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MK > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Vemurafenib
MOA
Indication
AE

A

Protein kinase inhibitor
Unresecatble stage IIIC or IV BRAF V600+ve metastatic melanoma
Arthralgia, rash, photosensitivity, fatigue, GI upset, alopecia, palmar-plantar erythrodysaesthesia

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2
Q

Pembro
MOA
Indication
AE

A

Anti-PD1 antibody

Advanced melanoma

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3
Q

What is the most common side effect of Erlotinib?

A

Rash

- resembles acne and primarily involves face and neck

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4
Q

MOA of erlotinib?

A

inhibits tyrosine kinase associated with epidermal growth factor receptors therefore reducing angiogenesis and tumour progression

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5
Q

Erlotinib

Indications?

A

NSCLCa.

  • 1st line in Stage IIIB or Stage IV (mets) with activating EGFR mutations
  • maintenance therapy in pts with locally advanced or metastatic NSCLC who have not progressed on 1st line chemotherapy
  • patients with locally advanced or metastatic NSCLC who have previously received chemo

Pancreatic cancer
- used in combination with gemcitabine
indicated in locally advanced, unresectable or metsatic pancreatic ca

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6
Q

what is the most emetogenic chemotherapy agent?

A

> 90%
- Cisplatin
Cyclophosphamide > 1500 mg/m2

Least emetogenic

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7
Q

List vesicant cytotoxic drugs commonly used

A 
Cisplatin
Rubicins
Mechlorethamine
Mitomycin C
Mitoxantrone
Oxaliplatin
Paclitaxel
Vinblastine
Vincrisitine
Vinorelbine
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8
Q

BRAF mutation MOA?

A

BRAF mutation consist of a substitution of glutamic acid for valine at amino acid 600 (V600E) which leads to constititive activation of downstream signalling in the MAP kinase pathway

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9
Q

List the BRAF inhibitors

A

Vemurafenib

Dabrafenib

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10
Q

Staging and Tx of NSC lung cancer?

A

Staging:
Stage I:
- no nodes
Tx- Sx resection +Adj CTx

Stage II:
Nodes on ipsilateral side
Peribronchial and hilar LN
Tx - Sx resection +Adj CTx

Stage III:
nodal disease to mediastinum/subcarinal LN, supraclavicular.
Tumor with invasion of structures above + N2 nodes.

IIIa: ipisliateral
Tx- neoadjuvant CTx followed by Sx or CTx

IIIb: contralateral
Tx: CTx or palliative RTx

Stage IV
distant mets which include
- contralateral lung nodules
- PLEURAL nodules
- MALIGNANT PLEURAL OR PERICARDIAL EFFUSION
Tx:
Palliative RTx
However systemic Tx should be offered to all pts with ECOG 0-2
- Platinum doublet CTx e.g. cisplatin/gemcit 4-6 cycles. Prolongs OS and improves QOL.
- evidence that addition of bevacizumab to platinum doublet in non-squamous NSCLC results in improved RR, PFR, OS.

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11
Q

What is the recommended duration of therapy for adjuvant hormone therapy in premenopausal breast cancer, ER positive?

A

10 years (lancet, 2013)

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12
Q

What CTx dugs cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Platinum e.g. oxalipaltin

Taxanes

Vincristines

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13
Q

What therapy is recommended for all patients receiving aromatase inh?

A

Vit D and Ca

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14
Q

When do you commence Denosumbab?

A

If T score

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15
Q

T/F. Absolute benefits of Aromatise Inh are better than Tamoxifen?

A

True

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16
Q

What is the Tx for a pt with grade 2 intraductal ca with no associated lymphovascular invasion, sentinel nodes clear, ECOG 0, HER 2 +ve?

A

AI and Taxane based chemo

Do not use combination of anthracycline and trastuzumab as both are cardiotoxic

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17
Q

Elderly female with bony mets secondary to Stage II breast ca treated with mastectomy, triple -ve. What Tx do you offer?

