the uterus positioned when bladder is empty?

A

entire uterus is directed forward & body lies upon bladder- as bladder fills it becomes more erect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are common positions of the uterus?

A

most common is anteverted (cervix angles forward) & anteflexed (body is flexed forward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the 3 tissue layers of uterus?

A

endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the endometrium site of?

A

implantation- responsive to endocrine changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the myometrium?

A

makes up uterine volume- smooth muscle- contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are malignant neoplasms of uterus common?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what makes up most of the uterine malignancies?

A

endometrial carcinoma (>90%)- 95% in postmenopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a carcinoma?

A

cancer in a cell that is exposed to an external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a sarcoma?

A

cancer from cells not exposed to external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what makes up remaining 5% of uterine malignancies?

A

uterine sarcoma (malignant cells form in the muscles of the uterus or other tissues that support the uterus)- most leiomyosarcoma/uterine fibroids (benign neoplasms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what cancers can invade the uterus?

A

cervical, vaginal, tubal, colorectal carcinoma & cancers from bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are signs & symptoms associated with fibroids?

A

abnormal vaginal bleeding, pain, infertility, palpable masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where can fibroids grow within?

A

endometrial cavity of uterus (submucosal), in myometrial layer (intramural), outer wall of uterus (subserosal), extend of outer layer of uterus (pedunculated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how do uterine fibroids appear on CT?

A

may distort the usually smooth uterine contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how are uterine fibroids diagnosed?

A

based on biopsy - if cancer diagnosed chest imaging is performed to rule out metastasis - CT of abdomen & pelvis may also be included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the breast made of?

A

fatty tissue & glandular tissue (10-15%) - inhomogenous structure - fatty tissue increases during menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how is the breast anchored to chest wall?

A

via pec major fascia by suspensory ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does the breast pass into axilla?

A

axillary extension of upper lateral quadrant passes into axilla through opening in deep fascia - can find breast cancer in axilla region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how many lactiferous lobes does breast have & where do they drain?

A

14 to 18 lactiferous lobes which drain into lactiferous ducts which converge to drain as nipple areola complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what stimulates ductal development?

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what stimulates lobular development & epithelial differentiation?

A

progesterone

42
Q

what stimulates epithelial development & lactogenesis during pregnancy & lactation?

A

prolactin

43
Q

what occurs to breast during follicular phase (days 4 to 14) of menstruation?

A

levels of estrogen increase, stimulating epithelial proliferation

44
Q

what occurs to breast during luteal phase (days 15 to 28) of menstruation?

A

progesterone increases & estrogen decreases- mammary ducts dilate, epithelial cells differentiate into secretory cells,

45
Q

what does estrogens do to the breast during luteal phase?

A

increases blood flow causing breast oedema just prior to onset of menses

46
Q

when is mammography recommended?

A

during the 5th-10th day of cycle

47
Q

how much does glandular epithelium make up of breast weight?

A

10 to 15% of tissue

48
Q

what is each lobe of breat composed of?

A

several lobules that are known as terminal ductules or acini

49
Q

what is epithelium of ducts surrounded by?

A

myoepithelial cells which are surrounded by a continuous basement membrane

50
Q

what does invasion through epithelium basement membrane indicate?

A

invasion distinguishes invasive from in situ carcinoma - if it has penetrated through breast tissue, it is a bad sign and it has made its way out of the duct

51
Q

what do the breast ducts widen to form?

A

lactiferous sinuses that leave through 10 to 15 orifices in nipply

52
Q

where do suspensory ligament of breast travel through?

A

travel through breast & insert in to dermis - tumour involvement causes skin creasing located above breast lumps, tumour has escaped from the duct

53
Q

what are axillary lymph nodes defined by?

A

their relationship to pectoralis minor muscle-

54
Q

where are level I axillary nodes located?

A

lateral to lateral border of pec muscle

55
Q

where are level II axillary nodes located?

A

between medial & lateral borders of pec minor muscle

56
Q

where are level III axillary nodes located?

A

medial to medial margin & inferior to clavicle of pec minor

57
Q

what nodes is most important prognostic factor?

A

ipsilateral axillary lymph node is most common site of involvement & in isolation, is most important prognostic factor (prognosis becomes worse if they affect lymph nodes)

58
Q

how does breast appear in mammographs?

A

glandular tissue is homogenously dense, adipose tissue forms round or curved radiolucent areas, suspensory ligaments appear as curved, linear radiopacities, duct system is not normally visualised except near nipple

59
Q

where does lymphatic drainage of breast originate from?

A

from breast lobules

60
Q

what are the 3 pathways for lymphatic drainage of breast?

