Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of Autosomal dominant disease?

A
Adult polycystic kidney disease
BRCA 1 and 2, MEN, Lynch, VHL
Connective tissue disease e.g. Achondroplasia, Ehlers Danlos, Osteogenesis imperfecta
FAP
Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Familial retinoblastoma
Fragile X
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Huntington's
Marfan's
Myotonic dystrophy
Neurofibromatosis Type 1
PCKD
VWD
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2
Q

Examples of Autosomal recessive disease?

A
Alpha anti-trysan
CF
Factor V Leiden
Friedrich’s ataxia
Haemachromatosis
PKU
Sickle cell
Thalassaemia
Tay sacks
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3
Q

X-linked recessive conditions?

A

Duchenne

Haemophilia A

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4
Q

AD inheritance pattern?

A
Each child 50% risk
No skipped generations
Male to male transmission
May have incomplete penetrance
Occurs in each generation - if skipped may be due to non penetrance
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5
Q

AR pattern of inheritance?

A

Need one from each parent

Equally transmitted by males and females

Males are infertile

If a person is a carrier (heterozygote) of an AR allele, they always have a 1/2 (50%) chance of passing on allele

1/4 chance of next child

If one child affected, other children have 2/3 chance

chance of unaffected child having gene is 2/3

Consanguinity common, especially for rare disorder)

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6
Q

X linked dominant inheritance.
Pattern of inheritance?
Examples

A

Hemizygous males have full phenotype (severely affected, usually lethal in pregnancy or neonatal)

Heterozygous females are typically unaffected or only mildly affected

NO male to male transmission

examples:
Rett syndrome

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7
Q

Mitochondrial pattern of inheritance?

Examples

A

Females will pass on to all children.
Examples:
Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)
MELAS (myopathy, encephalopathy, ALctic acidosis, Stroke like episodes)
Myoclonic epilepsy with Ragged Red Fibres (MERRF)
Neuropthy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigementaosa (NARP)

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8
Q

Examples of triple repeat disorders?

A

Fragile X

Huntington’s

Myotonic dystrophy

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9
Q

What is Mosaicism vs. chimerism?

A

A mosaic individual has 2 or more genetically different cell lines derived from the same zygote.

A chimeric individual has 2 or more genetically different cell lines derived from 2 or more zygotes.

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10
Q

What is genome imprinting?

A

Epigenetic marking based on its parental origin that results in mono allelic expression

Imprinting = switched off

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11
Q

Female pt with Fragile X syndrome shown to carry a CGG repeat size of 180 (witin premutation range). What are the risks to her of transmitting Fragile X syndrome to her offspring?

A

50% chance of passing on the pre-mutation allele which could expand into full mutation as she is a female transmitting parent. AD inheritance unstable on maternal transmission -> anticipation

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12
Q

What level of repeat is required for triple repeat expansion for normal, intermediate, permutation and full mutation?

A

Normal 11-44 repeats

Intermediate 45-58 repeats

Premutaiton 59-200 repeats

Full mutation > 200

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13
Q

What is chromosomal microarrays?

A

A method to assess thousands of DNA sequences to detect sub-microscopic chromosomal imbalances (gains or losses).

Will not detect a balanced X-autosome reciprocal translocation

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14
Q

What are the features of mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Maternal, will pass on to all her children

High mutation rate

Multiple copies

Variable expressivity is common

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15
Q

X-linked dominant female carriers will show a phenotype. T/F

A

True, milder than males

X-linked recessive shows no phenotype

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16
Q

What is the inheritance of BRCA mutation?

A

AD

If concerns of BRCA mutation, test affected family member for mutation

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17
Q

Point mutation is a type fo DNA mutation? What are the 4 Types?

A

A change in a single base pair.

Missense = spelling mistake e.g. THE BIG RAD DOG -> gain of function

Nonsense = stop codon e.g. THE BIG RED -> loss of fucntion

Frameshift deletion = deletion e.g. THE BRE DDO G -> loss of function

Frameshift insertion = insertion e.g. THE BIG RED ZDO G -> loss of function

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18
Q

what is a splice site mutation?

A

A change that results in altered RNA sequence.
usually due to point mutations but can be insertions or deletions.

i.e. exon spliced out or intron left in. Introns are meant to be spliced out.

