Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

In a pituitary adenoma, which is the first hormone to fall?

A

Gonadotrophins (sex hormones), then GH and ACTH. ACTH rarely falls due to an anterior pituitary adenoma.
Prolactin increases!

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2
Q

What is the Mx for a pt with metastatic insulinoma (inoperable) having hypos?

A

Somatostatin

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of a hot nodule (one are lighting up on technetium thyroid scan?

A

Activating somatic mutations of the TSH receptor

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperosmolar hypnoatraemia?

A

Hyperglycaemia

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5
Q

Is the urine dilute or concentrated in DI?

A

Dilute
Cannot concentrate urine in DI
Urine osmo > 600
Urine osmo

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6
Q

T/F. Hyponatraemia is associated with OP.

A

True

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7
Q

Vasopressin is an effective Tx for hyponatraemia? T/F

A

True

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8
Q

Hyponatraemia with urine Cosmo

A

Primary polydipsia
Low solute intake
Beer protomania

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9
Q

Hyponatraemia with urine osmo >=100. Urine Na

A
Means low effective arterial blood volume
If ECF expanded consider
- HF
- LF
- nephrotic sundrome

If ECF reduced, consider

  • Diarrhoea, vomiting
  • Third spacing
  • remote diuretics
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10
Q

Hyponatraemia with urine osmo >= 100, Urine Na >30 mol/L. DDx?

A
Diuretics or kidney disease. If no, then consider:
If ECF reduced consider:
- Vomitng
- primary adrenal insufficiency
- renal salt wasting
- cerebral salt wasting
-occult diuretics

If ECF normal, consider

  • SIADH (euovolaemic hypotonic hyponatraemia with inappropriately dilute urine and normal renal Na handling)
  • secondary adrenal insufficiency
  • occult diurectis
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11
Q
What changes do you get with anorexia nervosa in regards to:
LH, FSH, oestrodial and testerone
GH
Cortisol
TSH, T3, T4, rT3
A

Low LH, FSH oestrodial and tester one
High GH, low OGF-1
High cortisol due to hypothalamic-pituitary renal axis activation
Low/normal TSH, low T3, rT3 is high

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12
Q

Paragnagliomas. DDx for sympathetic PGL and parasympathetic ganglioma?

A
Sympathetic PGL 
- adrenal: phaeo 70%
- Extraadrenal 10%
Parasympathetic
- Head and Neck PGL. Carotid tumours
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13
Q

What is the management of a pituitary adenoma on MRI?

A

Basic WU - PRL, IGF-1
Macro, >1 cm 0.2%. Clinical evaluation for hypopit/hypersecretion, mass effect.
Growth over time occurs in 10%

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14
Q

Why is PTU preferred in the 1st trimester of pregnancy?

A

Carbimazole embryopathy

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15
Q

Why is thionamide (carbimazole) preferred in 2nd trimester?

A

Hepatic toxicity of carbimazole

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16
Q

How much should you increase thyroxine in pregnancy?

A

Increase by 30%.

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17
Q

What are the changes in TSH, TBG in pregnancy?

A

TSH decreased in 1st TM

Oestrogen increase TBG

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18
Q

MOA of Na-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibition?

A

Action on promximal tubule. Inhibits glucose absortpion -> glycosuria
Dabagliflozin/canagliflozin
Inhbits HbA1c lowering by 0.5-1.0%
No hypoglycaemia
200-600 ml extra fluid loss so caution with loop diuretic
Risk of genito-urinary infection esp women 8% vs 1%

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19
Q

What are the adverse effects of testosterone replacement?

A

Erthrocytosis/elevated haematocrit is a CI. Common AE.
Increased CV events in TT
Worsens untreated cases if OSA

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20
Q

Somatostatin analogues. MOA of Somatostatin, Pasireotide, Octreotide/Lantrotide?

A

Somatostatin act primarily through 1,2,3,4,5 receptor somatostatin subtypes
Pasireotide act primarily through 1,2,3 and 5 receptor somatostatin subtypes
Lantreotide/Octreotide act primarily through 2 SS receptor type

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21
Q

What somatostatin expression is excreted by a GH screwing, cortisol secreting, promactinoma and carcinoid tumour?

A

carcinoid SST2
GH-secreting - SST2 and SST5
Cortisol secreting SST5
Prolactinoma SST5

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22
Q

What are the risk associated with oestrogen replacement therapy in post menopausal women?

A

Stroke, VTE

Fracture risk decreased

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23
Q

What are the risk associated with oestrogen replacement therapy in post menopausal women?

A
CAD
Stroke
VTE
Breast cancer
Fracture risk and colorectal cancer risk decreased
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24
Q

Is transdermal or oral route preferred in post menopausal HT?

A

Transdermal as less AE

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25
Q

What tests are performed for Pheo? which medications interfere with the test?

A

24 hr fractionated catecholamines/metanephrines (sen and spec)
Plasma fract metanephrines (sen but not specific)
Interference - nicotine, paracetamol, sotalol, methyldopa, TCAs
Chromogranin A is secreted by pheo and elevated in 80% of cases

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26
Q

What are the Ddx in Hypophosphataemia in 24 hour urine low PO4 and high PO4?

A

Low urine = appropriate = intestinal (decreased intake, EtOH, Vit D def, PO4 binders) or cellular shift (referring syndrome, glucose infusion, salicylate poison, hyperventillation, catecholamines, resp alkalosis)
High urine = inappropriate = renal wasting -> HPTH or tubular defect e.g. FGF23 medicated Tumour induced osteomalacia if 1,25D low

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27
Q

What are the most specific signs of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Skin atrophy
Striae
Easy brusing
Proximal myopathy

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28
Q

What are the expected levels (high/low) for the following disease for ACTH, Cortisol, High dose DST, MRI?