A

Palliative RTx and denosumab

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18
Q

Which tumours are chemo resistant?

A

RCC

GIST

Well diff sarcoma - low chemo responsiveness

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19
Q

What is the medical Tx for RCC?

A

TKI pazopanib/sunitinib

mTOR-I everloimus, temsirolimus

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20
Q 
GIST:
What
RF
Types
Mutation
Tx
A

Rare tumour from mesenchymal tissue of GIT
Most common form of sarcoma
Most commonly gastric 50-60% and small intestine 30%

RF:
Age
Familial
Carney's triad (GIST, paragnaglioma, pulmonary chondroma)
Type 1 NF

Types:
Spindle cell
Epitheliod
MIxed

Mutation:
Onogene c-kit (CD117) in 75-89% of GIST
PDGFR mutations in 10%

Tx:
Localised GIST
- Sx
Post operative therapy:
- Imatinib (c-kit inhibitor). AE: periorbital oedema, fatigue and diarhhoea.

Imatinib delays recurrence but NO overall survival

Advanced disease:
90% response rate to imatinib
Acquired mutations in C-kit or PDGFR are the main cause of imatinib resistance.
Sunitinib 2nd line.

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21
Q

Pt on Imatinib for GIST. Progresses. Next Tx?

A

Increase dose of Imatinib.

If progresses, sunitinib is 2nd line therapy after high dose imatinib

3rd line therapy: Regorafenib, sorafenib, nilotinib

No indication for Sx

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22
Q

List the tumour that corresponds to the marker:
AFP

Beta-HCG

CA15.3

CA-19.9

CA 125

CEA

A

AFP - Non seminoma

Beta-HCG
- > 10, 000 mIU/mL = Germ cell tumour (Pure Seminoma)

CA15.3
- metastatic breast cancer

CA-19.9 - pancreatic. Monitor response to Tx, recurrence in resected pancreatic ca.

CA- 125 - ovarian

CEA - Colon cancer

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23
Q

List the common AE for the following biological agents:
Bevacizumab (human monoclonal ab VEGF inh)

Erlotinib (reversibleTKI acting on EGFR)

Temsirolimus (derivative of prodrug sirolimus, mTOR inhibitor)

Sorefenib - TKI (VEGF and PDGRF)

Trastuzumab- (AI- monoclonal ab interferes with HER2 rec)

A

Bevacizumab - HT, bleeding, proteinuria, impaired wound healing

Erlotinib - Skin rash, diarrhoea

Temsirolimus - stomatitis, rash, hyperglycaemia, hyperlipidaemia, pneumonitis

Sorefenib - fatigue, diarrhoea, hand-foot synd

Trastuzumab - reversible cardiomyopathy

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24
Q

When Tx HCC, what do you consider prior to initiating Sorefnib?

A

Child Pugh Class

Sorafenib is 1st line Tx in Child Pugh Class A with advanced disease (Stage C, portal invasion)

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25
Q

What is the DNA repair mechanism by which BRCA 1 and 2 proteins act?

A

Double stranded DNA break repair

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26
Q

Pt is a carrier for BRCA 1 gene mutation with a strong family history of breast ca. What Tx is recommended?

A

prophylactic bilateral salpingoophrectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of breast and ovarian cancer

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27
Q

Rituximab in addition to standard therapy has been proven to be beneficial over standard therapy alone in the induction phase Tx of Class III -IV lupus Nephritis. T/F

A

False

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28
Q

In hypercalcaemia, Bisphosphonates increase survival. T/F

A

False

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29
Q

Zoledronic acid reduces the chance of skeletal related events by 15%. Zoledronic acid has greater reduction than Denosumab. T/F for each.

A

True

False

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30
Q

Oropharyngeal cancer. Factors associated with improved survival?

A

HPV associated oropharyngeal cancer have a significantly better prognosis at presentation and after disease recurrence compared with other patients.

