Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome characterised by? (hint Protein LEAC)

A
Heavy proteinuria >3.5 g/d, hypoalbumniaemia, oedema and hyperlipidaemia.
Protein
Lipids
Edema
Albumin low
Cholesterol up
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2
Q

What dietary modification is of most benefit in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low Na diet

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3
Q

IgA nephropathy. Cause? Epid? Clin? RF? Dx? Tx?

A

IgA nephropathy may primarily involve only one kidney or may be secondarily associated with other conditions such as HIV infection, chronic liver disease, IBD or coeliac disease.

Patho
IgA nephropathy, the most common primary glomerulonephritis, is an immune complex disease in which IgA antigen-antibody complexes are deposited primarily in the mesangium.
IgA nephropathy may primarily involve only the kidney or may be secondarily associated with other conditions such as HIV infection, chronic liver disease, inflammatory bowel disease, or celiac disease. IgA nephropathy is the renal lesion of Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a systemic vasculitis most commonly seen during childhood.

Epid:
Primary IgA nephropathy occurs at any age and has a predilection to develop in men who are white or Asian. Approximately 20% to 30% of patients have progressive disease that can lead to ESKD within 10 to 20 years of onset.

RF:
Risk factors associated with progressive CKD include younger age at onset; hypertension; proteinuria ≥1 g/24 h; elevated serum creatinine levels; low GFR; and secondary glomerulosclerosis, chronic tubulointerstitial changes, and crescents on biopsy. Persistent proteinuria (≥1 g/24 h) and hypertension are two modifiable risk factors that increase the risk of progression to advanced CKD.

Clinical:
Most patients with IgA nephropathy are asymptomatic at presentation, with only microscopic hematuria and proteinuria discovered on evaluation of the urine.
A common presentation of primary IgA nephropathy is recurrent gross hematuria occurring synchronously with an episode of respiratory (“synpharyngitic hematuria”) or gastrointestinal infection.
This may be associated with acute kidney injury precipitated by occlusion of tubular lumina by erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts.
Less frequently, patients may present with the nephrotic syndrome or RPGN.

Dx:
Diagnosis is confirmed by kidney biopsy, which demonstrates mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis with IgA-dominant mesangial immune deposits on immunofluorescence microscopy.

Mx:
Corticosteroids with immunosuppressive agents and antiplatelet agents may be beneficial in the management of primary MPGN but more than 50% of patients progress to advanced CKD.
Treatment of secondary MPGN I is directed toward the underlying cause.

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4
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of PCOS?

A
Hepatic cysts - 94%
Mitral valve prolapse 25%
Abdominal hernia 10%
Intracranial aneurysm 8%
Colonic diverticuli
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5
Q

Which drug commonly causes AIN?

A

Antibiotics (Betalactams - pen, cephal, carbo, fluoroquinolones - cipro, norflox, moxiflox, sulfonamides - trimetho) and PPI e.g. ciproflox)

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6
Q

Patient with LVEF 16% and oliguric renal failure with symptoms. What intervention is appropriate?

A

Insertion of tenckhoff catheter for peritoneal dialysis, minimise risk of acute ischaemia.

Haemodialysis not suitable due to cardiac failure.

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7
Q

Which organism is most likely in a pt on peritoneal dialysis with abdo infection?

A

S. epidermis 50%

Culture negative infections 20%

Gram -ve 15%

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8
Q

T/F. Proteinuria is the strongest predictor of poor outcome in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

A

True, increases risk by 4-fold

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9
Q

Which antigen is targeted in Idiopathic membranous nephropathy?

A

Phospholipase A2 receptor (NEJM)

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10
Q

MOA Sirolimus? Indications?

A

mTOR inhibitor. Prevents action of B cells and T cells by inhibiting IL-2

Indication: post transplant anti-rejection, Coronary stents

AE: impaired wound healing, myelosuppresion, pneumonitis, infertility

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11
Q

Which circulating factor causes FSGS (Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis)?

A

suPAR (Nature, 2011)

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12
Q

In post-kindey tranplant, switching to sirolimus will reduce risk of death. T/F

A

False, meta analysis have shown there is a higher death ate on MTORi

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13
Q

MOA of Tacrolimus? Indications?

A

inhibits production of IL-2, a molecule that promotes the production of proliferation of T cells

Post allogenic transpant

Eczema a T cell mediated disease

Minimal change disease

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14
Q

What is the mechanism behind a metabolic alkalosis associated with vomiting in a pt with severe HF on a salt restriction and frusemide?

A

Chloride depletion from vomiting frusemide (NaCl) results in contraction alkalosis due to secondary activation of aldosterone hence Na retention for H/K excretion.

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15
Q

What test can you do to differentiate from primary and central DI?

A

DDAVP - urine osmo does not change in primary DI.

urine osmo will respond in Central DI.

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16
Q

What are the common characteristics of Liddle’s syndrome?

A

Hypertension, short and FLK

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17
Q

What are the common characteristics of Gordon’s syndrome?

A

HT

HyperK

acidosis

Rare

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18
Q

What are the common characteristics of Bartter’s syndrome?

A

Young

Dry

Like taking lots of Frusemide

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19
Q

What are the common characteristics of Gittleman’s syndrome?

A

Thiazide effect

Low serum Mg

Low serum K

Alkaloctic pH

Urine K increased

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20
Q

Mycophenalate is safe is pregnancy. T/F

A

False.