Cushing’s disease
Ectopic ACTH
Adrenal adenoma
Adrenal carcinoma
Iatrogenic glucocorticoids
Primary adrenal insufficiency 
Secondary adrenal insufficiency
A

Cushing’s disease - ACTH normal/high, Cortisol high, DST suppressible, MRI adenoma

Ectopic ACTH - ACTH high, cortisol high, DST not suppressible, MRI NAD

Adrenal adenoma - ACTH low, cortisol high, DST N/A, Adenoma

Adrenal carcinoma- ACTH low, cortisol high, DST N/A, carcinoma

Iatrogenic glucocorticoids - Low/undetectable ACTH, cortisol low/undetectable, urine cortisol high

Primary adrenal insufficiency - ACTH high, cortisol low

Secondary adrenal insufficiency - ACTH low/Normal, cortisol low

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29
Q

Which drug can induce Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ARVT in HIV

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30
Q

What changes do you expect with Renin and Aldosterone in:

  1. primary hyperaldosteronism e.g. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia 60%, Conn’s 35%, familial hyper, pure aldos producing adenoma
  2. secondary hyperaldosteronism e.g. renal artery stenosis, diurectis
  3. apparent mineralocorticoid excess?e.g. exogenous mineralo, cushing’s sydnrome, Licorice, Liddle (activating mutation of collecting tubule sodium channel
A

1 = renin low, aldosterone high

  1. Renin high, aldosterone high
  2. renin low, aldosterone low
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31
Q

Pt has been on zoledronic acid for 3 years or 5 years of alendronate/risedronate. Nest step?

A

If DEXA -2.5, can cease Tx and DEXA in 2 years

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32
Q

When should you start bisphosphonate on a pt on steroid therapy?

A

If > 3months duration and > 7.5 mg/d with T score

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33
Q

MOA PTU?

A

blocks conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine in peripheral tissue
does not inactivate existing thyroxine and triiodothyronine stores in circulating blood)

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34
Q

MOA Carbimazole?

A

a prodrug after absorption and is converted to the active form methimazole. Prevents thyroid peroxide enzyme by couling and iodinating tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin hence reducing the production of T3 and T4 (thyroxine)

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35
Q

Tx of thyroid storm (Thyrotoxicosis crisis)?

A

Most important management is large amounts of glucocorticoids
IV propanolol to interrupt the physiologic response to excess thyroid hormone
High dose thionamide (PTU or carbimazole) to block new hormone synthesis
Iodide - blocks release of preformed hormones
Iodinated contrast agent, propanolol and corticosteroids to block peripheral conversion of T4-T3
PTU blocks conversion but not carbimazole.

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36
Q

Klinefelters. Genetic mutation, Clinical presentation?

A

The most common congenital abnormality causing primary hypogonadism.
Most common genotype is 47, XXy, extra X chromosome.
Clinical:
Gynaecomastia
Small firm testes
Behavioural and learning abnormalities
Shy, tall, awkward

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37
Q

Fragile X. Mutation? Clinical presentation?

A

X-linked disorder.
Most fequent form of inherited intellectual disability.
Caused by decreased or absent levels of fragile X mental retardation protein (FMRP) due to loss of function mutation in the fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1) gene located at Xq27.3.
Loss of function caused by unstable expansion of CGG repeat at 5’untranlated region.

Clinical:
Long and narrow face
Prominent forehead and chin (prognathism)
large ears
testicular enlargement (vol > 25 ml)
Developmental delay
Delayed language development
ADHD, anxiety and ASD
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38
Q

Benefits of metformin?

A
Glycaemic efficacy
No weight gain
No hypos
General tolerability
Favourable cost
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39
Q

T1DM having elective procedure. Mx of long acting basal insulin the night before?

A

Halve the dose

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40
Q

MOA of insulin?

A

Insulin binds to heterotetrameric receptor on the cell membrane of target cells.
Binding results in conformational change of the alpha-subunits that enables ATP binding to the beta subunits intracellular domain.
ATP binding leads to activation of a tyrosine kinase in the beta subunit that autophosphorylates the receptor.
The phosphorylated receptor in turn phosphorylates other protein substrates beginning with insulin receptor substrate 1 and 2.

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41
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

A condition associated primarily with resistance to the parathyroid hormone.
Pts have low calcium and high phosphate
PTH is appropriately high due to hypoclacaemia

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42
Q

MOA of Biguanides, sulfonylureas, Thiazoledinediones, DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 analogs

A

Biguanides
- increase insulin sensitivity, reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, increases peripheral glucose uptake

Sulfonylureas
- stimulate insulin release from pancreatic B cells

Thiazoledinediones
- bind and activate PPAR-y receptors which contributes to decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing peripheral insulin sensitivity

DPP-4 inhibitors e.g. sitagliptin
Inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase‑4 (DPP‑4) thereby increasing the concentration of the incretin hormones glucagon-like peptide‑1 and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide; glucose-dependent insulin secretion is increased and glucagon production reduced.

GLP-1 analogs - act like human GLP-1, increases insulin and inhibits glucagon

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43
Q

What is the most specific test for the Dx of GH deficiency?

A

IGF-1 measured in an insulin tolerance test

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44
Q

What is the earliest sign of renal disease n T1DM?

A

microalbuminaemia

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45
Q

Which hormone is first affected in pituitary apoplexy?

A

ACTH -> lack of cortisol and features of addisonoian crisis i.e. hypotension, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia and hyperkalaemia
Then TSH and LH, FSH

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46
Q

What is the first hormone affected in anterior pituitary adenoma?

A

Gonadatrophin (LHand FSH) first to fall then
GH then ACTH.

ACTH rarely falls due to an anterior pit adenoma.

If you disconnect the pit from the hypothal (Sx or injury) all releasing anterior hormones are cut off therefore levels will fall.
Prolactin will increase as dopamine inhibition is lost.

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47
Q

How does the hypothalamus control the ant and post pituitary?

A

Anterior pit by means of hormones

Post pit by direct nerve stimulation (neurohypophysis)

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48
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

A post partum infarct of the pituitary that results in anterior hypopit and sometime affects the post put causing Central DI.
Suspect in postpartum pt with electrolyte disturbance and low TSH.

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49
Q

Pt with Grave’s disease. FNAC of nodule reveals atypic of undetermined significance (Bethesda category 3). Nodule shows benign sonographic characteristics. Mx?

A

Total thyroidectomy.

High risk of malignancy.

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50
Q

Thyroid nodule shows atypical cells of undetermined significance (ACUS) or Follicular lesions of undetermined significance (FLUS). Mx?

A

Repeat FNA in 2-3 months.

If ACUS/FLUS, Sx based on clinical grounds (size, growth, pattern) or molecular testing.