Early N stage

Negative surgical margins

p16 positivity (indicates HPV +ve)

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31
Q

Gemcitabine AE?

A

Dyspnoea, 23% of patients

Small fraction develop severe dyspnoea due to pulmonary toxicities such as interstitial pneumonitis, diffuse alveolar damage, pleural effusions, capillary leak syndrome with noncardiogenic pulmonary odema and others

CT - bilateral ground glass opacities, reticular opacities and thickened septal lines. Centrilobular nodules cans be seen.

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32
Q

What is pulmonary lymphangitis carcinomatosis?

A

Part of the spectrum of metastatic disease.

Microhaematogenous spread to the periphery of the lung with subsequent lymphatic extension toward the hillier region is responsible for 75% of patients. Usually bilateral.

Remaining cases are due to centrifugal extension from a hillier tumour or from an ipsilateral lung or breast ca. In this case the lymphanggitis spread is unilateral.

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33
Q

Which chemotherapy has the greatest risk for infertility?

A

Cyclophosphamide - amennorhea and male sterility

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34
Q

Which CTx cases irreversible pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Bleomycin

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35
Q

Which CTx causes infusion toxicity (hypotension) and delayed neutropenia?

A

Rituximab

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36
Q

Which CTx causes peripheral neuropathy?

A

Platinums e.g. oxaliplatin, exacerbated by exposure to cold temperatures

and Taxanes

Vincristine causes dose limiting neuropathy

Bortez and thalidomide also commonly cause peripheral neuropathy

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37
Q

For castrate resistant prostate cancer with bony metastasis, what Tx has been shown to improve overall survival?

A

Taxanes e.g. docetaxel

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38
Q

Cisplatin is one of the most emetogenic chemotherapy agents. What are its AE?

A

Neutoxicty

nephrotoxicty

Magnesium wasting

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39
Q

What is the single strongest factor for poor survival in breast ca?

A

Lymph node involvement

2nd is tumour size of primary

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40
Q

What is crizotinib?

A

Alk inhibitor

Tx of NSCLCa with alk mutation

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41
Q

What is the Mx for progressive prostate cancer with no mets and life expectancy

A

Radiation
- less invasive and less likely to cause severe urinary incontinence and errectile dysfunction as with radical prostatectomy

TURP
- 
Hormonal Tx
- will not produce relief of LUTs
- if pt has CVD, may aggravate

Single agent CTx with docetaxel or cabazitaxel should be reserved for pts with castration recurrent metastatic prostate cancer

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42
Q

What are the poor prognostic factors in breast ca?

A

65 y - higher co-morbidity

Pathologic factors:
Stage IV - 5YS 18%
Tumour size, >5 cm 5YS 63%
Nodal involvement (axillary nodes) 
Grade
Lymphovascular invasion

Tissue markers:
ER -ve
HER2 over expression - unfavourable prognosis

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43
Q

Aromatase inhibitors e.g. anastrozole, letrozole.
MOA
Most significant AE.

A

MOA:
Inhibits the enzyme aromatase thereby blocking the conversion of testosterone to oestrodial.
NS inhibitors aromatase and letrazole are reversible.
Steroidal inhibitors e.g. exemestane irreversibly bind the aromatase enzyme

AE:
Osteoporosis and fractures most significant.

Others:
Hot flushes
mood swings 
sexual dysfunction
CVS
Hypercholesterolaemia
Arthralgia, joint stiffness, bone pain
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44
Q

SERM e.g. Tamoxifen.
MOA
AE

A

MOA:
Blocks oestrogen receptor in breast tissue .
However it is a mixed agonist/antagonist and works as an agonist in other tissues such as bone.

AE:
Hot flushes
Mood swings
Sexual dysfunction
Thromboembolic disease
Uterine cancer
45
Q

When is Breast MRI indicated?

A

Asymptomatic women

46
Q

Mechanism of Hypercalcaemia in malignancy.