Switch to azathioprine 3 months before conception to reduce the risks of congenital birth defects

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21
Q

Live kidney donation is a better option for most patients with ESKD?

A

True, survival 1.5-2x better than deceased donor Tx

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22
Q

Post kidney function is 70% of predonation? T/F

A

True

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23
Q

Pt with renal artery stenosis on ACEI and CCB. BP not controlled. Next step?

A

Add thiazide

If not controlled on ACEI alone, add long acting CCB, aldosterone antagonist or BB.

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24
Q

In unilateral renal artery stenosis, when is revascularisation (stenting/angioplasty) indicated over medical therapy alone (must meet 1 of 4 criteria)?

A

Short duration of BP elevation prior to Dx of renovascular disease since this is the strongest clinical predictor of a fall in BP after renal revascularisation

Failure of optimal medical therapy to control BP

Intolerance to optimal medical therapy

Recurrent flash of pul oedema and/or refractory HF

Studies have indicated there was no significant difference in medical therapy vs revascularisation, even in pts with 80% stenosis

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25
Q

Pt pregnant, previous VTE due to Sx. Mx during pregnancy?

A

Clinical surveillance preferred over thromoprophylaxis unless multiple VTEs have occurred.

Threshold for thromboprophylaxis is lowered in the post part period as there is an increased with of VTE. 2-5 x more common beyond post partum.

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26
Q

Minimal change disease. What? Cause?Clinical? Dx?Tx?

A

Nephrotic syndrome associated with atopic diseases and lymphomas.
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. 10-15% adults.

A disorder of lymphocytes which release IgG and cytokines that alter glomerular capillary permselectively.

Cause:
idiopathic
NSAID related
paraneoplastic e.g. HL

Clinical
Significant proteinuria

Dx
•Confirmed with kidney Bx
•Light and Immunofluoresecence microscopy are normal. NO immune complexes.
•Electron microscopy demonstrates characteristic fusion and effacement of podocytes (visceral epithelial cell) foot processes.

Mx
Prednisone

If relapse, consider cyclophosphamide

If relapse or gonadal toxicity with cyclophosphamide consider cyclophosphamide

If fails cyclophosphamide and cyclosporin, consider rituximab

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27
Q

Loop diuretic resistance is due to? Tx?

A

increased tubular Na reabsorption in nephron segments other than the loop of Henle.

The decreased response to the action of a diuretic that results from increased Na reabsorption on other nephron segment has been called the diuretic braking phenomenon.

Tx:

Increase loop diuretic to BD, TDS dosing if patient has partial but adequate response to dosing

A thiazide diuretic added

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28
Q

T/F. Changes in the charge or size of the selective barrier in the GBM is involved in the pathology of nephrotic syndrome?

A

True

Nephrotic urine reflects defects in the selectivity glomerular ultrafiltration

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29
Q

In nephrotic syndrome, what is the protein loss due to?

A

glomerular proteinuria characterised by increased filtration of macromolecules across the glomerular capillary wall

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30
Q

Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome (membranous nephropathy, minimal change diseases, focal segmental glomerulasclerosis). What is the major cause of proteinuria?

A

Podocyte is the major target of injury - podocyte foot process effacement, slit diaphragm disruption and depletion of podocytes.

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31
Q

What is the pathophy of adult onset idiopathic membranous nephropathy and FSGS?
Pathology?
Cause?

A

autoabs to podocyte antigens

circulating factors like soluble urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor that activate podocyte integrins or circulating factors like cytokines or microbial products that may induce podocyte CD80

Pathology:
Focal =

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32
Q

What is erythropoietin produced in response to?

A

Synthesised in kidneys, in peritubular cells.

Erythropoietin stimulates proliferation and maturation of erythroid cells through ligand binding to the erythropoietin receptor.

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33
Q

Pathogenesis of contrast nephropathy?

A

Main mechanism of contrast induced nephropathy is intra-renal vasoconstriction.
Medicated by vasoactive mediators such as endothelin and adenosine.

Reduction in renal perfusion is caused by direct effect of contrast media on kidney and toxic effects on the tubular cells are generally accepted as the main factors in pathophys.

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34
Q

What is the most common organism in PD peritonitis?

A

Co-ag -ve S. aureus is the most common in Australia. (Staph aureus in America)

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35
Q

What is the most likely non-SCC malignancy in renal transplant patients?

A

Lymphoma

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36
Q

AG, normal range?

A

7-13 (traditionally 8-16)

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37
Q

Causes of Normal AG Metabolic acidosis?

A

Diarhhoea

RTA

  • If RTA cannot be distinguished from diarrhoea, calculate urine AG
  • Urine AG is +ve with NAGMA secondary to RTA
  • Urine AG is negative with NAGMA seoncardy to GI losses

CA inhibitors

Hyperalimentation with TPN

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38
Q

Causes of High AG metabolic acidosis?

A

ketoacidosis

uremia (CRG)

lactic aciodis

toxins

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39
Q

Pt with URTI, haematuria, subnephrotic range proteinuria and mesangial depositis that stain for IgA. Dx?

A

IgA nephropathy

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40
Q

Pt with hx of recent infection (any infection, but most likely streptococcal 2-3 weeks prior), haematuria, subnephrotic range proteinuria, red cell casts and ASOT normal, glomeruli have large sub epithelial hump like deposits, elevated. Dx?

