Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

week heart begins to beat & have upper & lower limb buds

A

week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

gene involved in CNS development & assoc with holoprosencephaly

A

Sonic hedghog

Feature of holoprosencephaly: hypotelorism (eyes close together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gene for proper organization along dorsal-ventral axis (limb development)

A

Wnt-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

gene for mitosis of underlying mesoderm = lengthens limbs

A

FGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gene implicated if limbs are in wrong locations

A

Homeobox = Hox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does hCG secretion begin?

A

implantation of blastocyst = 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

neural tube formed from what? closes when?

A

neuroectoderm

by week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when do external genitalia show male/female characteristics?

A

week 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when gastrulation occurs

A

week 3 = 3 layers

ectoderm + mesoderm + endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

embryologic derivative of muscle, bone, CT, serous linings of body cavities, lymphatics, blood, wall of gut (muscle?), vagina, kidneys adrenal cortex, dermis, testes, ovaries, nucleus pulposus of IV disc

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

embryologic derivative of gut epithelium, urethra, luminal epithelium of lungs, liver, GB, pancreas, eustachian tube, thymus, parathyroid, thyroid follicular cells

A

endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

teratogen effect of aminoglycosides (gentamycin)

A

CN VIII toxicity (hearing loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

teratogen that can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

diethylstilbestrol (DES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

teratogen that discolors teeth

A

tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

anticonvulsant that inhibits folate absorption therefore can cause neural tube defects

A

valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what medication can be used to avoid blood clots in pregnancy but not cross the placenta

A

heparin

Do not use warfarin because it can cause fetal abortion, hemorrhage, eye & bone abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

excess of this vitamin can cause spont abortion, cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities

A

vit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

forms outer layer of chorionic villi and secretes hCG

A

syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how many umbilical vessels are there? type of blood transported?

A

2 UAs -> low O2
1 UV -> high O2
think of the baby as the heart of mama to remember circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

duct between fetal bladder and yolk sac

A

urachus

If this stays patent: urine discharge from umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

associated with ectopic gastric mucosa & is from partial closure of vitelline duct

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

aortic arch derivative that becomes common carotid & proximal internal carotid

A

3rd aortic arch

3rd arch = 3rd letter of alphabet (ā€œcā€)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

persistent cervical sinus

A

branchial cleft cyst within lateral neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which branchial arch makes no significant developmental contributions?