Mx of Hypercalcaemia?

A

Most common in breast, lung and MM.

3 main mechanisms:

  • tumour secretion of parathyroid hormone related protein is the most common cause, 80%
  • osteolytic metastasis with local release of cytokines, including osteoclast activating factors
  • tumour production of calcitriol (most common in HL)

Mx:
1st line IVF
IV bisphosphonates, zoledronic acid is more potent and effective.
Calcitonin - increases renal excretion of calcium and interferes with osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
Glucocorticoids - effective when secondary to calictriol production (lymphoma and sarcoid).
Dialysis - last line

47
Q

Lung ca. Which mutations more common in never smokers?

A

EGFR

ALK rearrangement

48
Q

Which type of lung cancer is more common in nonsmokers?

A

Adenocarcinomas

49
Q

Which type of lung cancer is more common in heavy smokers?

A

SCC

SCLC

50
Q

What is the rationale for post Tx surveillance for CRC.

A

Early identification of recurrent disease for potential of cure by further surgical intervention and

Screening for secondary primary cancers and polyps e.g. resectable liver or pulmonary mets.

Colonscopy should be performed 1 year after resection pf a sporadic cancer.

If normal, than 5 yearly.
If poly found, than 3 yearly.

FU every 6 months for 2-3years.

51
Q

Surveillance program for CRC?

A

Hx, exam, CEA q 3-6 months for 2 years then q6 months for a total of 5 years

CTCAP q 12 months for 5 years

Colonoscopy at 12 months

  • if advanced adenoma repeat in 1 year
  • if no advanced adenoma, repeat in 3 years then every 5 years
52
Q

Significance of MMR gene in CRC?

A

MMR gene mutations lead to microsatellite instability.

Germline mutations in MMR = Lynch syndrome

53
Q

Amsterdam criteria for Lynch syndrome?

A

> =3 family members with confirmed CRC, one is a 1st degree relative of the other 2

2 successive generations affected

1 person

54
Q

What is the loss of expression of MMR genes in 15% of sporadic tumours due to?

A

epigenetic changes i.e. acquired hypermethylation of promotors of both alleles of MLH1 that silence gene expression

Activating BRAF mutations are nearly universal in sporadic MSI-H CRC but rare in Lynch cancers.

55
Q 
What are the features of HPV associated oropharyngeal ca:
Type of cancer
expression of p16 protein
p53
RF
Age at Dx
Anatomical location
Prognosis
A 
SCC
Over expression of p16 protein
p53 wildtype
decreased levels of pRB
Do not have other RF for head and neck cancers
Age 40s
Cancer located at base of tongue or tonsillar region
Better prognosis
56
Q 
What are the features of HPV negative associated oropharyngeal ca:
Type of cancer
expression of p16 protein
p53
RF
Age at Dx
Anatomical location
Prognosis
A 
SCC
low expression of p16 protein
p53 mutation
Increased levels of pRB
Have traditional RF- smoking, EtOH
age 50s
Any head and neck region
worse prognosis
57
Q

Which cancer Tx are commonly associated with infertility?

Mx?

A

Alkylating agents e.g. cyclophosphamide
Cisplatin
Radiation to pelvi region or testes

Mx:
Males - sperm banking
Females - embyro cyropreservation if male partner
Cryopreservation of oocytes
Insufficient evidence to support the use of GNRH as ovarian suppression during Tx

58
Q

Which therapies improve survival in metastatic hormone refractory prostate?

A

Docetaxel
Carbazitaxel
After Docetaxel, Abiraterone + prednisone improves survival.

Prior to Docetaxel CTx, improvement in radiographic progression free survival but not OS.

Enzalutamide post docetaxel CTx improved OS

59
Q

Abiraterone. MOA, Indication, AE?

A

Androgen synthesis inhibitor by blocking
cytochrome P450 17 alpha-hydroxylase (CYP17).

Blocks the synthesis of androgens in the tumor as well as in the testes and adrenal glands.

