Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cancer of childhood
Immature B cells or T cells
Occurs before age 15 but most are age 1-3 yr
Cells: TdT+

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

poor outcome in adult ALL

A

t(9;22) Philadelphia

Good outcome in child: t(12;21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

contains Major Basic Protein
Phagocytic for antigen-antibody complexes
Produces histaminase -> limits reaction following mast cell degranulation

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

monocyte in the tissue

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mediates allergic reaction due to granule contents

heparin, histamine & leukotrienes

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mediates local allergic reaction
Binds Fc portion of IgE
Degranulates releasing histamine, heparin & eosinophilic chemotactic factors

A

Mast cell

Tx: cromolyn sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

dendritic cell in skin

A

Langerhans cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Functions as link between innate and adaptive immune systems.
Expresses Fc and MHC II
Highly phagocytic

A

dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where does B cell mature?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

costimulatory signal required for T cell activation

A

CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

chromatin distribution described as “clock-face”

A

plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which antibodies cross the placenta?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Age: > 60 yr
CD20+, CD5+ B-cell neoplasm
smudge cells in peripheral smear
typically asymptomatic at diagnosis but may present with fatigue, anorexia, weight loss

A

Small lymphocytic lymphoma/chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

complication of CLL

A

hypogammaglobulinemia -> infection is most common cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Late adulthood painless lymphadenopathy
t(14;18)
BCL2 gene product overexpression -> inhibition of apoptosis
tumor arises in germinal centers
incurable with waxing & waning course
A

Follicular lymphoma

*note when any leukemia involves the lymph NODE it is referred to as LYMPHOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

proliferation of large B cells that grow diffusely in sheets
high-grade
late adulthood
dysregulation of BCL6 (required for normal germinal center formation) -> p53 silenced -> no apoptosis

A

Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
tumor of mature B cells
extranodal mass in child or young adult
African form: mandible
Sporadic form: abdomen (ileocecum & peritoneum)
Translocation of c-MYC: t(8;14)
associated with EBV
starry sky
A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Age: 65-70 yr
destructive plasma cell tumors involving axial skeleton
Most commonly involves: vertebral column, ribs, skull, pelvis, femur, clavicle and scapula
Lytic, punched out vertebral & skull lesions on xray-> fracture risk
free Ig light chain excretion in urine (Bence Jones proteinuria)
Hypercalcemia: confusion, weakness, lethargy, constipation, polyuria (renal dysfunction)

A

Multiple Myeloma
cause of death: infection
2nd most common cause of death: renal insufficiency
CRAB: hyperCalcemia, Renal insuff, Anemia, Bone lesions/Back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hyperviscosity syndrome caused by excess secretion of IgM

no lytic bone lesions

A

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

asymptomatic plasma cell dyscrasia

precursor to multiple myeloma (1-2%)

A

MGUS => monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

proliferation of small B cells in males age 50s-60s
t(11:14)
cyclin D1 overexpression -> promotes G1/S transition -> proliferation
expansion of mantle zone
symptoms related to spleen and gut in 50%

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Arise in tissues involved in chronic inflammatory disorders of infectious or autoimmune etiology (Hashimoto, Sjogren, H pylori gastritis)
Memory B cell origin
More common in southern Europe than US
Ex: MALToma

A

Marginal Zone Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

B cell neoplasm of middle-aged white males
TRAP
“dry tap” due to marrow fibrosis

A

Hairy Cell Leukemia
cells have hairy cytoplasmic processes
Tx: cladribine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T cell tumors that home to the skin
Early stages have eczema-like lesions
Cells can spread to the blood and cause Sezary syndrome -> lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei

A

Mycosis Fungoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
-Endemic to southern Japan, West Africa and Caribbean basin -associated with HTLV-1 -> encodes Tax which activates NF-kappaB -Skin lesions (rash), generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, peripheral blood lymphocytosis and hypercalcemia Rapidly fatal (months-1 yr)
Adult T cell Leukemia/Lymphoma
26
○ Large multimeric glycoprotein that stabilizes factor VIII and protects it from degradation ○ Synthesized by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes ○ Concentrated in the endothelium of blood vessels and released in response to stress hormones of endothelial damage
• Von Willebrand factor
27
extrinsic coagulation pathway vs. intrinsic coagulation pathway
* Extrinisic pathway is initiated by trauma & tissue factor exposure * Intrinsic pathway is activated when factor XI is converted the factor XIa by thrombin
28
serine protease that degrades fibrin
plasminogen -> plasmin
29
vitamin K antagonist
warfarin
30
oxidation of Hb sulfhydryl groups Denatured Hb precipitates Seen with G6PD deficiency
Heinz bodies
31
Seen with functional asplenia -> normally removed | basophilic nuclear remnants
Howell-Jolly bodies
32
triad of iron deficiency anemia, esophageal webs and atrophic glossitis
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
33
homozygote with absent beta chain marrow expansion causing "crew cut" on skull xray chipmunk facies extramedullary hematopoiesis increased risk of parvo B19 aplastic crisis
beta-thalassemia major
34
deficiency of ADAMTS13 (which can be inherited or acquired) | decreased degradation of vWF multimers
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
35
Bleeding due to defective platelet aggregation (platelet plug) in response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine or thrombin because of deficiency or dysfunction of GpIIb-IIIa, AR
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
36
defect in platelet plug formation due to deficiency of GpIb | AR
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
37
antibodies to GpIIb/IIIa with splenic macrophage consumption of platelet/antibody complex Bone marrow bx: increased megakaryocytes
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
38
Hypercoagulability in whites with increased risk of cerebral vein thrombosis, especially with oral contraceptive use
Factor V Leiden | resists degradation by activated protein C
39
inactivates factor V
protein C PROC mutations causes deficiency protein S enhances protein C cleavage of factor V
40
X-linked intrinsic coagulation pathway defect hemarthroses, easy bruising, increased PTT classically affected male and carrier females
Hemophilia A: deficiency factor VIII Hemophilia B: deficiency factor IX cure: liver transplant
41
see normal bleeding time but decreased synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, 10, protein C & S
vitamin K deficiency
42
which chromosome for ABO blood groups?
chromosome 9
43
when is Rhogam given?
28-32 weeks
44
inhibits ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase therefore decreases heme synthesis inhibits rRNA degradation -> basophilic stippling seen symptoms: Burton lines on xray, encephalopathy, abdominal colic, sideroblastic anemia, wrist & foot drop
lead poisoning ALA dehydratase contains zinc and is therefore sensitive to inhibition by lead Tx: EDTA and dimercaprol; succimer in children
45
glutamic acid -> valine change in codon for beta globin AR hemolytic condition painful swelling in hands and feet splenic infarct at low O2 tensions
sickle cell anemia HbS is less soluble so RBC less deformable when moving through capillaries heterozygote advantage for malaria
46
X-linked enzyme deficiency common in Mediterranean hemolysis in response to bacterial & viral infections Deficiency of reducing equivalents (NADPH) in RBC drug-induced hemolysis
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency anemia with eating fava beans Presents: back pain, hemoglobinuria a few days after oxidative stress RBCs with Heinz bodies and bite cells on peripheral smear
47
first-line therapy for CML
imatinib | MOA: inhibitor of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
48
allosteric activator at low concentration, but is a competitive inhibitor for oxygen binding at higher concentration
carbon monoxide
49
has 1 polypeptide chain and 1 O2 binding site binds O2 better at low O2 concentrations heart and skeletal muscle
myoglobin
50
4 pyrrole rings linked by alpha-methylene bridges
heme
51
competitive inhibitors of O2 binding
CO and NO | both bind to the O2 binding site on heme
52
formed in RBCs from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate & binds to Hb in the central cavity formed by the 4 subunits and increases the energy required for conformational changes which facilitate O2 binding
2,3-BPG levels of this increase at high altitudes in order to increase O2 delivery to the tissues adjustment to high altitude occurs over approx lifespan of RBC
53
bind to Hb and cause a conformational change which releases O2
protons
54
What lab value predicts sickle cell crisis?
MCHC
55
decreases cell volume by increasing potassium and water efflux reduced chance of malaria development because of decreased lifespan of RBC (40 days for homozygote) & inhibition of cell lysis for parasitized RBCs
HbC Crystals form in O2-rich blood, so formation is more likely in the larger vessels and less likely to cause vascular occlusion. Crystallization only occurs with ligand bound
56
hypersegmented neutrophils
folate and B12 deficiencies
57
B12 deficiency causes
