Hepatic Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the liver?

A

located in the R upper quadrant

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2
Q

What is the largest internal organ?

A

liver

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3
Q

Where does the liver get the dual blood supply from?

A

➢ ~ 20 % Hepatic artery - oxygenated blood
➢ 80% Portal vein – nutrients

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4
Q

What is the common hepatic duct?

A
  • left and right hepatic ducts forms the common hepatic duct
  • drains bile from the liver
  • transports waste from the liver and aids in digestion by releasing bile
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5
Q

What is the common bile duct?

A
  • carries bile from the liver and the gallbladder through the pancreas and into the duodenum
  • part of the biliary duct system; formed where the ducts from the liver and gallbladder are joined
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6
Q

What are the roles of the hepatic veins?

A

drain venous blood from liver to inferior vena cava and on to the right

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7
Q

What is the role of the hepatic artery?

A

provides oxygen and nutrition to liver tissues

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8
Q

What is the role of the hepatic portal vein?

A

delivers substances absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract (stomach, intestine, spleen and pancreas) for metabolic conversion and/or removal in the liver

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9
Q

What is the function of the hepatocytes?

A

➢ Synthesizes proteins
- Immunoglobulins
- Albumin
- coagulation factors (most come from the liver)
- carrier proteins
- growth factors
- hormones

➢ Produces bile for digestion (via bilirubin)
➢ Produces cholesterol for fat storage
➢ Regulates nutrients
➢ Prepares drugs for excretion
➢ Responsible for drug conjugation and metabolism

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10
Q

bilirubin transported to liver by being bound to ___________

A

albumin
(unconjugated form)

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11
Q

bilirubin is from breakdown of…

A

RBCs

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12
Q

Liver conjugates bilirubin by unbinding the protein binding it to glucose; this conjugated form is in _________

A

bile

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13
Q

Bilirubin levels escalate from:

A

➢ Blood disorders - hemolytic anemia, sickle cell anemia, inadequate transfusions
➢ Chronic liver disease
➢ Blockage of bile ducts in liver or gallbladder
➢ Viral hepatitis, EtOH induced hepatitis; drug induced hepatitis, cirrhosis, etc.

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14
Q

What does increased bilirubin cause/what are the signs of bilirubin increase?

A

jaundice, fatigue, cutaneous itch, discolored urine, discolored feces

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15
Q

What type of metabolism is done in the liver?

A
  • Bilirubin conjugation
  • Phase I – cytochrome P450; can produce toxic metabolites
  • Phase II – conjugation (glucuronidation, sulfation, inactivation by glutathione, etc.)
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16
Q

What are the types of damage the liver can have?

A

➢ Hepatocellular (inflammation and injury)
➢ Cholestatic (obstructive)
➢ Mixed
➢ Cirrhosis (fibrotic, end-stage); acute or chronic
➢ Neoplastic

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17
Q

What are the types of liver disease?

A

➢ Viral hepatitis (A, B, C, D, E, non- A-E)
➢ Immune and Autoimmune (primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, GVHD)
➢ Genetic (α1-trypsin deficiency, Wilson disease)
➢ Non-alcoholic fatty liver (obesity, insulin resistance, lipodystrophy)
➢ Cholestatic syndromes
➢ Systemic disease with liver involvement (sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, TB, glycogen storage disease)
➢ Drug-induced liver disease
➢ Hepatocellular carcinoma
➢ Masses, cysts, abscess

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18
Q

What are the signs of liver damage?

A

➢ Jaundice
➢ Ascites
➢ Edema
➢ GI bleed
➢ Dark urine
➢ Light stool
➢ Mental confusion
➢ Xanthelasma
➢ Spider angiomas
➢ Palmar erythema
➢ Asterixis
➢ Hyperpigmentation

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of liver damage?

A

➢ Appetite loss
➢ Bloating
➢ Nausea
➢ RUQ pain
➢ Fatigue
➢ Mental confusion

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20
Q

What is xanthelasma?

A

fatty deposits on the skin (eyes)

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21
Q

What are unique findings associated with liver disease?

A
  • Xanthelasma
  • Spider angiomas
  • Asterixis
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22
Q

What is asterixis?

A
  • a.k.a. flapping tremor
  • classic sign in hepatic encephalopathy (HE)
  • jerky movements when hands are extended at wrists
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23
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy (HE)?