Indication:
Metastatic prostate cancer

AE:
Abiraterone causes mineralocorticoid excess resulting in fluid retention (eg peripheral oedema), hypokalaemia and hypertension. Although the incidence and severity of these effects are reduced by using abiraterone with a corticosteroid (eg prednisolone), they are still common.

60
Q

Enzalutamide. MOA, Indication, AE?

A

MOA:
binds to the androgen binding site in the androgen receptor, thereby leading to inhibition of nuclear translocation of the androgen receptor, and inhibition of the association of the androgen receptor with nuclear DNA

Indication:
metastatic prostate cancer (with GnRH agonist)

AE:
dry skin, hypertension, anxiety, memory impairment; fractures (may be related to increased incidence of falls)

GnRH agonist AE:
impotence, reduced libido (more common with cyproterone); gynaecomastia, breast pain (more common with nonsteroidal anti-androgens), hot flushes, sweating, body hair loss, itch, weight changes, headache, mood changes

61
Q

Goserelin, Leuprorelin and Triptorelin.
MOA
Indication
AE

A

MOA:
Continuous administration of GnRH agonists inhibits gonadotrophin production, suppressing ovarian and testicular steroidogenesis and inhibiting the growth of certain hormone-dependent tumours.

Indications:
Prostate ca
Breast ca

AE:
decreased BMD, measure BMD q1-2 years. Give Vit D and Ca supplements.

Prostate cancer: altered glucose tolerance, diabetes, anaemia, increased body fat, weight gain, muscle atrophy, hair changes (eg loss of body hair)

62
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome. Presentation, Tx?

A 
Presentation:
2 or more abnormalities 3 days before or up to 7 days after Tx:
Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphos
Hyperuricaemia
HypoCa

Mx:
IVF
Rasburicase more effective than allopurinol
Cardiac monitoring and tests q 6 hrs

63
Q

Oxaliplatinum AE?

A

Periperhal neurpathy and cold dysesthesias of the hands and feet

64
Q

Vincristine AE?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Extravasation reaction

65
Q

Epirubicin AE?

A

Cardiac toxicity

Extravasation reaction

66
Q

Capecitabine and 5FU AE?

A

Rash - palmar plantar syndrome

Coronary artery spasm

67
Q

Cyclophosphamide AE?

A

haemorrhagic cystitis

Infertility

68
Q

What secondary cancers can Alkylating agents cause? e.g. Chlorambucil,
Cyclophosphamide, Melphalan

A

MDS and AML

Alkylating agents have the highest risk of all CTx agents

69
Q

What secondary cancers can cisplatin and carboplatin cause?

A

AML

Dose related and increased risk with RTx
Risk not as high as with alkylating agents

70
Q

What are post transplant oncological complications?

A

Rate of malignancy 3-5 x higher

  • post transplant lymphoproliferative disease
  • SCC of lips, cervix, vulva, skin
  • Kaposi sarcoma
  • RCC
  • HCC
71
Q

Which cancers is the CEA used to monitor Tx response?

A

Metastatic breast, CRC, lung, pancreatic and gastric malignancies

72
Q

What is CEA used for in early CRC vs. Metastatic CRC?

A

Early CRC
- to detect recurrence after primary Tx as metastases may be resectable and curable

Mets CRC
- monitor response to Tx

73
Q

Causes of en elevated CEA?

A 
Benign polyps
Colitis
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Chronic lung disease and smokers

Very rarely is CEA >10-15 ug/L in benign conditions

74
Q

What is the Tx for liver mets in colorectal cancer?

A

If resectable

  • resect
  • 20% 5 yr survival
  • addition of CTx improves PFS

If non resectable
- addition of bevacizumab to FOLFOX in 1st line Tx of met disease improves PFS

Liver directed therapies e.g. TACE, RFA do not have sufficient evidence for 1st line therapy.