A

Post infectious GN

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41
Q

T/F. Changes in the charge or size of the selective barrier in the GBM is involved in the pathology of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • True

* Nephrotic urine reflects defects in the selectivity of glomerular ultrafiltration

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42
Q

In nephrotic syndrome, what is the protein loss due to?

A
  • glomerular proteinuria characterised by increased filtration of macromolecules across the glomerular capillary wall
  • cytokine injury to podocytes and loss of charge on GBM
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43
Q

Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome (membranous nephropathy, minimal change diseases, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis). What is the major cause of proteinuria?

A

•Podocyte is the major target of injury - podocyte foot process effacement, slit diaphragm disruption and depletion of podocytes.

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44
Q

What is the pathophy of adult onset idiopathic membranous nephropathy and FSGS?

A

autoabs to podocyte antigens

  • circulating factors like soluble urokinase-type plasminogen
  • activator receptor that activate podocyte integrins or
  • circulating factors like cytokines or microbial products that may induce podocyte CD80.
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45
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults? Causes of primary and secondary? Presentation? Dx? Tx?

A

Diffuse membranous glomerulopathy

Primary

  • in situ immune complex disease in which the Ig of The IgG class react with constitutive or planted antigens in the outer aspect of the GBM
  • mainly adults > 50 y
  • 2/3 of pts undergo spontaneous complete or partial remission and 1/3 have progressive disease that may result in ESRF within 10 years

Secondary

  • SLE
  • Infections: Hep B, C, malaria
  • malignancies
  • NSAIDs

Presentation:

  • Nephrotic syndrome - think Protein LEAC
  • highest prevalence of renal vein thrombosis compared with other causes of nephrotic syndrome

Dx
- Kidney Bx shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular capillary wall on light microscopy and intra membranous electron dense deposits initially located in the sub epithelial aspect of the glomerular basement membrane on electron microscopy

Mx

  • Depends on mild, mod, severe proteinuria
  • commence on ACEI
  • If proteinuria 4-8 g/d, immunosuppresive therapy with cyclophosphamide/corticosterouds or calcineurin inhibitor
  • check cholesterol q1-3 months
  • commence anticoagulation of symptoms of renal vein thrombosis.
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46
Q

What dietary modification is of most benefit in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low Na diet

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47
Q

IgA nephropathy *GN). Cause? Epid? Clin? RF? Dx? Tx?

A

IgA nephropathy may primarily involve only one kidney or may be secondarily associated with other conditions such as HIV infection, chronic liver disease, IBD or coeliac disease.

Patho
•IgA nephropathy, the most common primary glomerulonephritis, is an immune complex disease in which IgA antigen-antibody complexes are deposited primarily in the mesangium.
•IgA nephropathy may primarily involve only the kidney or may be secondarily associated with other conditions such as HIV infection, chronic liver disease, inflammatory bowel disease, or celiac disease. IgA nephropathy is the renal lesion of Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a systemic vasculitis most commonly seen during childhood.

Epid
•Primary IgA nephropathy occurs at any age and has a predilection to develop in men who are white or Asian. Approximately 20% to 30% of patients have progressive disease that can lead to ESKD within 10 to 20 years of onset.

RF
•Risk factors associated with progressive CKD include younger age at onset; hypertension; proteinuria ≥1 g/24 h; elevated serum creatinine levels; low GFR; and secondary glomerulosclerosis, chronic tubulointerstitial changes, and crescents on biopsy. Persistent proteinuria (≥1 g/24 h) and hypertension are two modifiable risk factors that increase the risk of progression to advanced CKD.

Clinical
•Most patients with IgA nephropathy are asymptomatic at presentation, with only microscopic hematuria and proteinuria discovered on evaluation of the urine.
•A common presentation of primary IgA nephropathy is recurrent gross hematuria occurring synchronously with an episode of respiratory (“synpharyngitic hematuria”) or gastrointestinal infection.
•This may be associated with acute kidney injury precipitated by occlusion of tubular lumina by erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts.
•Less frequently, patients may present with the nephrotic syndrome or RPGN.

Dx
•Diagnosis is confirmed by kidney biopsy, which demonstrates mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis with IgA-dominant mesangial immune deposits on immunofluorescence microscopy.

Mx
•Corticosteroids with immunosuppressive agents and antiplatelet agents may be beneficial in the management of primary MPGN but more than 50% of patients progress to advanced CKD.
•Treatment of secondary MPGN I is directed toward the underlying cause.

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48
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of PCOS?

A

Hepatic cysts - 94%

Mitral valve prolapse 25%

Abdominal hernia 10%

Intracranial aneurysm 8%

Colonic diverticuli

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49
Q

Renal transplant: What feature of acute rejection has the worst prognostic implication?

A

Vascular injury .

Long term survival is base don initial response to therapy.

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50
Q

What are the recommendations for metformin dosing based on eGFR?

A

eGFR =45:
- continue use
Monitor RF q 3-6 months

eGFR = 30:

  • presecribe metformin with caution
  • use lower dose e.g. 50% or half maximal dose
  • Monitor RF q3months
  • do not start new patients on Metformin

eGFR

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51
Q

What is the most common infection post renal transplant?

A

E. coli

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52
Q

What is calciphylaxis? Tx?

A

Condition characterized by calcification of arterioles resulting in ischaemia and necrosis.

Presentation:
Excruciating pain
Violaceous painful, plaque like SC nodules that progress to ischaemic/necrotic ulcers.