A
  • a syndrome of altered neurologic function related to dysregulation of metabolism seen almost exclusively in patients with severe liver disease
  • can be a chronic problem in patients with cirrhosis
  • acute exacerbations are rarely fatel
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24
Q

What kind of blood tests might a patient be referring to when they say they had a “blood test”?

A
  • Complete Blood Count (CBC)
  • Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP)
  • Multiple others available for specific patient evaluations
    — lipid panel
    — VDRL
    — PSA (prostate specific antigen)
    — SARS Ag, SARS Ab, HIV, Hep B, etc.
    — bleeding times
    — et cetera
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25
Q

What is a complete blood count?

A
  • evaluate the cells that circulate in blood
    — red blood cells (RBCs)
    — white blood cells (WBCs)
    — platelets (PLTs)
  • indicator of overall health
  • may detect a variety of diseases and conditions
    — infection
    — anemia
    — leukemia
    — lymphoma
    — neutropenia
    — etc.
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26
Q

What is a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP)?

A
  • aka chemical screen or, SMAC 14 (Sequential Multiple Analysis – Computer)
  • consists of 14 blood tests which serves as an initial broad medical screening tool
  • Includes
    — General tests
    — Kidney function assessment
    — Electrolytes
    — Protein tests
    — Liver function assessment
  • there are also SMAC 8, 12, 16 and 20 variants
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27
Q

What types of tests are available for liver function?

A
  • Bilirubin
  • Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
  • Transaminases
    — Aspartate amino transferase (AST or SGOT)
    — Alanine amino transferase (ALT or SGPT)
    — Gama-Glutamyl Transferase (GGT)
  • Albumin
  • Globulin
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28
Q

If the bilirubin level are high unconjugated (indirect), what does that mean?

he didn’t talk much about this

A

❖Insoluble, bound to albumin, not filtered by kidney
❖Increased SERUM not really indicative of liver disease,
❖indicates hemolysis, ineffective erythropoiesis (thalassemia, vitamin B deficiency, Gilbert syndrome)

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29
Q

If the bilirubin level are high conjugated (direct), what does that mean?

he didn’t talk much about this

A

❖Increased SERUM indicative of liver disease
❖Water-soluble, excreted by kidney
❖All URINE bilirubin is conjugated

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30
Q

What does a high alkaline phosphatase tell us?

A

o altered in myriad of diseases especially bone neoplasms
o not specific to liver disease,
o may indicate cholestatic disease

alkaline phosphatase involved in bone metabolism

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31
Q

What does a high bilirubin test tell us?

A

o Product of heme breakdown
o Increased total bilirubin, increased severity of liver injury

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32
Q

What does the AST - Aspartate Aminotransferase (SGOT) tell us?

A

–a.k.a. Serum Glutamic-Oxaloacetic Transaminase
- related to glutamic oxalate metabolic pathways

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33
Q

What does the ALT - Alanine Aminotransferase (SGPT) tell us?

A

–a.k.a. Serum Glutamic-Pyruvic Transaminase
– part of pyruvate pathway in cell metabolism

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34
Q

What does the Gama Glutamyl transferase (GGT) tell us?

A
  • needed for protein synthesis
  • useful to detect alcohol induced liver cell injury and chronic alcoholics
  • can detect the slightest degree of cholestasis
  • sensitive to biliary obstruction, cholangitis, and cholecystitis
  • good marker for pancreatic cancer, prostatic carcinoma, and liver ce
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35
Q

What does a high transaminase mean?

AST (SGOT), ALT (SGPT), GGT

A
  • Indicates damage to hepatocytes from hepatocellular disease
  • Not individually proportionally reflective of severity of liver damage
  • Up to 300 UI/L –> non-specific
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36
Q

AST:ALT ratios more informative: the _______ the ratio, the more specific an indicator of hepatic disease

A

lower

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37
Q

GGT more indicative of ___________ disease and __________ disease

A

cholestatic
alcoholic liver

38
Q

What does a low albumin test tell us?

A

❖More indicative of chronic liver disease
❖Not specific to liver disease
✓ Malnutrition
✓ Chronic infection
✓ Gut disease

39
Q

Where is albumin synthesized?

A

exclusively by hepatocytes
o Half-life: 18-20 days

40
Q

Liver produces all coagulation factors except…

A

VIII (vascular endothelial cells)

41
Q

PT measures which factors?