75
Q

Obesity increases the risk of cancer. 3% of cancer deaths are due to obesity. Which cancer has the highest risk?

A

Endometrial cancer, 3 fold.

Increases risk of:
Breast, post menopausal
CRC
Kidney
Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
Pancreas
76
Q

Which cancer is most attributable to smoking?

A

SCC

77
Q

Which CTx increases the risk of developing lung cancer?

A

Bleomycin

78
Q

MOA of apprepitant?

A

Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist

79
Q

Post CTx, neutrophil count reaches its nadir at?

A

10-14 d

With liposomal doxorubicin, reaches nadir at 14-18d

80
Q 
What is Lynch syndrome(HNPCC):
Inheritance
Mutation
Presentation
Dx criteria
Associated malignancies
A

Most common hereditary colon cancer syndrome

2-5% of all CRC
AD

genetic mutations in MLH1, MSH2 and PMS2, MSH6 (loss of expression of these)
If mismatch repair loss, look at BRAF mutation status. If mutated than unlikely to have MMR gene mutation.

Presentation:
Colorectal adenomas develop at 20-30 y
Lifetime risk of CRC is 80% with mean age of Dx at 44y
Proximal location of colon most common site, 2/3 of cases.

Dx Criteria:
3 relatives with an HNPCC associated cancer (coorectal, endometrial, SB, ureter or renal pelvis) and all the following criteria present:
-One 1st degree relative to the other 2
-At least 2 successive generations affected
-At least one case Dx before the age of 50
Exclusion of FAP

Associated malignancies:
Endometrial nest most common cancer
Gastric
Biliary tract
Urnary tract
Ovarian
Small bowel cancer
81
Q

Tx for SCLCa?

A

Limited to one hemithorax

  • combined CTxRTx
  • followed by prophylactic Whole brain RTx (WBRT) improves survival by 5%

Extensive
- CTx alone

82
Q

What is the most common and most aggressive primary brain tumour?
Dx?
Tx?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme.

Dx:
Biopsy, histo important for optimal Tx

Tx:
Surgical ressection PLUS
Concurrent Chemo-RTx (temozolamide) followed by CTx alone (Temozolmide - oral alkylating agent).

83
Q

AFP vs. BCG found in which cancer?

A

Testicular cancer.

Seminomas - B-HCG

Non seminomas - AFP and B-HCG

Seminomas with AFP should be considered to have a mixed Germ cell tumour = non seminomatous germ cell tumour

84
Q

Which anti-depressant interferes with the effects of Tamoxifen?

A

Paroxetine.
A strong inhibitor of the CYP2D6 enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, reducing the amount of active drug that is released.
Increased mortality.

Use venlafaxine or citalopram instead.

85
Q

NSCLCa. Adjuvant CTx shows survival benefit in which stages?

A

Stage II and III

Cisplatin doublet

86
Q

Carcinoid tumour. Cause, Presentation, Ix, Tx?

A

Slow growing neuroendocrine .
Most common site is ileum.
Can occur in lungs.

Presentation:
Diarrhoea
Flushes
Abdo pain

Ix:
Elevated 5 HIAA concentration

Tx:
Octreotide
- somatostatin analogue which improves symptoms and prognosis in carcinoid syndrome

87
Q 
FAP:
Inheritance
Mutation
Presentation
High risk of which cancers
Surveillance
A

AD
APC gene mutation

Presentation:
100-1000s of polyps throughout colorectum at mean age of 16 y.

High risk of:
Colorectal ca - mean age of Dx 39 y
Duodenal and gastric polyps 4.5% lifetime risk
Papillary thyroid cancer hepatoblastoma and CNS

Surveillance:
Yearly colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy at 10-15 y.
Preventative protocolectomy around 18.
Screen for duodenal adenomas with gastroduodenoscopy.
Genetic testing should be offered to all at risk relatives where the family specific mutation has been identified.
Otherwise genetic testing should only proceed in teh context of genetic counselling.

