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Rembe - Chapter 9 (PT Apps) Flashcards

Clinical Application

1
Q

Local effects of a heat application include

a. Decreased diapedesis of leukocytes
b. Local analgesia
c. Decreased blood flow in the part
d. Decreased tissue metabolism

A

b. Local analgesia

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2
Q

The critical temperature for a sustained cold application to tissue is

54 °F
50 °F
48 °F
43 °F

A

43 °F

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3
Q

The point of thermal indifference of the skin for water (normal body temperature) is

82 °F
84 °F
86 °F
92 °F

A

92 °F

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4
Q

Objectives of muscle reeducation programs include

a. Development of motor awareness
b. Development of voluntary response
c. Development of strength
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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5
Q

Indications for an ice pack include

Acute sprains, contusions, soft tissue injuries
Acute bursitis
Acute soft tissue injuries
All of the above

A

All of the above

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6
Q

Local effects of cold applications include

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Increased local circulation
c. Superficial penetration beneath skin surface
d. Increased leukocytic migration through capillary walls

A

a. Vasoconstriction

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7
Q

A good reaction to cold is characterized by

Bright pink skin
Maintained pulse rate
A feeling of chilliness
A sense of remorse

A

Bright pink skin

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8
Q

To increase knee flexion range of motion, the proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique of choice is hold-relax applied directly to the

Iliopsoas
Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Anterior tibialis

A

Hamstrings

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9
Q

What relationship group presents a large problem to overcome by a supervisor?

Intrapersonal
Peer group
Authority-responsibility
Subordinate to supervisor

A

Intrapersonal

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10
Q

All of the following are part of the “seven deadly sins” of a manager’s style EXCEPT

a. Using snap judgment
b. Failure to make assignments and instructions clear
c. Being a leader instead of a boss
d. Being indifferent toward discipline and recognition

A

c. Being a leader instead of a boss

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10
Q

What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples of effective leadership EXCEPT

a. Resolve conflict early
b. Encourage creativity and innovation
c. Provide little control or feedback
d. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth

A

c. Provide little control or feedback

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11
Q

The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is

Theory Y
Theory X
Theory Z
Theory XYZ

A

Theory X

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12
Q

Which of the following muscles has the most important function as a downward rotator of the scapula?

Levator scapulae
Upper trapezius
Pectoralis major
Rhomboideus major

A

Rhomboideus major

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13
Q

During your evaluation of a patient’s shoulder, you discover he has a tear in the supraspinatus muscle. What test did you use?

Apley scratch test
Tinel test
Yergason test
Drop-arm test

A

Drop-arm test

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14
Q

The acupressure point that alleviates pain of the forehead is known as

Chu-chih
Ho-ku
Lieh-chueh
Nei-kuan

A

Ho-ku

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15
Q

When using the bindegervebs massage you should always end the massage with

Balancing strokes
Sunstrokes
Hypothenor strokes
Three-count strokes

A

Balancing strokes

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16
Q

Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the humerus?

Teres major
Pectoralis major
Pectoralis minor
Supraspinatus

A

Pectoralis minor

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17
Q

You have determined that your patient has a hip flexion contracture. What test did you use to determine the contracture?

Yergason
Tinel
Thomas
Ober

A

Thomas

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18
Q

A physical therapy director who manages by theory Y will assume all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Employees inherently dislike work
b. Employees seek to accept responsibility
c. Employees will exercise self-direction
d. Employees assume work is natural

A

a. Employees inherently dislike work

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18
Q

Herzberg’s two-factor motivation theory includes which of the following?

a. Satisfies and dissatisfies
b. Advancement and promotion
c. Responsibility and growth
d. Longer work hours and increased work load

A

a. Satisfies and dissatisfies

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18
Q

All of the following are theoretical perspectives of group conflict EXCEPT

Analytical
Psychoanalytical
Developmental
Systems approach

A

Analytical

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19
Q

All of the following are components of communication within a physical therapy department, EXCEPT:

Initiation
Transmission
Attending
Feedback

A

Attending

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20
Q

All of the following are types of leadership, EXCEPT

Nonparticipative
Laissez-faire
Paternalistic
Bureaucratic

A

Nonparticipative

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21
Q

In a quality assurance program the outcome assessment is based upon the condition of the patient

At time of evaluation
During treatment phase
At conclusion of care
After discharge

A

At conclusion of care

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22
Q

Ina quality assurance program, retrospective audit is performed

After discharge
At conclusion of care
After treatment
After evaluation

A

After discharge

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23
Q

The primary purpose for record keeping in a physical therapy department is

Communication of patient care
Betterment of patient care
Quality of care assessment
Medical-legal aspects

A

Betterment of patient care

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24
Q

The patient’s medical record is utilized for all of the following, EXCEPT:

Patient’s own use
Third-party pay
Medical-legal aspects
Medical treatment

A

Patient’s own use

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24
Q

The problem-oriented medical record is directed toward all of the following EXCEPT

Organizing date
Preserving medical logic
Assessing quality care
Restrict structure of care

A

Restrict structure of care

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25
Q

Departmental records and date are collected in physical therapy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

Standards of practice
Standards of work
Departmental planning
Organization control

A

Standards of practice

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26
Q

When considering the construction or redesigning of a physical therapy department, all of the following are true EXCEPT

Size of hospital
Referral sources
Changes in practice
Changes in equipment

A

Changes in equipment

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27
Q

All of the following fall under the category of malpractice EXCEPT

Breach of negative law
Willful departure from acceptable practice
Breach of positive law
Negligence of the law

A

Breach of negative law

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28
Q

Which of the following muscles is most important for crutch walking?

Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius
