Renal Disease Flashcards

1
Q

The _________ pressure gradient forces glomerular filtration

A

hydrostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___% of renal plasma flow is filtered into Bowman’s capsule; hemodynamic factors contribute to the filtration rate

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main parts of the kidney?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main parts of the nephron?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) affected by renal artery pressure other autoregulation factors of GFR such as…

A
  1. vasoreactive (myogenic) reflex of afferent arteriole
  2. tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)
  3. angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the effect of the vasoreactive (myogenic) reflex of afferent arteriole?

A

causes dilatation or constriction of the afferent arteriole to maintain stable glomerular pressure in response to variations in systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are the macula densa cells located in the nephron?

A

distal/ascending limb of loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the effect of the tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)?

A

causes dilatation or constriction of the afferent arteriole to maintain stable glomerular pressure in response to solute concentration changes detected by the macula densa cells in the distal/ascending Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What hormone allows for constriction where the arrows are pointing?

A

angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of the kidney?

A
  • Water regulation
  • Electrolyte regulation
  • Extracellular volume/pressure regulation
  • Acid-base homeostasis
  • Endocrine/metabolic
    — Kinins
    — Erythropoietin
    — Phosphate
    — Vitamin D
    — Renin
  • Blood plasma filtration
    — Glucose and amino acid reabsorption
    — Calcium and phosphate regulation
  • Excretion of metabolic waste
  • Urine production
  • Prostaglandin production
    — regulate tubular and hemodynamic transport
    — possibly fibroblast production in an immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is acute renal failure (ARF)?

also called acute kidney injury (AKI)

A
  • A condition in which the kidneys suddenly can’t filter waste from the blood.
  • Uremia results from the cumulative effects of renal failure, retention of excretory products, and interference with metabolic and endocrine function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How fast is the onset of acute renal failure (ARF)?

A
  • develops rapidly over a few hours or days
  • It may be fatal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is acute renal failure (ARF) common in?

A

most common in those who are critically ill and already hospitalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the symptoms of acute renal failure (ARF)?

A
  • decreased urinary output
  • swelling due to fluid retention
  • nausea
  • fatigue
  • shortness of breath.
  • sometimes symptoms may be subtle or may not appear at all
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the causes of acute renal failure (ARF)?

A
  1. Pre-renal
  2. Intrinsic Renal
  3. Post-renal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the causes of prerenal ARF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the medications that can lead to prerenal ARF?

A
  • ACE-I: monopril, captopril, enalapril
  • ARB: angiotensin receptor blocker, (Diovan, Cozaar, Benicar)
  • NSAIDs:Indomethacin
  • PPI: proton pump inhibitors Prilosec, Prevacid & Nexium
  • TTP-HUS, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura-hemolytic-uremic syndrome

anti- HTN medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the causes of intrinsic ARF?

A

intrinsic and pre-renal causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of postrenal ARF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the treatments for acute renal failure (ARF)?

A
  • address the underlying cause
  • cardiology and hepatology consultation
  • fluids
  • medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the causes of chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Chronic Glomerulonephritis
  • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • Neoplasms
  • Polycystic kidney disease
  • AIDS nephropathy
  • Diabetic nephropathy
  • Etc. (many others)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risk factors for chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Age (≥60 years of age)
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • HTN
    — poorly controlled
  • Diabetes
    — 40-50% of patients with type 2 DM will develop CKD
  • Nephrotoxins/Drugs
  • Infections
  • Low birthweight
  • Chronic Inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the pathogenesis for diabetic kidney disease?

A
  • nephron hypertrophy and/or nephron loss
  • glomerular filtration impairment
  • renal fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in those with chronic kidney disease?

A

<60 ml/min/1.73 m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diagnosis and Classification of CKD are based on…

A

GFR and albuminuria/proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) has a GFR of…

A

<15 ml/min/1.73 m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)?

A

Requires kidney replacement therapy (hemodialysis, transplantation)

28
Q

GFR steadily _____ with age

29
Q

What are the stages of chronic kidney disease?

30
Q

What threshold of GFR is “normal”?

A

90 or higher

31
Q

What GFR is stage 4 chronic kidney disease (severe loss of kidney function)?

32
Q

What are the possible complications of chronic kidney disease?

A

I. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
II. Hypertension
III. Cardiovascular Disease
IV. Endocrine dysfunction
V. Anemia
VI. Hyperuricemia (uric acid) and Uremia (urea)
VII. Dyslipidemia
VIII. Metabolic acidosis
IX. Mineral bone disorder (MBD)

33
Q

What are the issues involving fluid and electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Dysregulation of Na+, K+, and H2O reabsorption
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Edema
34
Q

What are the issues involving hypertension in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • RAS activation
  • Aldosterone and catecholamine activation
  • Hypervolemia
35
Q

What are the issues involving anemia in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Decreased Epo and RBC survival
  • Impaired iron absorption, blood loss
  • Normocytic, normochromic anemia
36
Q

What are the issues involving dyslipidemia in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Dysregulated metabolism of lipid and uremic toxin-mediated lipid alterations
  • Atherosclerosis
37
Q

What are the issues involving metabolic acidosis in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Decreased excretion of NH4+
  • Decreased absorption of H+ and HCO3-
38
Q

What are the issues involving mineral bone disorder (MBD) in chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Decreased vitamin D levels
  • Dysregulation of Ca2+ and PO4-3
  • Increased PTH and FGF23 levels
  • Renal Osteodystrophy, secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • Calciphylaxis – extraosseous calcifications
    ➢Blood vessels of dermis & subcutaneous fat
39
Q

What tumor is associated with hypoparathyroidism?

A

Brown tumor

40
Q

What is the level of HbA1c for a person with controlled DM and chronic kidney disease?

41
Q

What is the BP for a person with controlled HTN and chronic kidney disease?

A

<140/90 mm Hg
* Cardioselective beta-blocker
* Diuretics
* ACE inhibitor
* ARB
* Calcium channel blocker

42
Q

What is the LDL for a person with controlled diabetes and chronic kidney disease?

A

LDL <100mg/d

43
Q

What is the range of BMI for a person with controlled diabetes and chronic kidney disease?

A

BMI 18.5 -24.9 kg/m2

44
Q

What is the oral manifestation for chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Xerostomia/dry mouth
  • Halitosis
  • Dysgeusia (metallic taste)
  • Infections
    — Opportunistic
    — Periodontal
    — Odontogenic
    — Salivary
  • Enamel defects
    — Children
  • Uremic stomatitis (rare)
    — BUN (blood urea nitrogen) >55 mg/dl
  • Petechiae and ecchymosis
  • Osteodystrophy
45
Q

What is osteodystrophy?

A
  • Lack of hydroxylation of 25(OH)D to 1,25(OH)2D which takes place in the kidneys
  • Causes lack of Ca+ absorption from intestines
  • Stimulates parathormone secretion and Ca+ loss from bone
  • Inhibits bone mineralization
46
Q

What causes osteodystrophy?

A
  • Loss of lamina dura
  • Demineralization (“ground-glass”)
  • Expansile radiolucencies (CGCG, brown tumor)
  • Wide trabeculae
  • Loss of cortication
  • Sclerosis
47
Q

What does this patient with renal osteodystrophy show?

A

ground glass trabeculation

more blurry trabeculae due to calcium loss

48
Q

What are the two modalities for filtering the blood?

A
  • Hemodialysis (venous access)
  • Peritoneal dialysis
49
Q

What does filtering the blood do?

A

removes uremic toxins; initiated in ESRD

50
Q

What are the features of hemodialysis (venous access)?

A
  • Arteriovenous fistula
  • Ateriovenous graft
  • Central venous catheter (special, short-term)
  • Machine filters blood
  • Heparin is typically used
  • Every 2-3 days (three/week) ; 3-4 hours/session
  • Risk of infectious disease – Hep B; Hep C
  • Induces fatigue and dizziness
51
Q

What are the features of peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • Hypertonic solution in peritoneal cavity
  • Peritoneal membrane used for exchange
  • 3-5x/day or overnight
52
Q

Dental treatment planned for the
day ______ hemodialysis

53
Q

What type of matching is required for kidney transplant?