88
Q 
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Inheritance
Mutation
Presentation
Cancer risk associations
A

AD
Mutation in STK11/LKB1 gene

Presentation:
mucocutaneous melanocytic macules particulalry in the peri-oral region and over the buccal mucosa
GI hamartomatous polyps which may present in early adolescence with abdo pain, bleeding, obstruction or intussusception.

Hamartomatous polyps are usually located in the SI (60-90%) but can be found in colorectum, biliary tract, respiratory tract or GUT.

Cancer risk:
50-90% will develop one malignancy over their lifetime
Gastric 30-60%
Breast 54%
CRC 40%
Pancreas 35%
Every site affected!
89
Q

Juvenile polyposis syndrome.
Mutation
Presentation
Dx

A

Mutation in BMPR1A, SMAD4 or PTEN genes

Presentation:
Multiple polys through the GIT
Adbo pain
Bleeding
Diarrhoea
Obstruction
Intussusception
Mean age Dx at 18.5y

Dx:
Based on any of the following:
1) 3 or more juvenile polys in the colorectum
2) Multiple juvenile polys throughout the GIT
3) Any number of polyps coupled with a family Hx of JPS

90
Q 
Oesophageal cancer:
Types
RF
Presentation
Ix for Staging
Staging
Tx
A

Types:
Adenocarcinoma - more common in western world, affects distal
Squamous cell - 90% overall, more common in developing world, affects proximal oesophagous.

M>F

RF:
SCC- alcohol, tobacco, corsive injury to oesophagus, HPV not proven, precursor is squmouse dysplasia, no proven role fo

Adeno - Smoking, OBESITY, H. pylori, GORD and BE

Presentation:
Progressive solid food dysphagia most common and reduced oral intake.
Anaemia from GI bleeding.

Ix for Staging:
Endoscopy diagnostic
Endoscopic US- used for staging and accurate for establishing tumour stage
CT for distant mets
PET- changes staging in 20%
Staging:
O = tumour in mucosa
1 = tumour in submucosa
2a = into muscle 
2b = into lymph nodes
3 = beyond muscle
4 = mets

Tx:
Stage 0
-endoscopic mucosal ressection

Stage I
- oesophagectomy + lymph node clearance

Stage II and III
- oesophagectomy alone, 5-34% 5 year survival

Neoadjuvant = pre-op CTx and RTx improves survival compared to Sx alone for both cancers
Role of adjuvant CT and RT unclear

Stage IV:
Symptom control
- stent or RTx
CTx controversial, not sown to be superior to supportive care
- 2 drugs (5-FU and cisplatin) is SD
- 3 drugs (epi, cis + 5FU) is alternative with increased toxicity.
No survival benefit.

91
Q 
Gastric Cancer:
Types
RF
Presentation
Ix for Staging
Staging
Tx
A

Cause:
Gastric cardia - GORD
Non cardia gastric ca - casual link with H. pylori

RF:
M
Age

Classification:
Intestinal
- most frequent type
More common in older men
Strong association with H. pylori

Diffuse
- worse prognosis
-younger people
- associated with E-cadherin (CDHi) loss and link with families with CDH1 germline mutations
Role of H. pylori erradication in preventing gastric cancer unclear

Ix for Staging:
EUS
CT
No role for PET

Tx:
T1 (submucosa)
- Sx alone

All other stages
- Sx alone 5 year survival

92
Q

HCC. When is Sx indicated?

A

Single lesion

93
Q

Sorafenib.

MOA

A

Multikinase inhibitor.
Inhibitors tumour growth by inhibiting intracellular Raf kinases (CRAF, BRAF and mutant BRAF) and cell surface kinase receptors (VEGFR-1, VEGFR-2, VEGFR-3, PDGFR-beta, cKIT, FLT-3, RET, and RET/PTC).