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51
Q
What is the role of the following in Glucose control. 
Glucagon
GH
Cortisol
Adrenaline
GLP-1
A

Glucagon - promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis (break down glycogen to glucose)

GH - promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis (break down glycogen to glucose)

Cortisol - Promotes gluconeogenesis and increases insulin resistance by decreasing translocation of GLUT4 receptors. However it also increases glycogen synthesis (as does insulin)

Adrenaline - reduces awareness to hypoglycaemia and can be explained by decreased sensitivity of B-adrenergic receptors in long standing DM

GLP-1 - incretin, not a hormone e.g. exanatide and liraglutide.
Increases insulin secretion from the pancreas in a glucose dependent manner.
Decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas by engagement of a specific G-protein coupled receptor.

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52
Q

What is the most common hormone secreted by pituitary adenoma? Followed by..

A
Prolactin (lactotroph adenomas), 44%
Results in hypogonadism in male and females
Non- functioning adenomas, 22%
Somatotroph (GH) adenomas, 8.6
Corticotroph (ACTH), 1.2
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53
Q

What best explains the MOA of PTH in increasing the serum calcium concentration?

A

Stimulates the synthesis of 1-alpha hydroxylase in the proximal tubules and thus the conversion of calcidiol to calcitriol (1,25 DH).
Increasing the reabsorption of calcium from the renal tubules leading to increased intestinal absorption, increased bone resorption and decreased renal calcium excretion and increased phosphate excretion.

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54
Q

Hormone profile of premature ovarian failure?

A

high FSH and low oetrodial

normal LH and 17-OH progesterone

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55
Q

Hormone profile of menopause?

A

High FSH

Low oestrodial due to negative feedback,

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56
Q

Role of FSH?

A

Females- responsible for the early growth of follicles (follicle stimulating hormone). Produced by granulosa cells if the ovaries by aromatisation.
Males - maintains the spermatogenic epithelium by stimulating Sertoli cells

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57
Q

Role of LH?

A

Females - responsible for the final maturation of the ovarian follicles and subsequent oestrogen secretion from them
Males - trophic to the Leydig cells which secrete testosterone into the bloodstream

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58
Q

How do prolactinomas cause ammenorrhea?

A

Inhibit FSH and LH vis inhibition of GnRH so these hormones are usually low to normal rather than elevated

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59
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Defect? Presentation? Dx?

A

Recessive condition. Defective conversion of 17 alpha hydroxyprogesterone to 11-deoxycortisol ->decrease cortisol -> increase ACTH -> normal cortisol but increase androgens.

Presentation:
Females present as:
Ambiguous genitalia 
clitoral enlargement
common urethral vaginal orifice 
Males present as:
salt losing adrenal crisis (hypoNa, HyperK andFTT) 

Dx: measure 17-hydroxyprogesterone (precursor in the pathway), a substrate for 21 hydroxylase. very high levels is diagnostic.
Then ACTH stimulation test is the GOLD standard -> increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone

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60
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism, Aetiology? Ix findings?

A
Parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasia
Ix:
Elevated PTH
Raised plasma and urinary Ca
ALP elevated
Phosphate reduced
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61
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism. Aetiology? Ix findings?

A

Compensatory hypertrophy of all four glands due to hypocalcaemia (due to CKD or malabsorption)

Ix:
PTH elevated
Ca low or normal

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62
Q

What secretes PTH-related protein? Ix findings?

A

Secreted by squamous cell tumours, breast and renal tumours
Responsible for 80% of hypercalcaemia in malignancy and acts on same receptors as PTH
Serum Ca raised and PTH low

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63
Q

Steps in thyroid hormone synthesis.

A
  1. Iodide trapping by the thyroid follicular cells
  2. Diffusion of iodide to the apex of cells
  3. Transport of iodide into the colloid
  4. Oxidation of inorganic iodide to iodine and incorporation of iodine into tyrosine residues within thyroglobulin molecules in the colloid
  5. combination of 2 diiodothyrosine (DIT) molecules to form a tetraiodothyronine (thyroxine, T4) or MIT with DIT to for a triiodothyronine (T3)
  6. Uptake of thyroglobulin from colloid not follicular cell by endocytosis, fusion of thyroglobulin with a lysosome and photolysis and release of T4, T3, DIT and MIT
  7. release of T4 and T3 into the circulation
  8. Deiodination of DIT and MIT to yield tyrosine
    T3 is formed from monodeiodination of T4 in the thyroid and in peripheral tissues
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64
Q

Steps in Vitamin D synthesis.

A

Vitamin D3 absorbed from skin, D2 from dietary intake
Converted in liver to Calcidiol, 25- hydroxyvitamin D
Converted in kidney to Calcitriol, 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D
Calcitriol causes increased intestinal absorption of Ca, increase bone resorption and decreased renal calcium and phosphate excretion.
Calcitriol mediates its biopic effects by binding to Vitamin D receptor.
Vitamin D binds to RANK on osteoclast inducing bone resorption.

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65
Q

What is the Mx of gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin for Type 1 and 2 DM.
Metformin - crosses placenta. No evidence it is harmful but not recommended.
Gliblecanide - limited passage to placenta but can cause neonatal hypoglycaemia and therefore not recommended

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66
Q

Antihypertensive recommended in pregnancy?

A

Methyldopa

ACEI teratogenic

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67
Q

Post pregnancy hyperglycaemia in pt with T1DM. Cause?

A

Insulin resistance common feature of late pregnancy and is a necessary adaptation to allow provision of maternal nutrients to the growing effects.

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68
Q

What is insulin site lipoatrophy?

A

Complication associated with all types of insulin and estimated prevalence of 3.6%.
Could lead to erratic insulin absorption

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69
Q

What is the role of adiponectin?

A

an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by adipocytes
Enhances insulin sensitivity
In liver, inhibits gluconeogenic enzymes
In muscle, increases glucose tranport and enhances fatty acid oxidation
reduced in metabolic syndrome

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70
Q

Role of Grehlin?

A

Stimulates recreation of GH, increases food intake and produces weight gain
Most abundant in the gastric funds and levels decrease after eating

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71
Q

Role of Glucagon like peptide 1? AE?

A

stimulating glucose dependent insulin release from the pancreatic islets
Restores 1st and second phase insulin response to glucose
Slows gastric emptying, inhibit inappropriate post meal glucagon release and reduce food intake
N/V and weight loss

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72
Q

MOA of Leptin?