A
  • ABO matching
  • HLA matching
  • > 5- year life expectancy
  • Can be from live (better) or deceased donor
    — Related mismatched donor (3/6 match) is better than deceased donor
54
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for kidney transplants?

A
  • AIDS
  • Active hepatitis
55
Q

What are the different types of rejection with kidney transplant?

A
  • Activated cytotoxic T cells (direct)
  • Alloantibodies (direct)
  • Delayed type hypersensitivity – arteriosclerosis of transplant (indirect)
56
Q

What are the induction (prevent acute rejection) immunosuppressants for a kidney transplant?

A
  • Antithymocuyte globulin
  • Alemtuzumab (anti-CD52)
57
Q

What are the maintenance immunosuppressants for a kidney transplant?

A
  • Azathioprine
    — Antimetabolite
    — Inhibits DNA and/or RNA synthesis
  • Mycophenolate mofetil
    — Similar to azathioprine
    — Less bone marrow suppression
  • Steroids
    — Low doses, adjunct
  • Calcineurin inhibitors
  • mTOR inhibitors (mTORi)
  • Belatacept
58
Q

What are important adverse effects for taking immunosuppressants for a kidney transplant?

A

Cytopenias (bone marrow suppression)
- Bleeding
▪ Severe thrombocytopenia <50K
- Susceptibility to infection
▪ Severe leukopenia/neutropenia
— WBC <2000
— ANC <500

Increased risk of developing skin and hematologic cancers

59
Q

What are the oral adverse effects of taking immunosupression for a kidney transplant?

A
  • Gingival hyperplasia (cyclosporine)
  • Aphthous-like ulcers (mTORi)
60
Q

How do you determine the level of renal impairment and disease control?

A
  • BP – Avoid arm with AV shunt when measuring BP
  • GFR
  • BUN
  • Creatinine clearance
  • Serum creatinine
  • Electrolytes
61
Q

How do you assess the risk of bleeding with renal impairment when doing dentistry?

A
  • Patients can be at risk for both bleeding and thrombosis
  • Quantitative and qualitative platelet impairment
    ➢ Platelet count
    ➢ PT-INR
    ➢ PTT
  • Hemostatic measures as necessary
  • Be aware of signs and symptoms of thrombosis
  • Referral to a specialized center as necessary
62
Q

How do you decide if a patient with renal impairment needs antibodies?

A
  • Advanced uremia → decreased immune function
  • Treat infections aggressively
  • If invasive procedures in patients with stage 4 (severe) or end-stage renal disease → consult physician about need for antibiotics
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis IS NOT routinely necessary for peritoneal dialysis
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis may be necessary for patients with a synthetic AV graft
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary in hemodialysis patients if performing incision and drainage
63
Q

What drugs do you need to be careful with for patients with renal impairement?

A
  • Caution with nephrotoxic drugs (acyclovir, NSAIDs, aspirin, aminoglycosides, tetracycline)
  • Caution with opioids
  • Caution with benzodiazepines
  • Caution with antibiotics (amoxicillin, cephalexin, azithromycin)
64
Q

What are the goals of pre-transplant dental clearance?

A

Remove active foci of infection and limit potential foci of infection (think 6 months)
* Treat active foci of infection
— SRP
— Endodontic treatment
— Restorations
* Extract teeth with questionable (even if in your opinion minimally)/poor prognosis
* Assess caries risk and need for adjuncts (fluoride)
* Educate patient on importance of maintaining good homecare, diet and professional maintenance

65
Q

Defer elective treatment within first ___ months post-transplant

A

6

Emergency care only – consider specialized center

66
Q

What do you need to survey for post kidney transplant?

A
  • Opportunistic infections (odontogenic, candidiasis, aspergillosis, HSV, OHL, CMV)
  • Toxicities/side effects of systemic treatment
  • Cancer