Cardiovascular Disease II (HF, Valvular Heart Disease, Infectious Endocarditis) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of heart failure?

A

➢ Decreased pumping action
o Systemic fluid congestion
o Failure of vital organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the results of right side heart failure?

A

➢ Pulmonary edema
➢ Coughing
➢ Peripheral edema (arms and legs mostly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the results of left side heart failure?

A

➢ Affects all organ systems
— decreased kidney function contributes to fluid rentention
➢ Pulmonary edema
➢ Coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the pathophysiology of heart failure?

A

*Increased workload → problems with cardiac muscle
*Left ventricle typically fails first → can lead to right ventricle failure

  • reduced CO
  • decreased perfusion
  • blood backed up in pulmonary vessels
  • SOB, foamy cough
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • increased workload on R ventricle
  • volume overload
  • venous congestion, peripheral edema, ascities
  • ventricles dilate to try to compensate
  • activation of RAAS and neurohormonal responses to compensate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the effects of chronic heart failure?

A
  • coughing
  • pleural effusion
  • swelling in abdomen
  • swelling in ankles/legs
  • tiredness
  • shortness of breath
  • pulmonary edema
  • pumping action of the heart grows weaker
  • congested lung
  • enlarged heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the ejection fraction?

A

(amount of blood pumped out/amount of blood in chamber)*100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can measure the degree of heart failure?

A

ejection fraction
- Measures amount (%) of blood that leaves the left ventricle after contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a normal ejection fraction?

A

50-70%

or 55-70 (slides are contradicting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a borderline ejection fraction?

A

41-49%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a reduced ejection fraction?

A

less than 40%

or less than 35 (slides are contradicting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is systolic failure?

A

➢ Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (HFrEF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is diastolic failure?

A

➢ Normal left ventricular ejection fraction (HFpEF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are cardiac abnormalities assocaited with heart failure?

A

➢ Valvular Disease
➢ Arrhythmias
➢ Myocardial necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the decompensations associated with heart failure?

A

➢ Inability to compensate
➢ Increased peripheral blood flow
➢ Increased metabolic needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the predisposing factors of heart failure?

A

➢ Acute CVD
o MI
➢ Chronic CVD
o Hypertension
o Coronary artery disease
o Arrhythmia, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the results of heart failure?

A

➢ Volume overload
➢ Inadequate perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the complications with heart failure?

A

➢ Cardiac arrest (stops beating)
➢ Myocardial infarction (blood flow blocked)
➢ Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs of heart failure?

A

➢Rapid, shallow breathing
➢Inspiratory rales (crackles)
➢Increased heart rate
➢Distended jugular (neck) veins
➢Peripheral edema
➢Ascites
➢Cyanosis
➢Weight gain
➢Clubbing of fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the symptoms of heart failure?

A

➢Fatigue and weakness
➢Orthopnea – shortness of breath (dyspnea) in recumbent position
➢Exercise intolerance
➢Muscular fatigue
➢Weight Gain
➢GI distress - nausea, vomiting & constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A

distended jugular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is stage A heart failure and its therapy?

A
  • at high risk for HF but without structural heart disease or symptoms
  • ACE inhibitor or ARB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is stage B heart failure and its therapy?

A
  • structural heart disease but without signs of symptoms of HF
  • ACE inhibitor or ARB in appropriate patients; beta-blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is stage C heart failure and its therapy?

A
  • structural heart disease with prior or current symptoms of HF
  • diuretics for fluid retention; ACE inhibitor; beta-blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is stage D heart failure and its therapy?

A
  • refractor HF requiring specialized interventions
  • appropriate measures under stages A, B, and C; decision about appropriate level of care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the medical management options for heart failure?

A
  • Pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic (see previous slide info)
  • Patients with severe heart failure may require cardiac transplantation
  • Intermediate therapy is the Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In most cases of HF, the dentist will need to obtain a medical consultation with the patient’s cardiologist to determine…

A
  • The patient’s physical status
  • Laboratory test results
  • Level of control
  • Compliance with medications and recommendations
  • Overall stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The major issues for patients with symptomatic HF are…

A
  • Symptoms could abruptly worsen
  • Acute failure
  • Fatal arrhythmia
  • Stroke
  • MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What classes of heart failure do you see at UMKC?

A

class I and II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What dentistry can you do with class I HF?

A

routine dental care ok

31
Q

What dentistry can you do with class II HF?

A

medical consultation required, routine dental care likely ok

32
Q

What dentistry can you do with class III and IV HF?

A

consider referral to specialized care

33
Q

What are HF dental management considerations?

A
  • Short, “stress free” appointments
  • Chair position
    • patients with HF may not tolerate supine position (pulmonary edema)
34
Q

What should you do with a HF patient taking digitalis glycoside (digoxin)?

A

➢Epinephrine should be avoided, if possible
➢Combination increases the risk for arrhythmia

35
Q

What are the oral manifestations associated with heart failure?

A

There are no oral manifestations related to HF
BUT…
many of the drugs used to manage HF can cause dry mouth, altered taste, and oral ulcerative lesions

36
Q

What is valvular heart disease?

A
  • Compromised function of the heart valves
37
Q

What is valvular stenosis?

A

➢ Do not open properly

38
Q

What is valvular insufficiency?

A

➢ Do not close properly
➢ Associated with regurgitation

39
Q

At what frequency do valves open and close?

A

~ 85,000/QD @ 60/minute
~100,800/QD @ 70/minute

40
Q

What is fibrosis of valves?

A

➢ Stiff, sclerosis, stenosis causing either stenosis or insufficency

41
Q

What is myxomatous degeneration of valves?

A

➢ Benign loose CT tumorous changes where valves become floppy, prolapse, regurgitation
➢ Causes insufficiency

42
Q

What are the conditions that are risk factors for valvular heart disease?

A
  • high blood pressure
  • high cholesterol
  • diabetes
  • rheumatic fever
  • > 1 CVD
  • other
    — Calcifications
    — Congenital defects (bicuspid aortic valve, mitral valve prolapse)
    — Infections
43
Q

What are the signs of valvular heart disease?

A

➢ Murmurs
➢ Syncope
➢ Heart failure
➢ Shortness of breath

44
Q

What are the symptoms of valvular heart disease?

A

➢ Heart failure
➢ Exercise intolerance
➢ Shortness of breath (can also be a sign)

45
Q

What is the medical management of valvular heart disease?

A
  • Treatment is primarily surgical
  • Valve replacement (more common)
    ➢Mechanical Implants
    o Silicone
    o Requires long-term anticoagulation
    ➢Bioprosthetic Implants
    o Allograft , bovine graft, etc.; decellularized CT with a less antigenic structural matrix
    o short-term anticoagulation
    o Long-term antiplatelet therapy)
46
Q

What are oral manifestations of valvular heart disease?

A

no specific oral manifestations

47
Q

What are the dental considerations for those with valvular heart disease?

A
  • Assess ability to tolerate care in context of underlying condition and comorbidities
  • Assess Bleeding Risk
  • Infections
  • Drug Effects
48
Q

What is infective endocarditis?

A
  • infection of inner layer of heart
  • usually affects cardiac valves
  • was almost always fatal until development of penicillin
49
Q

What is the etiology of infective endocarditis?

A
  • precipitated by an infectious agent
  • turbulent cardiac blood flow and damaged endothelium or heart valves permit congregation of and infection by the microbes
50
Q

Morbidity from infective endocarditis accrues from…

A
  • thrombus formation and emboli
    • valvular dysfunction
51
Q

What is a thrombus versus an embolism?

A

thrombus - big clot (platelets or bacteria) in an area of endothelial damage
embolism - part of a thrombus that broke off and travels

52
Q

What are the high risks for infective endocarditis?

A
  • mechanical prosthetic heart valve
  • natural prosthetic heart valve
  • prior infective endocarditis
  • valve repair with prosthetic material
  • most congenital heart disease
53
Q

What are the moderate risks for infective endocarditis?

idk if we need to know this

A
  • valve repair without prosthetic material
  • hypertrophic candiomyopathy
  • mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
  • acquired valvular dysfunction
54
Q

What are the low risks for infective endocarditis?

idk if we need to know this

A
  • innocent heart murmers
  • mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation
  • coronary artery disease
  • people with pacemakers/defibrillators
55
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics are generally recommended for only people with IE in the _________ category

56
Q

What are the conditions that DO require antibiotic prophylaxis?

57
Q

What are the conditions that DO NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis?

58
Q

What are the five main conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
  1. Prosthetic cardiac valves, including transcatheter-implanted prostheses and homografts.
  2. Prosthetic material used for heart valve repair, such as annuloplasty rings, chords or clips (but not pledgets).
    3.Previous IE.
    4.Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart defect or repaired congenital heart defect, with residual shunts or valvular regurgitation at the site adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device.
    5.Cardiac transplant with valve regurgitation due to a structurally abnormal valve.

CHD, CNS, previous IE

59
Q

What are the five main conditions that do not need antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
  • Heart murmur (BUT!! If a heart murmur is due to specific cardiac condition, then antibiotic prophylaxis recommended)
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Stent or coronary artery bypass graft (cabg)
60
Q

For prosthetic joint implants…

Prophylactic antibiotics __________ recommended prior to dental procedures to prevent prosthetic joint infection

61
Q

What is the oral medication of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis in at risk patients during procedures that…
1.Manipulate the gingival tissue
2.Manipulate the periapex of teeth
3.Perforate the oral mucosa

KNOW THIS

A

amoxicillin (2g for adults)

62
Q

If the dosage of antibiotic is inadvertently not administered before the procedure, the dosage maybe administered up to ___ hours after the procedure

63
Q

What is the medication of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis in at risk patients that are unable to take oral medication?

A

Ampicillin (2g)
Cefazolin/Ceftriaxone (1g)

64
Q

What is the medication of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis in at risk patients that are allergic to penicillins or ampicillin?

KNOW THIS

A

Cephalexin (2g)
Azithromycin/Clarithromycin (500 mg)
Doxycycline (100 mg)

65
Q

What is the medication of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis in at risk patients that are allergic to penicillins or ampicillin and unable to take oral medication?

A

Cefazolin/Ceftriaxone (1 g)

66
Q

What medication is no longer recommended due to gastric side effects?

A

clindamycin

67
Q

If a patient is already taking a beta-lactam (penicillin, amoxicillin, etc.) for an active, existing infection then __________ strains have likely been selected

68
Q

If urgent/emergency dental treatment is necessary and the patient is taking a beta-lactam for an active, existing infection what do you do?

A

Prescribe azithromycin or clarithromycin

69
Q

If elective dental treatment and the patient is taking a beta-lactam for an active, existing infection what do you do?

A

Wait 10 days after completion of the antibiotic for their active infection, then prescribe amoxicillin according to AHA guidelines

70
Q

What is the written prescription for amoxicillin (one appt dose prophylaxis)?

71
Q

What procedures are antibiotic prophylaxis recommended due to liklihood of induced bleeding and bacteremia?

A

all dental procedures that involve…
- manipulation of gingival tissue
- manipulation of the periapical region of teeth
- perforation of the oral mucosa

72
Q

What procedures are not antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

A
  • anesthetic injections through noninfected tissue
  • taking dental radiographs
  • placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic applicances
  • adjustment of orthodontic appliances
  • placement of orthdontic brackets
  • shedding of primary teeth
  • bleeding from trauma to the lips or oral mucosa
  • simple impressions (alginate)
  • optical spans
73
Q

What types of “intervention” would potentially require antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Moderate Intervention
and
High Risk Intervention

74
Q

What is more likely to cause most cases of IE…
- Daily exposure to bacteremias during everyday activities (toothbrushing, chewing)
- dental treatments from dental providers

A
  • Daily exposure to bacteremias during everyday activities (toothbrushing, chewing)