A

Decreases content of neuropeptide Y (potent stimulator of food intake) and increases the content of alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone (in hypothalamus) to inhibit food intake

73
Q

Role of Peptide YY?

A

Produced in ileum, stimulated by incomplete digested nutrients.
Inhibits vaguely stimulated gastric acid secretion.
Inhibits gastric emptying and intestinal motility ti delay delivery of additional food to the intestine.
Do Not Confuse with Neuropeptide Y, a potent stimulator of food intake!

74
Q

What are the LH and FSH concentrations in primary vs. secondary hypogonadism?

A

Primary (testes):
FSH and LH increased to try and increase hormones

Secondary (pituitary ir hypothalamus):
FSH and LH normal to low

75
Q

Clinical features of hypogadasim?

A

Decreased testicular size, normal vol is 20-25 ml

Infertility

76
Q

What is the common cause for abnormality in binding of testosterone to sex hormone binding globulin?

A

Obesity

77
Q

What do you measure if you suspect hypogonadism?

A

Total serum testosterone:
testosterone reaches max at 8am and min at 8pm

Sperm analysis:
Normal is > 15 million sperm/ml
Normal more than 40% motile

LH
FSH

78
Q

Tx for hyogonadism? CI to therapy?

A

Methyltestosterone - metabolised slowly by liver
Long acting testosterone IM q10-14 weeks

CI:
Prostate or breast cancer
LUTs
HCT > 50
Uncontrolled HF
79
Q

Mx of Gestational DM. Monitoring, BSL targets, Tx?

A

Measure post prandial BSL QID

Targets are:
Fasting 5.3 or less
1 hr post prandial - 7.8 or less
2 hr post prandial 6.7 or less

Tx:
Diet and exercise.
Basal bolus
Mixed insulin regime BD
Glibenclamide and met form increasingly used.
Gliblenclamide causes neontal hypos
Metformin crosses placenta, no long term AE known

80
Q

How is growth hormone secreted?

A

Pulsatile

Peak hormone activity occurs one hr after sleep

Exercise, trauma, sepsis and low BSL stimulate secretion

81
Q

How is insulin secreted?

A

Basal (unstimulated) insulin is pulsatile with a periodicity if 9-14 minutes

Loss of pulsatile secretion is one the earliest signs of beta cell dysfunction is patients destined to have T1DM

82
Q

How is adrenaline secreted?

A

Resting concentrations are normally

83
Q

How is testosterone secreted?

A

In young adult men testosterone levels begin to rise on falling asleep and peak at about the 1st time of REM and remain at the same levels until awakening

84
Q

HypoNa: Electrolyte profile for Primary polydipsia?

A

Urine Na

85
Q

HypoNa: Electrolyte profile for SIADH?

A
Serum osmo > 100 but less than 275
Urine osmo > 100
Euvolaemic
Urine Na > 40 
Normal thyroid and adrenal function
(exclude hypothyroidism and mineralocorticoid deficiency)
No recent use of diuretics
86
Q

HypoNa: Electrolyte profile for CHF, cirrhosis and nephrosis?

A

Urine osmo > 100

Urine Na

87
Q

HypoNa: Electrolyte profile for vomiting, diarrhoea and burns?

A

Urine osmo > 100

Urine Na

88
Q

What is the most common AE of 8 mm prolactinoma?

Tx?

A

Amenorrhea.

Hyperprolactinaemia causes hypogonadism -> infertility, oligomenorrhea and less often galactorrhea, hirsutism.

Galactorrhea unusual to occur e.g. even in post menopausal women who are hypo-oestrogenic, galactorrhea is rare.

Tx:
Dopamine agonist e.g. bromocriptine
Sx if compression

89
Q

What is the most common cause of morning hyperglycaemia?

A

Nocturnal GH secretion and hypo-insulinaemia

Most severe episodes of hypoglycaemia occur at night

90
Q

Pregnancy and Grave’s. When should Thyroid Abs be checked and why?

A

3rd trimester. High risk of neonatal thyrotoxicosis is 5 x ULN

measure T4 and TSH soon after birth

Tx with propranolol/atenolol and methimazole

Note- TSh receptor crosses BBB and 1.5% of neonates will have hyperthyroidism.

91
Q

What are the genetic mutations in B cell function causing DM. Types, onset, Tx?

A
  1. HNF-4a (5%)
    - Teens to 30s
    - progressive hyperglycaemia
    - frequent microvascular complications
  2. Glucokinase (15%)
    - presents from birth with reduced birth weight
    - little deterioration with age
    - minimal risk of diabetes complications
  3. HNF1 - alpha (70%)
    - teens to 20s
    - progressive hyperglycaemia
    - normal risk of DM complications
    - sensitive to sulphonylureas
  4. IPF -1 (MODY)
92
Q

What is the most common genetic B cell defect?

A

HNF1 - alpha (70%)

  • chromosome 12
  • teens to 20s
  • progressive hyperglycaemia
  • normal risk of DM complications
  • sensitive to sulphonylureas
93
Q

Why does acute pituitary apoplexy cause a flase negative short synacthen test?

A

APA causes acute hypoadrenalism

Normal synacthen test as adrenal glands are still functioning normally and will respond to ACTH delivered.

94
Q

MOA of neuropeptide Y

A

Energy conserving neuropeptide

Increases food intake and storage of energy as fat

95
Q

MOA of agouti-related protein (AgRP)?

A

Promote feeding, weight gain, reduces energy expenditure and increases fat stores

96
Q

MOA Carbimazole

A

Inhibiting TPO activity thereby preventing the synthesis of new thyroid hormone

97
Q

MOA PTU

A

Prevents synthesis of new thyroid hormone and inhibits conversion of T4 to T3

98
Q

MOA prednisone in hyperthryoidism

A

Decreases T4 to T3 conversion

99
Q

MOA of Iodine

A

Blocks release of T4
Dereases thyroidal iodide uptake and decreases iodide oxidation and organification
Blocks release of thyroid hormones (Wolff-Chaikoff effect)

100
Q

MOA of propranolol in thyroid disease

A

Reduces sympathetic hyperactivity

Decrease peripheral conversion of T4-T3

101
Q

What is a potent stimulus of GH deficiency?

A

Insulin induced hypoglycaemia

102
Q

Which occurs first in the development of renal disease?