An intron is a region of a gene that does not code for a protein

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19
Q

What is linkage analysis?

A

A test to look for patterns of DNA markers near gene of interest that segregate with disease. Requires DNA analysis of multiple family members

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20
Q

What is the recombination fraction?

A

The freq with which a single chromosome cross over will take place between 2 genes during meiosis i.e. the chance they will break up

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21
Q

What would a deletion in an exon cause?

A

Leads to deletion of dystrophin protein resulting in Duchennes muscular dystrophy

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22
Q

How does silencing occur in imprinted genes?

A

Addition of methyl groups during egg or sperm formation

23
Q

What is uniparental disomy?

A

Occurs when one person receives 2 copies of the chromosome from one parent and no copies from the other.

UPD can be the result of heterodisomy (a pair of non identical chromsoomes are inherited from one parent) or

isodisomy (single chromosome from one parent is duplicated).

Isodisomy is potentially dangerous as may lead to duplication of the lethal recessive gene.

24
Q

HLA B*5701 +ve. What antiretroviral will cause an AE?

A

Abacavir (NRTI)

Can cause hypersensitivity in 5-8% of pts in 1st 6 weeks of therapy

HLA B*5701 allele occur 5% in Europeans and 1% in Asian and

25
Q

What is the genetic defect in Prada Willi syndrome?

A

Del 15q11-q13

Deletion is always on the father’s chromosome 15

26
Q

Deletion in Angelman syndrome?

A

15q11-q13

Deletion is always on the chromosome 15 derived from the mother

27
Q

What is the molecular basis of Prada Willi and Angelman syndrome?

A

Involves imprinted domain of chromosome 15 (q11-q13)
PW - absence of paternal contribution
AS - absence of maternal contribution

28
Q

What are the clinical features of Huntington disease?

A
Intellectual deterioration
Personality change
Progressive movement disorder
Mean age onset 40 y
Mean duration of disease 15 y
29
Q

Fragile X. Mutation and clinical features?

A

CGG repeat in FMR1 (or GCC in FMR2- rarer)
Long big ears
females may be mildly affected
Anticipation

30
Q

What is the role of FISH?

What does it not detect?

A

Fluorescent in-situ hybridisation
To identify common chromosomal deletion that are below the resolution of standard cytogenentics

Does not detect:
partial deletions
substitutions
duplications

31
Q

Role of CGH microarrays?

A

Compares the number betweenthe control and test sample for thousands of genomic markers spaced over all chromosomes.

A powerful technique to identify chromosome abnormality in oncology and syndrome due to microdeletions e.g. Di George22q deletion,

32
Q

Which genetic disorder displays homogeneity (same nature)?

A

Huntington’s disease
Trinucletoide repeat.
Working HD gene has 26 CAG repeats. When the gene is faulty it can repeat 40 x or more.

33
Q

What is an intron?

A

found between exons (intervening regions), may be involved in regulation.

34
Q

What is an exon?

A

contain sequences coding for specific polypeptide (expressing regions)

35
Q

DNA is transcribed or translated into mRNA?

A

Transcribed

mRNA translated into a protein,

36
Q

Genes expression is selective and determined by what 4 factors?

A
  1. Differential transcription
  2. Epigenetic mechanism
  3. Alternative RNA processing
  4. Translation and post-translational modification
37
Q

What 4 factors complicate Mendelian patterns of inheritance?

A
  1. Anticipation
  2. Imprinting
  3. Mosacism
  4. Mitochondrial inheritance
38
Q

What are the complicating factors in AD inheritance?

A

Anticipation
- the tendecny in a geentic condition for successive generations to present at an earlier age and/or with more severe manisfestations e.g. triplet repeat

Imprinting
- differential gene expression dependednt on the parent of origin (mother or father)

Moasaicism
- the post fertilisation occurrence of genetically different cell lines within an individual

39
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms for imprinting causing phenotypes?

A
  1. deletion of one allele, effect depends on parent who transmitted allele
  2. Abnormal methylation- most common
  3. Uniparental disomy - both chromosomal regions inherited from same parent
  4. Mutations - in imprinted genes in the region or imprinting centre genes
40
Q

List examples of diseases due to imprinting?