A

I, II, V, VII, X

42
Q

Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors:

A

II, VII, IX, X

43
Q

All viral hepatitis are RNA virus except….

A

HepB which is DNA

44
Q

What is hepatocellular damage?

A

host immune response to viral antigens rather
than direct cytopathic effect from virus
o Cytotoxic T-cells
o Proinflammatory cytokines
o Natural killer cell response
o Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity

Caused by viral hepatitis

45
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

➢ Infection may be asymptomatic/symptomatic and acute/chronic
o Patient may clear the virus or virus may become inactive
o Reactivation may occur
o When chronic infection but asymptomatic
❖ Carrier state (low levels)

46
Q

What can chronic hepatitis lead to?

A

o Chronic hepatitis can lead to
❖ Cirrhosis
❖ Liver failure
❖ Hepatocellular carcinoma.\
❖ Risk factor for immunosuppression

47
Q

How long can HepB last on an infected surface?

A

up to 7 days

48
Q

Incubation period of HepB

A

90 days average

49
Q

Chronicity of HepB:

A

o 90% for infants
o 25-50% in children (1-5)
o <5% in adults

50
Q

Vaccination for HepB:

A

o 3 doses (initial, 1 month, 6 months)
o Seroconversion necessary - What does this mean?

51
Q

Prevalence of HepC in injection drug users:

52
Q

Who should be screened bc of higher risk of HepC?

A

baby boomers

53
Q

What are characteristics of HepC?

A

➢ Has high risk for becoming chronic (75-85%)
o 10-20% develop cirrhosis (takes 20-30 years)
o Increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
o Increased risk of death
➢ HCV has higher needlestick transmission rate than HIV
➢ No vaccine
➢ Cure = undetectable HCV RNA levels after 12 weeks of recommended protease
inhibitor therapy
o Mavyret (glecaprevir/pibrentasvir)
o Epclusa (sofosbuvir/velpatasvir)
o Harvoni (ledipasvir/sofosbuvir)

54
Q

People can be _____ carriers of HepC

55
Q

What are characteristics of HepD?

A

➢ Usually coinfection with HBV
➢ More severe than HBV alone
➢ Higher risk of fulminant hepatitis
o Massive hepatocellular destruction

56
Q

What are characteristics of HepA and HepE?

A

➢ Infectious hepatitis, fecal-oral transmission
➢ Highly contagious and transmissible
➢ Vaccination available for HAV

57
Q

What are viral hepatitis considerations?

A
  • Most carriers of HBV, HCV, HDV are unaware they have hepatitis
  • Hepatitis can be contracted by the dentist from an infected patient
  • Chronic, active, hepatitis patients may have chronic liver dysfunction
    ➢ Increased bleeding
    ➢ Altered drug metabolism
  • Little to no risk exists for transmission of HAV, HEV, and non-A-E hepatitis viruses
58
Q

Hep __ is most likely viral hepatitis to be transmitted occupationally to a dental
health care worker, followed by Hep __

A

1: HepB
2: HepC

59
Q

How to reduce oral healthcare worker infection of viral hepatitis:

A

➢ ALL patients considered infectious standard (universal) precautions
➢ HBV vaccination
➢ in the 1990s with public attention to higher population incidences of Hep B, dentists
(and other healthcare workers at risk) got the vaccine (3 doses (initial, 1 month, 6
months); then 5 - 10 years later, the HBIg booster was recommended
➢ Most youth get the vaccine today, so there is less public concern;
but standard (universal) precautions universal precautions have helped control this
risk

60
Q

What do you need to determine of viral hepatitis?

A

➢ Circumstances of infection (age at onset, source of infection)
➢ Status of viral hepatitis
o Serology
o How/if treated
o Viral load

61
Q

What to do with patients with active hepatitis (acute or chronic):

A

➢ Defer all elective dental treatment
➢ If emergency treatment
o Consult physician
o Determine severity of disease and dental treatment risk
o Consider referral to specialized center
o Isolation may be necessary

62
Q

What to do with patients with history of hepatitis (resolved, chronic inactive)

A

➢ Consider risk factors
➢ Consult physician to determine liver status

63
Q

What to do if needlestick?