Tx:
Multifactorial approach. Optimal therapy unknown.
Wound care, analgesia, avoidance of trauma.
O2 therapy 2-3hrs/d or hyperbaric O2 therapy.
Correct hypercalcaemia and phosphate
- phosphate binders sevelamer (non Ca containing)
If PTH high, cinacalcet
Parathyroidectomy if uncontrolled Ca and PO4.
Increased haemodialysis.

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53
Q

Post infectious GN characterised by?

A

Nephritis: proteinuria, haematuira, oedema, HTN and AKI.

Strep pharyngitis or cellulitis 2-3 weeks prior

Ix:
MICROSCOPIC HAEMATURIA with leucs and 24 hr urinary albumin of 227 mg.
(IgA nephropathy and Sickle cell disease present with gross hematuria)

Low C3 
Normal or low C4
Elevated anti-streptolysin O and anti-deoxyribonuclease B
Positive streptozyme test - most useful test as measures the 5 antibodies that may be elevated with a recent strep infection: 
anti-streptolysin O 
anti-deoxyribonuclease B
Anti-hyalaruronidase
Antistreptokinase
Antinicotinamide

Tx:
Supportive
Tx underlying infections
No evidence for steroids

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54
Q

What is ANCA (pauci-immune) vasculitis charcterised by?

A

ANCA +ve
Normal complement levels
Abscence of Ig on immunoflourescent staining of kidney biopsy

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55
Q

Antiglomerular basement membrane disease is characterised by normal complements. T/F

A

True

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56
Q

What is analgesic nephropathy characterized by on CT?

A

Papillary necrosis and calcifications in the renal papilla with irregular kidney contours and reduced size.

Due to long term use of NSAIDs, aspirin, codeine, acetominophen.

May present with flank pain, haematuria obstruction from papillary necrosis.

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57
Q

When is sevelamer indicated?

A

To reduce serum Ph in ESRF

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58
Q

What is Teriparatide?

A

Synthetic form of PTH used to treat severe OP.

CI in pts with hypercalcaemia.

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59
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome is most commonly associated with renal vein thrombosis?

A
Membranous nephropathy (disease of old)
Presents with haematuria and flank pain

Image with CT, MRI, duplex US

Commence on anticoagulation to salvage renal function

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60
Q

Muddy brown urine suggestive of?

A

ATN and related to the presence of granular casts in the urine

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61
Q

Red urine without haematuria suggestive of?

A

Medications or ingestion of beets

Haematuria due to structural lesion in kidnyy or urinary tract or from abnormalities of the BM.

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62
Q

Grains in urine suggestive of?

A

Urolithiasis

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63
Q

What is the most likely cause of a pt with fever, rash and acute injury after starting a new medication?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis.

Medications account for 75% of cases - Abx, NSAIDs, PPIs

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64
Q

What is the classic presentation of AIN? Tx?

A
Fever
Rash
Arthralgia
Peripheral eosinophilia 
AKI
White cell casts
Tx:
Cease medication
Observe
Renal Bx if no resolution
Can consider glucocorticoids but no RCTs
65
Q

What is ATN characterised by?

A

Hx of exposure to nephrotoxic agent or ischaemic injury from volume depletion
Urine sediment has granular casts rather than white cell cast

66
Q

Tx for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

1st line: ACEI to reduce protinuria + glucocorticoids.

If no response, then Calcineurin inhibitore.g. cyclosporine

67
Q

What is the Tx for nephrocalcinosis and hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis?

A

Prednisone.

HyperCa and Hypercalciura are common manifestations of sarcoid occurring in 10-20 and 30-40% of patients respectively.

Nephroclacinosis is the deposition of calcium in the kidney parenchyma occurring in 50% of pts with sarcoid who have renal dysfunction.

Thiazide diuretics CI as increase Ca retention.
Loop diuretics increase Ca excretion however not indicated in the Tx.

68
Q

How is morphine cleared?

A

Metabolised to renally excreted glucuronide metabolites (M6G abd M3G).
M6G is active and accumulates in the CNS.
M3G lacks analgesic activity but may cause hyperglycaemia and allodynia.

69
Q

Causes of nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome is usually proliferative disease: order of following diseases range from severe acute to indolent

Diffuse proliferative GN 
Cresentric GN 
- think ANCA associated
Focal proliferative GN
Mesangio-proliferative GN 
- think IgA nephropathy/HSP
70
Q

Cause of mixed nephritic and nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranoproliferative GN (aka mesangiocapillary)
- think immune complex disease e.g. SLE, endocarditis, HCV and
- thrombotic microangiopathy e.g. TTE/HUS/HELLP/DIC
- cyroglobulinaemia
Complement disorders

71
Q

What 3 test do you order when considering nephritic syndrome?

A

Anti-GBM
ANCA
C3

Anti-GBM (Goodpastures):
anti-GBM +ve
ANCA -ve
C3 normal
Immunofluorescence shows linear pattern of Ig and C3 (becaus it is on the BM!)

ANCA (Wegeners’, MPA, Renal limited vasculitis):
Anti-GBM -ve
ANCA +ve
C3 normal
IF shows pauci-immune pattern with absent or sparse Ig and C3
(pauci immune pattern will also be seen in non-immune diseases such as malignant HTN, TTP/HUS, atheroembolic disease and scleroderma)

Immune complex mediated disease (GN with granular IgG):
Anti-GBM -ve
ANCA -ve
C3 low
IF shows granular pattern
e.g. SLE, cryoglob, endocarditis associated GN, Idiopathic, post infectious GN, Drug induced

72
Q

Which immune complex mediated diseases (IF shows grnaular pattern) does not cause a low C3?