A

Glomerular hyperfiltration and hyperperfusion occurs first in the development of renal disease before the onset of any measurable clinical changes.

Microalbuminuria has a variable course.
It’s progression to macroalbuminuria (>3 g/d) is unpredicatable and does not always lead to development of nephropathy.

103
Q

Which diabetic agent is most likely to induce fasting hypoglycaemia?

A

Sulphonylureas e.g glicazide

Binds to sulphonylurea receptors on the surface of pancreatic beta cells -> insulin release

104
Q

What is the Bethesda category for thyroid nodule cytopathalogy and corresponding Mx recommendations? 6 categories

A

Non-diagnostic or unsatisfactory
- repeat FNA with US guidance

Benign
- Clincial FU

Atypia of undetermined significance
- repeat FNA

Follicular neoplasm or suspicious for a follicular neoplasm
- Surgical lobectomy

Suspicious for malignancy
- Near total thyroidectomy or surgical lobectomy

Malignant
- Near total thyroidectomy

105
Q

In a pt with T1DM, which counter regulatory hormone is likely to be reduced?

A

Glucagon

In pts with T1DM for > 5 years, adrenaline is the main defense against hypoglycaemia because the pancreatic alpha cell glucagon secretory response to hypoglycemia is irreversibly lost

106
Q

Glucose counter regulatory hormones. Which are rapid acting and which are slow acting in hypoglycaemic event?

A

Rapid acting
- glucagon
adrenaline

Slow acting
- GH
- cortisol
3-4 hrs in chronic hypoglycaemia

107
Q

What is the MOA of corticosteroid induced OP fractures?

A

Corticosteroids reduce bone formation and viability of osteoblast and osteocytes.

Bone loss usually occurs at sites rich in trabecular bone esp vertebral bodies, ribs, distal radius and can alos occur in cortical bones in the upper femur.

108
Q

What is the most common tumour producing ADH?

A
SMALL cell lung cancer
others:
Head and neck cnacer
Olfactory neuroblastoma
extra-pulmonary small cell carcinomas
109
Q

What features are most specific for Cushing’s syndrome?

A
Abnormal fat distribution - supraclavicular and temporal fossae
Proximal muscle weakness
Wide purple striae
Decreased linear growth 
Continued weight gain as a child
110
Q

Pt post thyroidectomy followed by radioactive iodine remnant ablation. What is the most useful marker for determining relapse?

A

Thyroglobulin

111
Q

Anti-GAD levels predict the likelihood of T1DM in a patient with poorly controlled diabetes. T/F

A

True

112
Q

In a pt with long term T2DM who is compliant to diet and medication, what is the main cause for worsening glycaemic control?

A

Decreased insulin secretion

113
Q

How do you test for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Gastric emptying study

114
Q

How does obesity affect testosterone concentrations?

A

Suppresses sex hormone binding globulin and results in decreased total testosterone concentrations

115
Q

Which medication is safe in patients with ESRF and cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonate. Tx?

A

Denosumab

RANK ligand monoclonal Ab
No dose adjustment required in renal failure’

116
Q

What is the MOA of Teriparatide?

A

Active form of human PTH, increases osteoblast action ->increase BMD

Indication:
Postmenopausal osteoporosis when there is a high risk of fractures and other agents are unsuitable
Primary osteoporosis in men when there is a high risk of fractures and other agents are unsuitable
Corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in patients at high risk of fractures

117
Q

What is the pathophys of PCOS?

A

Hyperinsulinaemia

118
Q

What is the main mechanism of HypoNA in DKA?

A

Extracellular shift of H2O due to hyperosmolarity

119
Q

Signs and symptoms of Pseudo-Cushing’s disease?

A

Alcohol consumption - high GGT
Cortisol and ACTH elevated
24 hr urinary cortisol elevated

120
Q

Hyponatraemia. Serum osmo

A

Low effective arterial blood volume. Causes:
Diarhhoea
Vomiting
Third spacing - burns, pancreatitis, trauma
dehydration
remote diuretics

121
Q

Hyponatraemia. Serum osmo

A

Low effective arterial blood volume. DDx:
HF
Liver cirrhosis
Nephrotic syndrome

122
Q

Causes of SIADH?

A
Malignancy
Pul infections
CNS infections
Drugs
Basically everything!
123
Q

Mx of SIADH?

A

A syndrome of too much water!
Fluid restriction
Give extra solute so the kidney can happily make concentrated urine while getting rid of water e.g. eggs salt, protein, urea
Consider vasopressin 2 receptor antagonist e.g. tolvaptan

124
Q

Which drugs do not affect renin aldosterone testing?

A

verapamil
Hydralazine
Prazosin

125
Q

What are the effects of propanolol in Tx of Hyperthyroidism?

A

Reduces sympathetic activity

Decreases peripheral conversion of T4-T3

126
Q
DPP-4 inhibitors:
MOA
Indication
AE
benefits
A
Sitagliptin
Linagliptin
Alogliptin
Saxagliptin
Vildagliptin

MOA:
Inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase‑4 (DPP‑4) thereby increasing the concentration of the incretin hormones glucagon-like peptide‑1 and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide; glucose-dependent insulin secretion is increased and glucagon production reduced.

Indication:
T2DM

AE:
Nausea
Pancreatitis-rare
Reduce dose if Cr

127
Q
GLP inhibitors:
MOA
Indication
AE
benefits
A

Exenatide
Liraglutide

MOA:
Analogues of glucagon-like peptide‑1 (an incretin)
Increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion and suppress inappropriate glucagon secretion.
Delay gastric emptying, which slows glucose absorption, and decrease appetite.

Indication:
T2DM

AE:
N/V in 50% of ppl
D/Constipation
GORD
Dyspepsia
Pancreatitis rare

Benefits:
Weight loss
No hypos unless with sulfonylurea/insulin

128
Q

Sulfonylurea.
MOA
Indication
AE

A

Gliclazide
Glibenclamide
Glimepiride
Glipizide

MOA:
Increase pancreatic insulin secretion; may decrease insulin resistance

Indication:
T2DM

AE:
hypoglycaemia (risk is increased by advanced age, renal or hepatic impairment and interacting drugs)
WEIGHT GAIN

129
Q

Acarbose.
MOA
Indication
AE

A

Delays intestinal absorption of carbohydrates by inhibiting alpha-glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine; reduces postprandial hyperglycaemia.

Indication:
T2DM

AE:
flatulence, diarrhoea, abdominal pain and distension
Ileus
Hepatotoxicty

In hypoglycaemia:
Give glucose; do not give sucrose (cane sugar) as its absorption will be delayed.

130
Q

Thiazolidinediones:
MOA
Indication
AE

A

Pioglitazone
Rosiglitazone

MOA:
PPAR-y (peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma) inhibitor
- which regulates genes involved in lipid and glucose metabolism.
- Increase the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin; decrease hepatic glucose output

Indication:
T2DM with or without metformin, sulfonylurea

AE:
peripheral oedema, weight gain, headache, dizziness, arthralgia, decrease in haemoglobin and haematocrit
HF, pul oedema, macula oedema

131
Q
HypoNa:
Urine osmo > 100
Urine Na>30
Hypovolaemic
Causes?
A
Vomiting
Primary adrenal insifficiency
Renal salt wasting
Cerebral salt wasting
Occult diuretics
132
Q

Calcitonin.
MOA
Indications

A

Antagonises effect of PTH to reduce osteoclast function.
Increases renal excretion of Ca, Ph, K, Mg by decreasing renal tubular absorption.

Indications:
Hypercalcaemia
Pagets
Post menopausal OP

133
Q

What is Etidronate?

A

A bisphosphonate derivative.

Indication:
Tx of sympotamtic Pagets disease

AE:
Increase risk of defective mineralisation of newly formed bone at higher doses.

134
Q

Insulin resistance and CAD is independent of total cholesterol. T/F

A

True

135
Q

Sick euthyroid.
What are the levels of TSH, T3 and T4.
Tx

A

A transient hypothyroid state due to illness.
TSH can be low, normal or high (TSH unlikely to be high otherwise hypothyroidism)
T3 low
T4 low
Low free T4 associated with bad prognosis

Tx:
Tx infection
TSH Resolves within 8 weeks.

136
Q

What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with obesity?

A

Raised serum C-peptide

137
Q

What antibodies are elevated in:
Hashimotos
Graves

A

Hashimotos:
anti–thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies, antithyroglobulin antibodies

Graves:
Anti-TSH receptor antibodies
- thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins [TSIs]
- thyrotropin-binding inhibitory immunoglobulins [TBIIs]

138
Q

In a strong FHX of AI disease, which thyroid ab predicts the risk of developing hypothyroidism?

A

anti-TPO antibody titers assesses future risk of developing hypothyroidism

139
Q

In the Ax of Grave’s disease, when is the radioidoine uptake study contraindicated?

A

In pregnancy and breastfeeding

140
Q

Thyroglobulin (stores thyroid hormone in thyroid glan). Measurement is useful in which conditions?

A

Elevated in:
Thyroid cancer
Hyperthyroid
Destructive thyroiditis

Decreased in:
Factiticious ingestion

141
Q

Calcitonin is secreted by the C cells of the thyroid. It is a marker of?

A

tumor marker in patients with a history of medullary thyroid cancer

Recmommended for patients with:

  • thyroid nodules who are at higher risk for medullary thyroid cancer, such as those with a positive family history of medullary thyroid cancer, with features of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2)
  • thyroid biopsy results suggestive of medullary thyroid cancer
142
Q

Radioactive iodine uptake scan. What diseases are associated with the following:
Diffuse
Focal
Low

A

Diffuse (correlates with endogenous production of thyroid):
Grave’s

Focal uptake:
toxic multinodular goiter or
toxic adenoma

Low uptake:
subacute
silent or 
postpartum thyroiditis or 
exposure to exogenous thyroid hormones,
143
Q

Grave’s disease:

3 Treatment options

A

Three options.

Medications:
antithyroid drugs methimazole and propylthiouracil.
1st choice - Methimazole is the first choice because of its increased potency, once-daily dosing regimen, and lower incidence of serious adverse effects (mainly hepatic).
Propylthiouracil is used in women in the first trimester of pregnancy (because of the teratogenicity of methimazole).

Radioactive iodine ablation:
Success in greater than 90% of pts
AE uncommon, can have transient anterior neck pain or tenderness from radiation thyroiditis.
Exacerbation of the thyrotoxic state for several weeks can occur because of the release of preformed hormone.
Expected outcome is hypothyroidism in which thyroid hormone replacement is commenced.

Thyroidectomy:
Preferred in pts with Grave’s opthalmopathy
radioactive iodine treatment has been associated with (at least transient) worsening of Graves ophthalmopathy, its use is not recommended in patients with severe Graves ophthalmopathy.

144
Q

Methimazole
Propylthiouracil
AE?

A

Drug rashes are common and occur in 5-10%.

Methimazole:
Mild reversible cholestatic pattern

Propylthiouracil:
elevated aminotransferase levels and a higher rate of serious hepatic injury

Methimazole preferred due to less side affects.

145
Q

Toxic multinodular goitre and toxic adenoma:
Cause
Examination
Ix

A

Cause:
Activating somatic mutation in the TSH receptor gene, which leads to autonomy of function and secretion of excess T4 and T3 from the nodule(s) affected.

Recent iodine exposure from contrast dye used in CT scans and angiographic procedures (such as cardiac catheterization), can induce thyrotoxicosis in patients with preexisting autonomy of thyroid function (Jod-Basedow phenomenon).

Examination:
Presents with thyrotoxicosis
One or more palpable nodule(s) or overall gland enlargement

Ix:
Often isolated T3 toxicosis
TSHr mutation

Radioactive iodine uptake scan

  • toxic mulit-nodular goitre: patchy uptake of radioactive iodine that is increased in autonomous regions and reduced outside those areas
  • toxic adenoma: will reveal a solitary overactive (“hot”) nodule with suppression of the rest of the gland

Thyroid US to exclude cancer and need for Bx

Tx:
A multinodular goiter associated with hyperthyroidism can be treated with either radioactive iodine or surgery depending on multiple factors, including the size of the thyroid gland, evidence of obstructiondyspnea, or local symptoms suggestive of cervical venous obstruction.