A

Prada Willi - 15q11.2 (paternal deletion)
Angelman syndrome 15q11.2 (maternal deletion)
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome 11p15
Russell-Silver syndrome 11p15
A;bright hereditary osteodystrophy

41
Q

What are the types of mosaicism?

A

A mosaic individual has 2 or more genetically different cell lines derived from the same zygote.

Types:

  1. Chromosomal e.g. 45XO/46XY individual (rare disorder of sex development), trisomy 8 mosaicism, confined placental mosaicism e.g. turner’s 45X, NF1 and DMD (gonadal)
  2. Single gene - post fertilisation somatic mutation e.g. Proteus syndrome
  3. Germline (gonadal) mutation- (dominant) mutations in germ cells can be inherited and cause a full phenotype in offspring therefore a phenotypically normal parent can have multiple affected children
  4. inactivation in females
42
Q

What is the most common mutation in CF?

A

Delta F508, Phe508 deletion

43
Q

Cystic Fibrosis. Inheritance. 2 types.

A
AR condition
Classic CF (no functional CFTR protein)
- chronic sinusitis, severe hepatobiliary disease, pancreatic exocrine insuff, meconium ileus at birth, obstructive azoospermia)
Nonclassical CF (some functional CFTR protein providing survival advantage)
- chronic bacterial infection of airways, adequate pancreatic exocrine function, obstructive azoopsermia
44
Q

Additions or deletions of base pairs in exons results in?

A

Frameshift - pathogenic

45
Q

If you delete exon 1, what will happen to protein production during translation of RNA to protein?

A

There will be complete loss of protein production.
Exon 1 is usually the start/initiation codon.

On the other hand deletion of one nucleotide in exon will result in abnormal RNA/protein production.

46
Q

What is the role of transcription factor?

A

Regulates the polyadenylation of messenger RNA.

Mutations in genes for transcription factor are responsible for many familial disorders.

47
Q

What is linkage equilibrium?

A

is the non-random association of alleles at different loci i.e. the presence of statistical associations between alleles at different loci that are different from what would be expected if alleles were independently, randomly sampled based on their individual allele frequencies.
e.g. 20% heterozygous at codon 16 and 22% heterozygous at codon 27.

If there is no linkage disequilibrium between alleles at different loci they are said to be in linkage equilibrium.

48
Q

Cell cycle phases.
Interphase
Mitotic phase
Ctokinesis

A

Interphase:
GO: Quescent/senescent
G1:
cell grow in size

G1 check point control prior to entering S (p53)

Synthesis:
DNA replicates into exactly 2 chromosomes. 30% of cells in this phase at any time.

G2:
Significant biosynthesis to ensure cell growth and production of microtubules required for mitosis.

G2M checkpoint (p53)

Mitosis:
Cells divide into cytokines to produce identical daughter cells.
Division of mother cell into 2 daughter cells.
Metaphase checkpoint in the middle of mitosis.

49
Q

Where does CTx act on the cell cycle?

A
Synthesis:
Alkylating agents e.g. cyclophosphomide
Antibiotic - doxorubicin
Antimetabolites - 5FU, Gemcitabine, MTx
Hydroxyurea

G2:
Bleomycin

M
Taxanes (antimicrotubule) e.g. paclitaxol, doxetaxol
Vinca alkaloids (spindle cell einhibitors) e.g vincristine, vinelrelbine
Etoposide

50
Q

Chromosome deletions cause more severe effects than inserttion. T/F

A

True
47 XXY - Klineelters
45 XO - Turner

51
Q

Creuzfeldt Jakob disease: what type og mutation identified in the prion protein?

A

Missense

52
Q

Cell Cycle:

  1. quiescent/senescent
  2. Interphase
  3. Cell division
A
  1. quiescent/senescent
    - G0: resting phase
  2. Interphase
    G1 = growth of cell
    S= synthesis, doubling of the same cell
    G2= preparing for mitosis, increase of microtubles.
  3. Cell division
    Mitosis: 2 daughter cells from the one cell
53
Q

CTx on cell cycle

A

Bleolycin

Synthesis:
anthracyclines
hydroxyurea
5FU

Mitosis:
taxanes