A

HSP

IgA nephropathy

73
Q

What are the 4 major causes of nephrotic syndrome? (MMAF)

A

Membranous - most common type in older adults
Minimal change disease - younger pts, hx of atopy
Amyloidosis
FSGS

74
Q

Membranous disease. Cause? Electron microscopy (EM) shows?

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Most common type in older adults.

Causes:
Idiopathic
Secondary - drugs, HBV, malignancy

EM demonstrates a thickened BM (hence membranous)

75
Q

Amyloidosis. Types. Cause?

A

AA or AL.
AA associated with chronic inflammation.

AL typically presents in older ppl and may or may not be associated with myeloma.

76
Q

What is the role of NaBicarb in the Tx of chronic metabolic acidosis in the setting of chronic renal failure?

A

Reduced progression of renal disease

77
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia.

What, Presentation. Tx?

A

Non-atherosclerotic ateriopathy affecting the mid to distal renal arteries (less commonly cerebral vessels).

Presentation:
Young females with early onset HT

Tx:
Treated with angioplasty

78
Q

What are the extrahepatic manifestations of HCV?

A
Glomerulonephritis (MPGN most common)
Thyroiditis
Insulin resistance and DM
Porphyria cutaena tarda
Lichen planus
Vitiligo
Seronegative arthritis
Cryoglobul
lymphoproliferative disorders
79
Q

What are the extrahepatic manifestations of HBV?

A

PAN
Membranous nephropathy or MPGN
Serum sickness like arthritis dermatitis

80
Q

What is the earliest physiological change seen in diabetic nephropathy?

A

Increased GFR then
microalbuminaemia, HT then
Proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome and decreased GFR

81
Q

Renal denervation, MOA in Tx of resistant HT?

A

Peripheral vasodilation

82
Q

What is the primary cell involved in renal allograft rejection?

A

CD4 T lymphocytes.

Main target of calcineurin inhibitors and IL-2 antagonists.

83
Q

Describe the process of CD4 T cell activated T cell.

A

CD4 T cell -> IL 2 activates T cell -> release TH1, TH2, TH17 and Treg.

TH1 produces IFN-y and IL-2
TH2 produces IL 4,5 and 13
TH17 produces IL17,21 and 22
T-reg produced IL-10 and TGF-B

84
Q

What does mannitol and cerebral salt wasting cause?

A

Hyponatraemia

85
Q

Pt with diabetic nephropathy presenting with oedema and weight gain. ACEI, CCB and frusemide. Tx?

A

Na restriction would be key to improve oedema.
Fluid restriction.
Add thiazide diuretic.

86
Q

MOA of acetazolamide?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, acts on proximal tubule. Weak diuretic and most of the fluid and Na will be reabsorbed further down the tubule.

87
Q

MOA of mannitol?

A

osmotic agent. Acts on proximal tubule.

88
Q

MOA of aldosterone antagonist?

A

Inhibits Na absorption in distal tubule and spares K.

89
Q

ADH antagonist. Examples. MOA? Indication?

A

Demeclocycline
-SIADH resistant to fluid restriction
Tolvaptan
-euvolaemic or hypervolaemic hyponatraemia.

Acts on collecting duct.

90
Q

What is the strongest single biochemical predictor of mortality in dialysis patients?

A

Albumin
Marker of mortality.
Decreases with poor nutrition and chronic inflammation

91
Q

Primary benefit of EPO in CRF?

A

Improvement in QOL.

No mortality benefits.

92
Q

What is the most common non-SCC malignancy in renal transplant patients?

A

Lymphoma

93
Q

In which part of the kidney does urine acidification occur?

A

Collecting duct

NH3 secreted in urine along the collecting duct and protonated and trapped as NH4+ excreted in urine.

94
Q

HUS. Ix results?

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia.
Schistocytes = fragmented Red cells, >1% strongly suggestive of HUS/TTP
Thrombocytopenia
Renal involvement - thrombotic microangiopathy -> elevated Cr

95
Q

What happens to the aldosterone:renin ratio is renovascular disease?

A

Reduced aldosterone to renin ratio

96
Q

What happens to the aldosterone:renin ratio in primary aldosteronism and CAH?

A

Aldosterone:renin ratio > 30
ALdosterone driven process
direct renin assay -> renin suppressed

97
Q

What is the Cockcroft-Gault equation?

A

Estmation of CrCl, not GFR
Uses age, sex, weight
= (140-age) x weight/ 0.814 x S..(umol/L)

Overestimates GFR in obese people
Especially inaccurate over 60 ml/min

CrCl is proportional to the patient’s ideal body weight

Plasma levels of Cr are lower in elderly patients and pts with profound muscle wasting
CrCl correlates inversely with plasma Cr therefore doubling plasma Cr reflects s reduction in Cl by half

Drugs such as Trimethoprim, cimetidine and probenacid inhibit tubular secretion and results in decreased Cr Cl

98
Q

DDx of hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis:
Hypertensive

Normotensive

A

Hypertensive (suppressed renin):
Hyperaldosteronism
Pseuo-hyperaldosteronism
- liquorice
- ectopic ACTH
- Syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess
- Liddle syndrome (AD, gain of function in ENaC -> Na absorption and K secretion). Causes HT.