A

5th arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
``` thymic aplasia (deficiency of T cells) hypocalcemia (no parathyoid glands) cardiac defects ```
DiGeorge syndrome
26
mutation of germline RET gene resulting in the 3 P's: pheochromocytoma parathyroid tumor parafollicular cell cancer (medullary cancer of thyroid)
MEN 2A
27
from failure of fusion of maxillary & medial nasal prominences
cleft lip
28
from failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes or fusion of the lateral palatine processes with nasal septum and/or median palatine process
cleft palate
29
Gene on Y chromosome that produces testis determining factor (TDF)
SRY
30
develops into internal male structures (SEED): Seminal vesicals, Epididymis, Ejaculatory duct, Ductus Deferens
Wolffian duct (mesonephric duct)
31
embryologic structures that becomes male external genitalia & prostate
genital tubercle & urogenital sinus
32
placenta implants in lower uterus and partially or completely covers the internal os -> requires c-section delivery
placenta previa | See a "preview" of the placenta (or can feel it)
33
What does the placenta normally attach to?
decidua | Absence results in placenta accreta -> can't deliver the placenta since it's stuck -> hysterectomy
34
classic presentation: fibrinoid necrosis of the placental vessels
preeclampsia
35
preeclampsia with SEIZURES
eclampsia | Must deliver the placenta
36
preeclampsia with thrombotic microangiopathy involving the liver; see schistocytes
HELLP syndrome Hemolysis Elevated liver enzymes Low Platelets
37
abnormal implantation with cystic swelling of chorionic villi and proliferation of trophoblast; uterus is bigger than normal and beta-hCG is higher than normal
hydatidiform mole see passage of grapelike masses (if no prenatal care) prenatal care: absent fetal heart sounds & snowstorm appearance on US Partial Mole: fetal parts Complete: no fetal parts
38
which mole has greater risk of choriocarcinoma; what would you use to screen?
complete mole | level of beta-hCG over the next year after D&C
39
ovarian neoplasm that contains transitional epithelium (bladder type epithelium)
Brenner tumor
40
What serum value can be used to monitor progression/recurrence of ovarian neoplasm?
CA-125
41
most common germ cell tumor in female
mature cystic teratoma | If has immature tissue, then it has potential to mets (neuroectodermal tissue is what is present in the immature)
42
ovarian fibroma, ascites and pleural effusion
Meigs syndrome
43
cystic teratoma that contains functional thyroid tissue and presents as hyperthyroidism
struma ovarii
44
GI malignancy that mets to ovaries (BILATERAL), causing a mucin-secreting signet ring cell adenocarcinoma
Krukenberg tumor
45
intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material from tumor of ovary or appendix
pseudomyxoma peritonei
46
venous drainage of the gonads
left -> left gonadal vein -> left renal vein -> IVC | right -> right gonadal vein -> IVC
47
lymphatic drainage of ovary/testis
para-aortic lymph nodes
48
lymphatic drainage of scrotum/vulva
superficial inguinal lymph nodes
49
ligament that contains the ovarian vessels
suspensory ligament
50
ligament that is the derivative of the gubernaculum
round ligament of the uterus
51
ligament that contains the ovaries, fallopian tubes and round ligaments of the uterus
broad ligament | 3 parts: mesosalpinx, mesometrium, mesovarium
52
most common area for cervical cancer
transformation zone
53
irregular menstruation
metrorrhagia
54
heavy menstruation
menorrhagia
55
ovulation sequence (hormone)
increased estrogen -> increased GnRH receptors on anterior pituitary -> estrogen surge -> stimulation of LH release -> ovulation
56
what elevates body temperature during menstrual cycle
progesterone
57
maintains the corpus luteum for the first trimester by acting like LH
hCG
58
marker for menopause
elevated FSH | loss of negative feedback on FSH by estrogen (through GnRH)
59
causes closure of epiphyseal plates
estrogen (converted from testosterone in males)
60
appears female: female external genitalia, short vagina that ends in blind pouch, absent uterus & fallopian tubes, scant sexual hair, undescended testes
androgen insensitivity syndrome
61
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism; defective migration of GnRH cells and formation of olfactory bulb, decreased GnRH LH & FSH, anosmia, infertility
Kallmann syndrome
62
hypertension and proteinuria in pregnancy (after 20 weeks gestation up to 6 weeks postpartum)
preeclampsia
63
HPV gene product that inhibits p53 suppressor gene
E6
64
HPV gene product that inhibits RB tumor suppressor gene
E7
65
causes of endometrial hyperplasia
anovulatory cycles, HRT, PCOS, granulosa cell tumor
66
hyperandrogenism, hyperinsulinemia (insulin & testosterone decrease SHBG synth therefore increased free testosterone) Presents with amenorrhea (oligomenorrhea), hirsutism, acne, infertility, obesity; LH:FSH > 2 (FSH is shut down because of feedback of peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen)
polycystic ovarian syndrome | have increased risk of endometrial cancer from increased estrogens from aromatization of testosterone
67
location of highest density of breast tissue in a female
upper outer quadrant
68
breast tumor with large leaf-like projections; most commonly presents in 6th decade
phyllodes tumor
69
treatment of BPH
alpha1 antagonists: terazosin, tamsulosin (selective for receptors in prostate vs vascular) 5 alpha reductase inhibitor: finasteride
70
Why is varicocele more common in left testicle?
increased resistance to flow from left gonadal vein drainage into left renal vein
71
difference in mature teratoma in males from one in females
may be malignant
72
associated with priapism
trauma, sickle cell anemia, medications
73
tumor associated with Reinke crystals
Leydig cell tumor
74
nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at testosterone receptor
flutamide
75
warm, enlarged breast with purulent nipple discharge in breastfeeding female: treatment & dx?
mastitis | dicloxacillin & continue breastfeeding
76
subareolar mass with nipple retraction
periductal mastitis - usually from keratinization of cells blocking duct - columnar cells converted to squamous due to Vit A deficiency in smoking
77
inflammation with green-brown nipple discharge
mammary duct ectasia
78
causes calcification on mammogram | see giant cells
fat necrosis (from saponification)
79
causes downregulation of GnRH receptors in pituitary when given continuously therefore decreased FSH/LH
leuprolide | Use: prostate cancer
80
antagonizes estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus to prevent normal feedback inhibition -> increases LH & FSH release from pituitary -> ovulation
clomiphene
81
used to treat ER+ breast cancer: antagonist at breast tissue but agonist at bone and uterus, increasing risk of endometrial cancer
tamoxifen
82
osteoporosis drug that is an agonist at bone, antagonist at uterus
raloxifene
83
inhibits 17 hydroxylase in steroid synthesis; causes gynecomastia
spironolactone
84
5 alpha reductase inhibitor used for BPH
finasteride
85
Virilization of mother during pregnancy due to placental transfer of excess androgens from fetus to mom Maculinization of female fetus
Aromatase deficiency