A

axillary or lateral pathway to axillary lymph nodes- internal mammary pathway through pectoral major & possible to contralateral breast- retromammary pathway

61
Q

how much lymph does the axillary lymph node receive?

A

more than 75% of lymph drained from breast

62
Q

what is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma is most common at 75%- follwoing is lobular carcinoma in situ (peaks in womens aged 40-50 years)- infiltrating lobular carcinoma- DUCTS ARE THE SOURCE OF MOST BREAST CANCERS

63
Q

where does infiltrating ductal carcinoma tend to metastasize?

A

via lymphatics & mostly women over 55

64
Q

what are signs of malignancy detected by mammographs?

A

asymmetry, microcalcification (up to 90%- tiny specs of bone), mass or architectual distortion, great density

65
Q

why does greater breast density increase risk of breast cancer?

A

dense tissue may obscure small masses & delay diagnosis

66
Q

what is sensitivity in mammographic results?

A

ability to detect true positives

67
Q

what happens if a sensitivity test in negative?

A

you haven’t got the disease

68
Q

what is specifity in mammographic tests?

A

ability to detect true negatives

69
Q

what happens if specific is positive?

A

you’ve got the disease

70
Q

what happens if a test has 80% sensitivity?

A

80% of patients with disease are identified (true positive) & 20% of patients with disease are missed (false negs)

71
Q

what happens if test has 80% specificity?

A

80% of patients with disease are identified (true negative) & 20% of patients without disease are identified positive (false positive)

72
Q

what does the male reproductive system include?

A

penis, testes, epididymides, ductus deferentia, ejaculatory ducts, seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral galnds- US and MRI used to image

73
Q

what is the size of the prostate?

A

3 x 4 x 2cm

74
Q

what does the prostate surround?

A

proximal urethra

75
Q

what is the base of urethra in contact with?

A

bladder

76
Q

what is the prostate surrounded by?

A

layer of muscular fibres & collagen that represents a capsule

77
Q

what does the prostate contain?

A

central (25% of prostate volume) & peripheral zones (75%)

78
Q

does difficulty to urinate occur in prostate adenocarcinomas?

A

not usually- difficulty to urinate may occur to frowth of benign tumour in centrally located prostate pushing against urethra

79
Q

when does 70-80% of adenocarcinomas originate from?

A

the peripheral zones

80
Q

how are prostate zones differentiated?

A

differentiated on T2 weighted MRI

81
Q

where does benign prostatic hyperplasia develop?

A

in transition zone at distal end of prostate

82
Q

what suggests prostatic cancer?

A

elevated PSA (can be elevated by a # of things) or prostatic enlargement- high false positive rates- doesn’t cause utethral obstruction- common in older men & diagnosed post mortem

83
Q

what is the function of the spermatic cord?

A

tubular structure that suspends the testes & epididymis and passes through inguinal canal

84
Q

what does the spermatic cord contain?

A

ductus deferens, arteries & veins, lymphatics, nerves

85
Q

what does the scrotum contain?

A

testes, epididymides, distal spermatic cord

86
Q

what is the testes covered by?

A

fibrous capsule called tunica albuginea & divided into 200 to 400 wedge shaped lobes

87
Q

what does each lobe in testes contain?

A

3 to 10 coiled seminiferous tubules, which produce sperm - make up 90% of testicular mass

88
Q

what is the function of sertoli cells?

A

support sperm production

89
Q

what is the function of leydig cells?

A

produce testosterone

90
Q

what do seminiferous tubules connect to?

A

epididymis (sotrage unit)

91
Q

what age group does testicular cancer occur?

A

rare but mostly in men aged 20-40

92
Q

where does testicular cancer arise from?

A

seminiferous tubules- investigated by US

93
Q

how is testicular cancer diagnosed?

A

CT scan of abdomen & pelvis & chest x-ray are part of initial staging workup but US also involved

94
Q

what does the body of penis contain?

A

three erectile structures: corpora cavernosa & corpus spongiosum

95
Q

where does the urethra course through?

A

corpus spongiosum & opens at tip of penis (glans)

96
Q

what is the corpus cavernosum?

A

paired dorsal structures, encased in tunica albuginea

97
Q

what is the corpus spongiosum?

A

lies ventrally in groove of corpus cavernosum & contain penile part of urethra

98
Q

what is the inguinal canal?

A

is a passage in anterior abdominal wall that transmits structures from pelvis to perineum

99
Q

what are the 2 openings of the inguinal canal?

A

deep inguinal ring & superficial inguinal rings

100
Q

what are the contents of the inguinal canal?

A

males & females (nerves)- males (spermatic cord)- female (round ligament)

101
Q

what can develop in the inguinal canal?

A

inguinal hernia- loop of intestine passes down the inguinal ring