dietary, malabosorption, pernicious anemia, Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm), proton pump inhibitors
58
hemoproteins
``` hemoglobin myoglobin CYPs catalase myeloperoxidase NO synthase ```
59
cellular storage for iron
ferritin
60
iron transport in the plasma
transferrin
61
gene mutations which decrease hepcidin synthesis chronic iron toxicity increased iron absorption iron deposition within the joints and tissues of the heart, liver and pancreas, causing organ damage and failure slate-blue skin appearance
hemochromatosis
62
rate-limiting enzyme in porphyrin synthesis in the liver
ALA synthase
63
needed for hephaestin and ceruloplasmin activity (mobilization of iron)
copper
64
defect in hydroxymethylbilane gene accumulation of ALA and PMB precursors causes abdominal pain, neurologic dysfunction but NOT photosensitivity Painful abdomen Port wine urine Polyneuropathy Psychological disturbances Precipitated by drugs, alcohol & starvation
Acute Intermittent Porphyria AD Tx: glucose and heme -> inhibit ALA synthase
65
X-linked defect resulting in reduced catalytic activity of ALAS2 during the block in heme synthesis, iron delivery to the mitochondria continues so have accumulation of non-heme iron as ferrochelatase
sideroblastic anemia
66
Glycoprotein produced by the kidney in proportion to intracellular oxygen concentration
erythropoietin
67
○ Transfer of methyl group from N5-methyl-FH4 to homocysteine to form methionine ○ Rearrangement of methylmalonyl-CoA to form succinyl-CoA
functions of B12 if have deficiency see: decrease in methionine and SAM ↑homocysteine in blood and methylmalonic acid in urine Folate deficiency: ↑homocysteine but no methylmalonic acid in urine
68
deficiency of intrinsic factor
pernicious anemia
69
defect in UMP synthase causing inability to convert orotic acid to UMP (in the de novo pyrimidine synthesis pathway) AR megaloblastic anemia in children that cannot be cured with folate or B12
orotic aciduria
70
oxidized free Hb
methemoglobin
71
How do you test for folate deficiency?
If suspect folic acid deficiency, give large histidine load and patient will excrete FIGLU in urine see bright red tongue too!
72
proteins secreted by the salivary gland and gastric mucosa (parietal cells) & bind B12
haptocorrins
73
RBC proteins
• Spectrin, ankyrin, anion exchange protein (band 3), band 4.1, band 4.2 and actin all participate in the cytoskeleton, giving the RBC its biconcave shape Function of band 3: exchange of chloride and bicarbonate ions
74
falsely elevated in anemia due to decrease in RBCs
reticulocyte count a properly functioning marrow increases the RC to >3% RC >3% suggests peripheral destruction
75
RBC destruction by macrophages of spleen, liver & lymph nodes (RES)
extravascular hemolysis see: anemia with splenomegaly, jaundice, increased risk of gallstones spherocytes in peripheral smear
76
hemolysis of RBCs within blood vessels
intravascular hemolysis see: hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria (iron), decreased serum haptoglobin schistocytes and increased reticulocytes on peripheral smear
77
AD: Mutations which deplete band 3, RhAG, band 4.2, ankyrin or spectrin small round RBCs with no central pallor increased RDW premature removal of RBCs by the spleen
Hereditary spherocytosis | tx: splenectomy
78
major energy source for RBC
glycolysis and pentose pathway shunt
79
highly condensed X chromosome
Barr body
80
Why does malaria grow poorly in G6PD deficiency?
ROS generation (glutathione depletion)
81
phenotypically "O" blood type but also have anti-H antibody
Bombay blood type
82
sugars that determine blood type
A: galactosamine B: galactose
83
> 20% blasts in the bone marrow
leukemia will also see decreases in normal blood cells (RBCs -> anemia; neutropenia; thrombocytopenia) Blasts in the blood are larger than normal RBCs and have large nucleus, little cytoplasm, punched-out nucleolus
84
markers for myeloblasts vs lymphoblasts
Myeloblasts (AML): MPO -> look for Auer Rod** | Lymphoblasts (ALL): tDt
85
accumulation of myeloblasts in AML has what major risk
DIC AML is a disruption to the Retinoic Acid Receptor (RAR) Treat with ATRA -> causes myeloblasts to mature to neutrophils
86
subtype of myeloblastic leukemia in which presentation is swelling of the gums (blasts invade gums) cells lack MPO
acute monocytic leukemia
87
causes of myeloblastic syndrome
prior exposure to alkylating agent or radiotherapy
88
neoplastic proliferation of naive B cells in older patient coexistence of CD5 and CD20 is characteristic (CD5 is normally on T cells) smudge cells
CLL
89
Why is there an increased risk of hyperuricemia & gout in myeloproliferative disorders?
high cell turnover
90
worst complication of CML
``` acute leukemia (can convert to ALL or AML) CML has a characteristic increase in basophils** t(9;22) generating BCR-ABL fusion protein with increased tyrosine kinase activity ```
91
proliferation of mature myeloid cells esp RBCs Granulocytes & platelets also elevated associated with JAK2 kinase mutation** Symps: blurry vision, headache, flushed face (plethora), ITCHING after bathing (histamine release from extra mast cells), increased risk of venous thrombosis
Polycythemia Vera (PV) Tx: phlebotomy (1st) hydroxyurea (2nd)
92
causes of reactive polycythemia
hypoxia from lung disease | EPO production by renal cell carcinoma
93
neoplastic proliferation of megakaryocytes assoc with JAK2 kinase mutation progresses to marrow fibrosis Slide: tear-drop RBCs, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes Increased risk of infection, thrombosis, bleeding
Myelofibrosis complications: splenomegaly from extramedullary hematopoiesis