Normotensive (elevated renin):
Surreptitious vomiting
Diuretic abuse
Na wasting tubolopathies
The urine Cl can narrow the DDx
- low urine Cl suggest normal renal tubular function therefore surreptitious vomiting or diuretic abuse.
- high urine Cl suggest salt wasting tubulopathy e.g. Bartter’s or Gittleman’s and diuretic abuse

99
Q

Metabolic alkalosis. Causes?

Causes with low Cl- vs. low K-

A
Accumulation of HCO3 due to:
acid loss 
alkali aministration
intracellular shift of H+ (hypokalaemia)
HCO3 retention

Common causes with low Cl-:
GI acid loss - vomiting, NGT suction
diuretics
diarrhoea

Low K:
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Drugs e.g. liquorice, laxative abuse
Barter’s, Liddle’s, Gittleman’s

100
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of 2-phosphoglyverate to phosphoenolpyruvate (penultimate step of glycolysis)?

A

Enolase

101
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for catalysing the interconversion of pyruvate and lactate?

A

Lactic acid dehydrogenase

102
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for phosporylation of fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase

103
Q

Which enzyme breaks down a phosphodiester bond>

A

Phosphodiesterase

104
Q

How can you prevent osmotic demyelination associated with correction of hyponatraemia?

A

Limiting correction of chronic hyponatraemia to

105
Q

In PCOS what is the main cause of RF?

A

Increase in the size of existing cysts which causes

  • percystic fibrosis
  • HT
  • tubular obstruction
106
Q

What is the best predictor of RF in PCOS?

A

HT

107
Q

what is calcitriol

(aka 1,25‑dihydroxycolecalciferol and 1,25‑dihydroxyvitamin D3) ?

A

Activated Vitamin D

- increases Phosphate and Ca absorption from the gut

108
Q

What are the limitations of eGFR?

A

as GFR falls, rise in serum Cr partially opposed by enhanced proximal tubular Cr secretion.
That is why there is a slight increase in serum Cr with the initial decline in GFR in early renal disease.

Cr is not accurate in acute kidney injury as it takes time for Cr production and the changing GFR to equilibrate.

109
Q
ATN:
Causes
Ix
Tx
Prognosis
A

Most common cause of intrinsic kidney disease causing AKI.

Causes:
Ischaemic event - hypovolaemia, hypoxia
Nephrotoxic agents - abx, amphotericin, tenofavir, pentamidine, NSAIDs, dye, Csiplating, carboplatin, Ifosfamide, heavy metals, lead

Ix:
Urine - muddy brown casts and high urine sodium with fractional excretion > 2%.
Otherwise urine is often bland.

Tx:
Maintaining adequate perfusion pressure
Discontinuing drug
Adjust renal dose meds

Prognosis:
Depends on original insult.
If mild, quick recovery.
Severe can lead to dialysis dependent

110
Q

AIN:
Cause
Presentation

A

Typically caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a medication.

Causes:
Drugs e.g. Abx, Antivirals, NSAIDs, analgesics, PPIs, 5 aminosalicylates.
MM
AI diseases

Presentation:
Presentation can be variable depending on drug. 
Classic (10% of ppl):
Fever
rash
Eosinophilia
Elevated sCr
Usually occurs 7-10 days after drug exposure

Ix:
Urine: leucocytes and leucocyte casts with negative urine cultures and erythrocytes

Tx:
Stop drug
Evidence for corticosteroids is limited. Considered if prolonged or severe AIN.
Is used, more effective if initiated earlier.

111
Q

Urgent dialysis indications?

A
Intractable Hyperkalaemia
Severe metabolic acidosis
Pericardial rub
Intractable fluid overload
neurological signs
112
Q

Most common AE of erythropoietin stimulating agents (ESA)?

A

HT, 20-30%.

Target Hb 100-115.

NOTE:
Erythropoeiten does not improve CVS outcomes.
Trials have demonstrated a higher incidence of thromboembolic events, stroke in T2DM, and faster progression to need for dialysis.

113
Q

What are the normal values for plasma osmolality, urine osmolality?

A

Plasma osmolality 283-293

Urine osmo >750

114
Q

Central DI:
Post fluid restriction:
Plasma osmolality
Urine osmo

Post DDVAP:
urine osmo

A

Post fluid restriction:
Plasma osmolality >293
Urine osmo 750 (Normal)

115
Q

Nephrogenic DI:
Post fluid restriction:
Plasma osmolality
Urine osmo

Post DDVAP:
urine osmo

A

Plasma osmolality >293

Urine osmo

116
Q

Chronic polydipsia:
Post fluid restriction:
Plasma osmolality
Urine osmo

Post DDVAP:
urine osmo

A

Plasma osmolality

117
Q
Partial nephrogenic DI or
Primary polydipsia:
Post fluid restriction:
Plasma osmolality 
Urine osmo

Post DDVAP:
urine osmo

A

Plasma osmolality 750 (Normal)

118
Q

What is Cinacalcet?

Indication?

A

Mimics stimulatory effect of Ca on the Calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) with the aim of inhibiting PTH secretion.

Cinacalcet lowers PTH and serum Ca in concetration dependent manner.
No evidence for mortality or CVS events

119
Q

Causes of secondary HT?

A
Phaeochromocytoma 
- elevated metanephrines
Oestrogen contining OCP
- normal renin and aldosterone level
Primary aldosteronism
- renin suppressed (renin
120
Q

Membranous nephropathy:

Presentation

A

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in whites and older adults.