A

➢ Consult the physician
➢ Consider hepatitis B immunoglobulin → Why? What kind of immunity?

64
Q

What are oral manifestations of viral hepatitis?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Mucosal jaundice
  • Glossitis
  • Angular cheilosis
  • Extrahepatic immunologic disorders with chronic HCV
    ➢ Oral lichen planus
    ➢ Lymphocytic sialadenitis (Sjögren-like syndrome)
65
Q

Types of autoimmune hepatitis:

A

AIH-1: adult predominant
AIH-2: pediatric predominant (more severe)

66
Q

probably need to know this?

67
Q

What is drug-induced liver disease?

A
  • May be a cause as well as consequence of liver disease
  • Myriad of drugs may cause liver disease (e.g. APAP, clindamycin, etc.)
68
Q

What are the mechanisms of drug-induced liver disease?

A
  • Mechanisms
    ➢ Direct toxicity to hepatocytes
    ➢ Production of hepatotoxic metabolites
    ➢ Accumulation of drug due to altered metabolism
69
Q

What is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • not related to alcohol
  • decreased hepatic function
70
Q

What is alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • Alcohol as well as its metabolite are hepatotoxic
  • Causes inflammation which compounds the liver damage
  • Typically takes 10 years of excessive alcohol intake to develop
    ➢ Patients first develop fatty liver – reversible
    ➢ Continual alcohol use and ensuing inflammation can lead to irreversible changes
    and necrosis
    ➢ Eventually with continual use, fibrosis and cirrhosis develop – irreversible -
    leading to hepatic failure
71
Q

What are complications of alcoholic liver disease?

A

➢ Bleeding tendencies – alcohol can impair platelet function
➢ Unpredictable drug metabolism
➢ Potential impaired immune function
➢ Peripheral neuropathies
➢ Dementia and psychosis
➢ Anorexia

72
Q

What are complications of cirrhosis?

A

➢ Ascites – hepatorenal syndrome
➢ Esophageal varices – GI bleed
➢ Jaundice
➢ Hepatosplenomegaly
o Enlarged spleen due to portal hypertension
o Decreased platelet function
o Leads to thrombocytopenia
➢ Coagulation disorders
o Decreased synthesis of clotting factors
o Impaired clearance of anticoagulants
o Decreased vitamin K absorption (requires biliary excretion)
➢ Hypoalbuminemia
➢ Anemia
o Iron deficiency
o Macrocytosis
➢ Neutropenia
➢ Encephalopathy – neurotoxins not removed from liver

73
Q

How to ID alcoholic patients:

A

➢ History
➢ Clinical examination
➢ Detection of odor on breath
➢ Suspicious behavior
➢ Information from family/friend

74
Q

What are the effects of early on/mild liver dysfunction?

A

Liver enzyme induction may increase metabolism of prescribed drugs, limiting their effect

75
Q

What are the effects of sever liver dysfunction?

A

drug metabolism may conversely be hindered and drug toxicity is a concern

76
Q

AST:ALT ratio greater than 2 and elevated GGT suggestive of what?

A

alcoholic liver disease

77
Q

What are alcoholic liver disease considerations?

A
  • Patients with, suspected, active, untreated alcoholic liver disease are not
    candidates for routine, elective dental treatment
    ➢ Refer to physician for treatment
  • Oral neglect is common in those who abuse alcohol
    ➢ Pts should demonstrate interest and the ability to care for their dentition before
    any significant treatment is provided
  • Maintain good hygiene to avoid spreading of infection given reduced immune
    capabilities with advanced liver disease whether alcoholic or not.
78
Q

idk if we need to know this?

79
Q

Oral manifestations of alcoholic liver disease:

A
  • Neglect
  • Bleeding
  • Ecchymoses
  • Petechiae
  • Glossitis
  • Angular cheilosis
  • Alcohol odor
  • Parotid enlargement
  • Xerostomia
  • A patient with jaundiced mucosal
    tissues and breath that is sweet and
    musty is associated with liver
    failure.
  • Alcohol abuse is a strong risk factor
    for oral squamous cell carcinoma
80
Q

What is the number one abused drug in terms of emergency room visits, hospital
admission, family violence, and other social problems?

81
Q

What are general dental treatment considerations in liver disease?