Toxic adenoma:
Radioactive iodine ablation is the treatment of choice.
Surgical removal of the involved lobe (in patients with toxic adenoma) and total thyroidectomy (in patients with toxic multinodular goiter) is usually offered to those whose gland is not sufficiently avid for the radioactive iodine to result in ablation or who have proven thyroid cancer by biopsy.
Antithyroid drugs modulate thyroid hormone production in toxic multinodular goiter and toxic adenoma and thus must be administered continuously to control hyperthyroidism

146
Q

Destructive Thyroiditis involves transient destruction of thyroid tissue, which disrupts follicles and causes the release of preformed thyroid hormone into the circulation.

What are the 3 causes?
Ix?
Tx?

A

subacute (de Quervain), silent, and postpartum thyroiditis

Subacute:
most commonly occurs after a viral infection and usually involves severe thyroid and neck pain; fever, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and myalgia are common

Ix:
Low TSH
High T4 and T3
High CRP, ESR
Classic course of approximately 6 weeks of thyrotoxicosis, a shorter period of euthyroidism, 4 to 6 weeks of hypothyroidism, and then restoration of euthyroidism.

Tx: Levothyroxine for hypothyroid period

Silent:
Painless
Anti-microsomial antibodies may be present

Post partum:
Painless autoimmune thyroiditis and can occur up to 12 months after parturition

Tx:

Propanolol
NSAIDs 1st line for pain
Steroids for severe pain
No role for antithyroid medication.

147
Q

What are the 2 forms of amiodarone induced thyroiditis?

Other causes of drug induced thyroiditis?

A

Type 1:
Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism
- more common in iodine-deficient geographic areas in patients with multinodular goiter and is treated with antithyroid agents

Type 2:
destructive thyroiditis
occurs in iodine-sufficient regions, such as the United States, and is treated with corticosteroid therapy

Often can overlap.
Tx with antithyroid hormones and corticosteroids. If no improvement, then thyroidectomy.

Other drugs:
Lithium
interferon alfa
interleukin-2

148
Q

Sub clinical hyperthyroidism:

When to begin Tx?

A

TSH level is less than 0.1 microunit/mL (0.1 milliunit/L).
Esp in pts >=65 years, have tachyarrhythmias or heart disease, are postmenopausal with low bone mass, or are markedly symptomatic.
Tx with methimazole.

Post menopausal women with TSH

149
Q

Hypothyroidism:

Causes

A

Hashimoto’s most common cause
Iatrogenic - iodine ablation, external beam radiation to the thyroid bed, or surgical removal of the thyroid gland.

Ix:
High TSH
low T4
Anti TPO and/or thyroglobulin abs
US thyroid gland if palpable goitre.
Radioactive uptake scan not useful.

Tx:
Levothyroxine (T4)
- take on empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 to 3 hours after intake of food or calcium- or iron-containing supplements

150
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism. When to Tx?

A

TSH level > 10 microunits/mL (10 milliunits/L).

Levothyroxine therapy also can be considered for patients who are markedly symptomatic, have a goiter, are pregnant or are planning to become pregnant, or have positive anti–TPO antibodies

151
Q

RF for thyroid cancer

A

age less than 20 or greater than 60 years
male gender
previous head or neck irradiation
a family history of thyroid (especially medullary) cancer, rapid nodule growth, and hoarseness

Ix:
TSH
If suppressed, free T4 and radioactive iodine uptake scan

152
Q

Thyroid cancers.

3 Most common.

A

Papillary (85%), follicular (10%), and medullary (4%).

Medullary
Medullary thyroid cancer typically is characterized by plasmacytoid, spindle, round, or polygonal cells on biopsy. All patients with medullary thyroid cancer should have RET proto-oncogene sequencing after other appropriate evaluation, including measurement of plasma free metanephrine and normetanephrine levels to detect or exclude the presence of a pheochromocytoma

153
Q

Medullary Cancer:
Disease Associations
Histo
Ix

A

Component of MEN2A and can be associated with hyperparathyroidism with hypercalcemia and hypertension due to a pheochromocytoma.

Histo:
Medullary thyroid cancer typically is characterized by plasmacytoid, spindle, round, or polygonal cells on biopsy.

Ix:
All patients with medullary thyroid cancer should have RET proto-oncogene sequencing after other appropriate evaluation, including measurement of plasma free metanephrine and normetanephrine levels to detect or exclude the presence of a pheochromocytoma

154
Q

Thyroid cancer staging and Tx.

A

Younger than 45 years:
stage I disease includes thyroid cancer of any size, with or without cervical lymph node involvement and without distant spread;
stage II refers to patients who have distant spread of disease

45 y or older:
stage I thyroid cancer denotes tumors 2 cm or less in size without local invasion or positive cervical lymph nodes
stage II denotes tumors greater than 2 cm but no more than 4 cm in size without local invasion or positive cervical lymph nodes, stage III denotes tumors larger than 4 cm in size with slight local invasion with or without cervical lymph node involvement,
stage IV denotes thyroid cancer that either has invaded nearby neck structures or superior mediastinal lymph nodes or may or may not have invaded local tissues or lymph nodes but has spread to distant sites.

Tx:
combination of thyroidectomy, radioactive iodine therapy, and suppression of TSH secretion with levothyroxine therapy.

Radioactive iodine therapy frequently is administered for stage III and IV disease, especially with lymph node involvement, to decrease the risk of recurrence and death.

155
Q

What happens to thyroid hormones in pregnancy?

A

Oestrogen increases TGB (thyroxine binding globulin) which increases T4 and T3 levels.

Increase dose of thyroxine 30-50% at start or pregnancy.
TSH levels decrease during 1st trimester due to BHCG stimulating thyroid hormone production and normalise by 16 weeks gestation.

156
Q

What is the goal of TSH in pregnancy?

A

1st trimerster: 0.1 to 2.5 microunits/mL

2nd and 3rd: 0.1 to 3

157
Q
Thyroid storm. 
Cause
Precipitations
Tx
Mortality rate
A

Cause:
Thyroid storm most commonly occurs in Graves disease and has a higher frequency in younger women, but it also can be due to a toxic adenoma or multinodular goiter

Precipitations:
surgery, infection, trauma, parturition, acute iodine exposure, radioactive iodine (131I) therapy, or ingestion of medications, including salicylates and pseudoephedrine
Can occur due to long standing untreated hyperthyroidism, TMG or toxic adenoma

Tx:
propylthiouracil or methimazole), iodine solution, high-dose IV corticosteroids, β-blockers, and (rarely) lithium are used for treatment.