Presentation:
80% nephrotic syndrome
50% microhaematuria
Renal function usually normal
Non specific ANA pattern may be associated
121
Q

Haemodialysis targets?

A

Treat acidosis

  • mortality benefit of treating acidosis
  • bicarb supplements slow CKD progression

Oral phosphate binder

  • reduce serum phosphate
  • high phosphate levels in chronic renal failure infers worse prognosis

Low phosphate diet does not work.
Calcimemtics improve biochemical markers but does not improve overall survival.

122
Q

Mechanism of aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity?

A

toxicity from accumulation and retention of aminoglycaside in the proximal tubule cells -> after several days develop defect in renal concetrating ability, mild proteinuria, hyaline and granular casts -> ATN.

Impairment of renal function almost always reversible given capacity of tubular cells to regenerate.

123
Q

What is the most sensitive marker for early kidney disease?

A

Timed albumin/Cr ratio over 24 h.
Gold standard.

Spot ACR validated for detecting microalbumniuria and easier to use in practice.

124
Q

3 days post renal transplant. pt has been oliguric since. MAG3 scan shows uptake of tracer in kidneys indicating good perfusion but no evidence of tracer excretion. Dx?

A

ATN

125
Q

In a pt with proliferative GN, which finding on Bx is most consistent with poor response to immunosuppresants?

A

Advanced glomerulosclerosis.
Glomerlusclerosis = scarring
Will not be reversible with immunosuppresion.

126
Q

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus toxicity?

A

HT

  • caused by renal vasoconstriction and Na retention
  • usually develops within the first few weeks of therapy.

Neurotoxicity

  • mild tremor common 35-55%
  • rarely severe headache, visual abnormlaities, seizures

Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

  • confusion, headache, altered LOC, visual changes, seizures
  • characteristic posterior cerebral white matter oedema on neuroimaging
127
Q

Diagnostic guidelines for ADPKD?

A

15-39y
>= 3 cyst unilateral or bilateral, spec and PPV 100%

40-59 y
>= 2 cysts in each kidney

60y or older
>=4 cysts in each kidney

128
Q

Diagnosis of ARPKD?

A

cystic dilatation of the renal collecting ducts, not the whole nephron like ADPKD

US: bilateral echogenic kidneys with poor corticomedullary differentiation

129
Q

Dx of medullary sponge kidney?

A

Malformation of the terminal collecting ducts in the pericalyceal region of the renal pyramids.
Cysts don’t involve the cortex.

US: uniformly echogenic corticomedullarly junction, non specific

130
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

Inherited mucocutaneous disorder
Benign harmatomas of multiple organ systems
Most frequent renal manifestation are angiomyolipomas

131
Q

MOA of oxybutynin?

A
Inhibits action of ACh on smooth muscle -> strong antispasmodic effect therefore:
increases bladder capacity
decreases uninhibited contractions
delays desire to void
decreases urgency and frequency
132
Q

Dialysis. Contraindications. Absolute vs. relative

A

Absolute:
documented loss of peritoneal function or
extensive abdo adhesions that limit dialysate flow
Absence of suitable assistant if pt is incapable of performing PD
uncorrectable mechanical defects e.g. irreparable hernia, bladder extropy

Relative:
Fresh intra-abdominal foreign bodies
Peritoneal leaks
morbid obesity
IBD
Abdominal wall infections
severe malnutrition
frequent episodes of diverticulitis
133
Q

Lupus Nephritis. Stages and Tx?

A

Stage I: Minimal Messangial GN (mild, no symptoms)

  • normal in light microscopy
  • immune deposits with IF microscopy and/or electrodense deposits by electron microscopy.
  • Good prognosis

Stage II: Mesangial Proliferative GN (microscopic haematuria/proteinuria)

  • mesangial hypercellularity on light microscopy
  • mesangial immune complex deposits
  • good prognosis

Stage III: Focal proliferative GN (Haem, protein +/- HTN)
- Involves =50% as above

Stage V: Membranous GN (nephrotic syndrome, microscopic haem + HTN)

  • characterised by thickening of the BM
  • subepithelial immune-complex deposits
  • Can occur in combination with class III or IV
  • Bad prognosis without Mx

Stage VI: Advanced sclerosing GN (progression, bland sediment)
- >=90% of glomeruli globally sclerosed without residual activity
Progressive unresponsive GN

Tx:
Stage I and II
- ACEI pr ARBs for proteinuria
- corticosteroids ot quinine in extrarenal manisfestations

Stage III, IV and V
- immunosuppresive agents (cyclophosphamide, mycophenalate and azathioprine) to induce remission, prevent relapse and reduce risk of progression

134
Q

Post renal tranplant. Recurrence rates of GN?

A
High risk of recurrence rates and graft loss.
Good pastures 100%
Mesangiocapillary type II 80-90%
IgA nephropathy 40-50%
FS sclerosis 20-30%
Meangiocapillary Type 1 20-30%  
And basically all the other AI diseases
135
Q

Post renal tranplant. Recurrence of metabolic and other diseases?

A
Diabetic nephropathy 100%
Fabry's disease 100%
Oxalosis 90-100%
Mixed essential cryoglobulinaemia 50%
Amyloidosis 30%
Scleroderma 20%
136
Q

What is the most common cause of death with a functioning graft post renal transplant?