Indication:
Tx of unresecatble HCC
Tx of advanced RCC
Tx of locally recurrent or metastatic progressive differentiated thyroid cancer. 
AE:
diarrhoea
Hand and foot reaction
HT
Abdo pain
94
Q

Biliary Ca:

Types

A

Gallbladder, Intrahepatic, Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinomas.

Presentation:
70% inoperable disease

No proven role for adjuvant therapy
Cisplatin and Gemcitabine improves survival in mets disease

95
Q

Pancreatic cancer:

A

RF:
Genetics strong RF
1 family member = 1 x risk
2 family members = 6 x risk

Location:
60% head of pancreas

Mx:
Sx is only chance of cure
Adjuvant CTx improves survival
FOLFIRINOX 11.1 months

Cx:
90% die of disease

96
Q

Colon Ca:

Which stage benefits from adjuvant CTx

A

Stage 3 (LN +ve):
FOLFOX4 for a fit and well pt
- AE: neuropathy
Oral capecitabine - IV 5FU

97
Q

Bevacizumab:

Indication

A

Metastatic Colon Ca
- only active if given with CTx
Proven survival benefit

98
Q

Cetuximab:
MOA
AE

A

Binds to EGFR of both tumour and normal cells, competitively inhibiting ligand binding.

Has activity alone and with CTx
K-ras is a predictive biomarker

Indication:
Metastatic colorectal ca- KRAS wildtype (without mutation)
EGFR expressing mestatic colorectal cancer
In combination with FOLFIRI as 1st line Tx or with Irinotecan or
single agent in pts who have failed irontecan and oxaliplatin based CTx.

Head and neck cancer

AE:
acneform rash

99
Q

Which GI cancers have adjuvant Tx?

A

Colon
Gastric
Pancreatic

100
Q

Screening for CRC:

  1. Normal population
  2. FHx (1st degree relative) = slightly above average risk
  3. Two first degree relatives or relative Dx at age
A

Normal:
FOBT q 2years from 50y
Flex Sig q5 years from 50y

1st degree relative = 2 x risk:
FOBT annually from 50y
Flex Sigmoid q 5 years from 50y

Two 1st degree relatives or relative

101
Q

HNPCC:

Screening for at risk

A

Second yearly Colonoscopy at age 25 y or 10 y younger than the youngest affected.

Annual colonscopy in known mutation carriers.

FOBT in intervening years and to those with poor compliance to colonoscopy.

Options for surveillance at other sites from 25-35 y:
Annual transvaginal US + endometrial sampling
Annual check fro CA125 after menopause
2nd yearly GI endoscopy and
Annual UA and Cytology

102
Q

Hormone replacement associated with highest risk of which cancer?

A

Breast

103
Q

Mantle radiotherapy is associated with the highest risk of which cancer?

A

Breast

104
Q

Testicular cancer.

Tx for SGCT

A

Pure seminomas = excellent prognosis

Radical Inguinal orchiectomy PLUS
- Low stage: surveillance (chemo: may reduce surveillance requirement)

- High stage: chemo (platinum based = BEP (bleomycin + etoposide + cisplatin))
105
Q

Testicular cancer.

Tx for NSGCT

A

Radical Inguinal orchiectomy PLUS

  • Low stage: +/- 1-2 cycles chemo
    • If recur: RPLND + chemo
      • BEP: bleomycin + etoposide + cisplatin
      • or EP
  • High stage:
    • chemo (platinum based - BEP)
106
Q

Which anticancer agent is the most likely to cause acute resp distress?

A

ATRA-all trans-retinoic acid

Indicated in APML (think ATRA, FLT3 most common mutated gene)

107
Q

Cause of false negative PET?

A

Uncontrolled DM

108
Q

Meningioma.

Where do they commonly occur?

A

Commonly occurs in parasellar regions of the base of skull or cerebral convexities.

109
Q

Most common SE of erlotinib and gefitanib?

Most toxic SE?

A

Common = rasj 75% and diarhhoea 55%

Toxic:
ILD

MK (28 decks)

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