A
  • Laboratory tests may be needed to evaluate the fitness of the patient for dental
    treatment(s)
    ➢ Complete blood count with differential
    o Platelet count is included in a routine CBC
    ➢ Liver function test which includes:
    o AST
    o ALT
    o GGT
    o Albumin
    o Alkaline Phosphatase
    o Bilirubin
    ➢ Bleeding studies
    o PT (PT-INR)
    o Bleeding time
82
Q

What to do if patient has active liver disease?

A

➢ Treat patient on emergency basis only
➢ Consult physician to determine status
➢ If severe liver disease and requires emergency treatment
o Consider referral to specialized center

83
Q

What to do if patient has history of liver disease?

A

➢ Age at onset
➢ Consult physician to determine status and medication usage
➢ Compensated disease or decompensated disease
➢ Assess other end-organ damage
o Gall bladder
o Renal
o Cardiovascular
o Hematologic disease (anemia, bleeding and prothrombotic states – failure to clear
coagulation factors –risk for Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

84
Q

What are PRE- operative strategies to deal with bleeding complications in a patient with significant liver disease?

A

o Consult with physician concerning liver disease status
❖ Defer if decompensated
o Review medications to assess other possible medication-related bleeding
risk
❖ Example: anticoagulants
o Request relevant labs and check results to confirm if safe to proceed
o If urgent and dental treatment is necessary and cannot be deferred, refer to
specialized care where other agents available to deal with a serious bleed
❖ Vitamin K
❖ Fresh frozen plasma (contains all coagulation factors)
❖ Platelet transfusion

85
Q

What are PERI/INTRA- operative strategies to deal with bleeding complications in a patient with significant liver disease?

A

o Perform extractions as atraumatically as possible
o If performing a scaling and root planing, do one tooth at a time rather than
an entire quadrant at a time
o Have local hemostatic agents available
❖ Surgicel, Gelfoam
❖ Topical thrombin
❖ Tranexamic acid
❖ Bone wax,
❖ Electrocautery
❖ Silver nitrate sticks
❖ Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) rinse
o Place sutures in all extraction sites

86
Q

What are POST- operative strategies to deal with bleeding complications in a patient with significant liver disease?

A

➢ Have patient sit in dental chair for 20 minutes after procedure and assess
that local hemostasis is adequate before sending patient home
➢ Explain verbally and have written post-op instructions available for the
patient
➢ Do not prescribe NSAIDs for pain management **
➢ Can give acetaminophen up to 2g daily in most cases for pain management **

➢ Supply patient with gauze to take home
➢ Reinforce the need to maintain clot in place (no straws, no spitting, avoid
talking and maintain soft diet for 2-3 days)
➢ Inform patient to call should bleeding persist; may need to go hospital

87
Q

Is antibiotic prophylaxis needed for patients with liver disease?

A
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis prior to procedures is not required if no oral infection is
    present
  • Patients with SEVERE LIVER DISEASE may need antibiotic prophylaxis (coverage)
    for invasive/surgical procedures due to decreased immune function
    ➢ Weight risk/benefit ratio
    Impairment of drug metabolism vs immune impairment
88
Q

Minimize or maximize use of drugs metabolized by liver?

A

MINIMIZE
➢Local Anesthetic
➢Analgesics
➢Sedatives
➢Antimicrobials

89
Q

Why minimize analgesics in patients with liver disease?

A

o Limit acetominphen (APAP). recommended
maximum daily dose for an adult is three to
four grams
o Higher doses may lead to toxicity,
including liver failure
o NSAIDs should be avoided. Why?
o If opioids are necessary, hydromorphone is
preferred choice- glucuronidation
o Avoid hydrocodone, oxycodone-
unpredictable metabolism

90
Q

What sedatives should be avoided in patients with liver disease?

A

o Avoid benzodiazepines
o Lorazepam – potentially used. Why? –> smaller 1/2 life
o N2O safer, if possible

91
Q

Why should you avoid metronidazole in patients with liver disease?

A

Do not drink alcohol with antibiotics
– metronidazole and 2nd and 3rd
generation cephalosporins -
Disulfiram effect

92
Q

Why should you be cautious with hypertension in patients with liver disease?

A

➢ Portal hypertension is a complication of cirrhosis
o BP can be significantly elevated with portal hypertension
o Limit epinephrine (epi)
o Do not use retraction cord with epinephrine
o thrombocytopenia (from platelet sequestration in the spleen)