A

Number one cause is CVS.
Followed by malignancy then infection.

CVS:
50x higher annual risk
3 fold incidence of CHF
3 fold incidence of strokes sue to cerebral haemmorhage

137
Q
Post renal tranplant infections:
1 month
2 months
3 months
> 6 months
A
1 month:
Viral - HSV
Bacterial- pneumonia, wound infections, catheter related
candida
Onset of Hep/C

2 months:
Viral - HSV, onset of CMV, EBV, shingles, RVS, adenoviurs
Bacterial - nocardia, listeria, Tb
Fungal - PJP, aspergillus, crypto later on
Parasitic - strongyloides, Toxoplasma, Leishmania, Trypansoma cruzi

3 months:
Viral - CMV retinitis or colitis, Papillomavirus, PTLD, hepb/c
Bacterial - Listeria, Tb
Fungal - cyptococcus

> 6 months:
Fungal - Cyropto
Viral - CMV retinitis or colitis, VZV, Parvovirus B 19, HHV-8
Polyomavirus (BK, JC)
bacterial - Listeria, Tb
Associated with malignancy e.g. EBV, papillomavirus, HSV,
Unusual sites e.g. paraveterbral abscess

138
Q

BK viurs nephropathy. Recipient risk factors?

Tx?

A

Infection a result of immunosuppression

RF:
Older
Male
Caucasian
DM
CMV infection
prior tubular injury
Seronegativity
Abscence of HLA-C7

Tx:
If BKV viraemia (in blood only), decrease immunosuppresion
If BKV in kidney Bx
- Tx with Leflunomide (mitochondrial enyme and TKI)
Antibiotics: cipro or Cidofovir

139
Q

What is the largest single cancer cause of death in Australia?

A

Metastatic SCC

140
Q

What is the most common golmerular disease worldwide?

A

IgA nephropathy

141
Q

Frusemide. MOA?

A

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Barter is due to a defect of Na reabsorption here.

142
Q

Can Frusemide cause hyponatraemia?

A

No

143
Q

Gittleman’s syndrome. Where is the problem on the renal tubule?

A

Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) where Na is reabsorbed by apical NaCl cotransporter.
Thiazide diuretics inhibit the NaCl cotransporter.
Gittleman’s is due to a defect in Na reabsorption here.

144
Q

RTA is characterised by a normal gap (hyperchloraemic) acidosis despite a preserved GFR. What are the 3 types? Tx?

A

Hypokalaemic:
Type 1
- distal
- inability to secrete H+ therefore urine pH >5.5
- nephrolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis, sjogren, SLE, PBC, AI hep.
Tx: Alkali and K replacement

Type 2

  • Proximal tubule
  • inability to reabsorb HCO3- therefore pH
145
Q
Tick bite (Lyme disease).
Forestry worker.
Erythema migrans - rash that is cellulitis. Tx for it?
A

Doxycyline

146
Q

Viral Meningitis. Most common cause of aseptic memingitis?

Most common bacterial meningitis?

Most common meningitis in immunocompromised, neonates, >50y?

Gram-ve bacilli?

A

Viral:
Enterovirus

Bacteria:
Strep pneum

Immuno compromised etc:
Listeria

Gram -ve bacilli
- head

Refer to MKSAP

147
Q

Empirical Tx of meningitis?

A

Dex + Ceftriaxone
If immunocompromised, >50 years, patients with a history of hazardous alcohol consumption, or patients who are pregnant or debilitated, to cover Listeria, add Benpen.

Add Vanc if ?MRSA

148
Q

How can you distinguish Gittleman’s syndrome from barter’s?

A

hypomagnesemia and hypocalciuria in Bartter’s

149
Q

Renin is secreted by?

Erythropoiten is secreted by?

A

Renin = cells in macular densa

Erythropoiten secreted by granular cell in the peritubular capillary bed of the renal cortex.

150
Q

TRPC6 mutation associated with?

A

cation channel dysfunction associated with FSGC

151
Q

Fanconi syndrome?

A

Disease of tubular dysfunction.

Presentation:
Aminoaciduria
Type 2 RTA
Rickets

NO GLOMERULAR involvement

152
Q

Renal transplant. Graft survival rates of first degree relative donors are greater than deceased?

A

True, 5-7% greater survival at 1 year

153
Q

The dose of dialysis is defined as?

A

The fractional urea clearance.

The efficiency os the dialysis depends on the counter current flow rate of the dialysate.

154
Q

What is the pain associated with urinary tract obstruction due to?

A

Increased renal blood flow -> distends collecting system or renal capsule.

155
Q

Which test is the GOLD standard for the diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis?

A

MR venography is the most sensitive and specific non-invasive test.

Contrast venography is the gold standard but is invasive.

156
Q

Which finding on urine microscopy is suggestive of a cholesterol emboli?

A

Eosinophiluria

157
Q

Treatment for Good Pasture’s?

A

IV Methylpred
Cyclophosphamide
Plasmaphoresis

Good[astures and Wegner’s have similar presentation of renal and pulmonary involvement. Differentiate by ANCA and anti-GBM abs

158
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Diabetic nephropathy.

o Altered basement membrane composition with loss of heparan sulfate that forms the negatively charged filtration barrier
o Mesangial matrix expansion
o Vascular changes with hyaline and hypertensive arteriosclerosis

159
Q

1st line therapy for pul HT?

A

Endotehlin receptor antagonsit e.g. bosentan or ambisentan