Mortality rates are 15-20%.

158
Q

Myxoedema coma:

Cause

A

Cause:
history of hypothyroidism, thyroidectomy, or radioactive iodine therapy

Presentation:
mental status changes, 80% of pt.
hypothermia, 34.4 degrees. Lower levels associated with a worse prognosis.

Ix:
Low levels of everything, bradycardia, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoventilation -> hypercapnea

Tx:
Intravenous levothyroxine.
concurrent treatment with high-dose glucocorticoids (such as hydrocortisone) until adrenal insufficiency excluded and adrenal function normal.

159
Q

Growth hormone deficiency.
Cause.
Ix
Tx

A

Genetic
- short stature

Acquired:
Pituitary deficiency due to Structural sellar or suprasellar lesion that has been treated with neurosurgical intervention and/or cranial irradiation.

Ix:
Low growth hormone level after insulin tolerance test is the most SPECIFIC test.
Insulin used to induce hypoglycaemia, should increase GH.

low serum insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) level.

Tx:
GH replacement in patients with other pituitary deficiencies

160
Q

What is the most common pituitary deficiency associated with a structural sellar or suprasellar lesion that has been treated with neurosurgical intervention and/or cranial irradiation?

A

Growth hormone deficiency

161
Q
Primary polydipsia (aka psychogenic polydipsia).
Cause
Ix
Water deprivation test
Desmopressin test
A

Primary increase in H2O intake.
Water excretion is appropriate for intake.
Polyuria > 3L/d

Cause:
Psychiatric illnesses
Phenothiazine-> dry mouth
Hypothalamic lesions affecting thirst cenre in sarcoidsoisis

Ix:
Plasma Na =500
No response to desmopressin as endogenous release is intact.

162
Q
Central Diabetes insipidous (polyuria):
Cause
Ix
Water deprivation test
Desmopressin test

(Normal Na, will concentrate urine osmo in response to water deprivation and Desmopressin/ADH)

A

Due to deficient secretion of ADH.
Polyuria > 3L/d

Cause:

  • Idiopathic 30-50%
  • Trauma/Nsx
  • Tumour e.g. lumg, lymphoma, leukemia
  • Hypoxic encephalopathy
  • Post SVT ?ANP

Ix:
Na normal and Urine osmo >600 will exclude DI

Central DI:
Na > 142, urine osmo

163
Q
Nephrogenic DI:
Cause
Ix
Water deprivation test
Desmopressin test

(Na normal, urine osmo will not concentrate more than 300 and no response to desmopressin/ADH)

A

normal ADH secretion but varying degrees of renal resistance to its water retaining effect.
Polyuria >3L/d

Cause:
Lithium main cause
Hypercalcaemia
Children
- X-linked mutation in AVPR2 gene encoding ADH receptor V2 and AD/AR aquaporin-2 water gene.

Ix:
Na> 142
Urine osmo

164
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism:

Cause

A

Most common cause of hypercalacaemia in outpt setting.

Solitary parathyroid adenoma is the cause of 75-80%

Indications for Sx in asymptomatic patients:
Increase in serum Ca >=1 mg/dL
Cr Cl

165
Q

Hypercalcaemia:

Causes parathyroid vs. non parathyroid

A
Parathyroid:
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Parathyroid adenoma(s)
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Parathyroid carcinoma
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
Lithium therapy–associated hypercalcemia
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Non-parathyroid:
Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia
- 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D (B-cell lymphoma)
- PTH-related protein (squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma of the breast or ovary, renal cell carcinoma, transitional cell carcinoma, T-cell lymphoma, islet cell neoplasms, myeloma)
Granulomatous - sarcoid, Tb
Hyperthyroid, adrenal insufficiency
Drugs - thiazide
Increased plasma protein e.g. MM
166
Q

What has the greatest effect on peak bone mass?

A

Genetic factors

167
Q

Periodic parlaysis associated with Graves?

A

Due to transient hypokalaemia
Often following high carb meal or severe exercise

Young, Male Asian predisposed.

168
Q

Insulinoma. Ix findings?

A

Insulin > 100 pmol/L
C peptide >250 pmol/L
hypoglycaemia

169
Q

Exogenous insulin. Ix findings?

A

Insulin high

C-peptide

170
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH).

A

AD
Inactivating mutation of CASR gene.

Presentation:
Asymptomatic
Stable
FHx

Ix:
High serum Ca
Normal to mildly elevated PTH
Low urine Ca excretion

Tx:
No intervention
recognised to prevent unnecessary parathyroidectomy.

171
Q

Vitamin D def. Recommended level?

A

> 50-75 nmol/L

If

172
Q

Familial MEN1 consist of?

A

three Ps
Pituitary
Parathyroid
Pancreas

173
Q

Growth hormone tumour.
Ix
Tx

A

Presentation:
frontal bossing; prognathism, with dental malocclusion and increased spacing between the teeth; enlargement of the nose, lips, and tongue; skin tags; arthritis; carpal tunnel syndrome; sleep apnea; and excess sweating

Ix:
Elevated insulin-like growth factor 1 level in the setting of signs or symptoms of growth hormone excess is consistent with acromegaly

Tx:
1st line:
Transphenoidal Sx

Post Sx with resiudal disease:
Somatostatin e.g. octreotide OR
Dopamine agonist

174
Q

NAGMA.
Normal Range
Causes

A

Normal AG 8-16

Causes:
RTA
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Severe diarrhoea
Uereto-enterostomy
drainage of pancreatic or biliary secretion
small bowel fistula

Addition of HCl or NH4Cl

175
Q

What is the primary method by which PTH increases serum Calcium?

A

Increase bone resorption.

Bones

  • increase bone resoprtion
  • increase Ca and PO4 resrption

In Kidneys

  • increase Ca absoprtion
  • increase 1-hydroxylase
  • increase phosphate excretion

GUT

  • increase Vit D
  • increase Ca absorption
176
Q

Hormone profile in pregnancy?

A

Low FSH, LH
Very high levels of Oestrogen
Increases prolactin
Mild increase testosterone

177
Q

Primary ovarian failure hormone profile?

A

Decreased FSH

Decreased oestrogen

178
Q

what is the most monogenetic cause for obesity?

A

MC4-R mutation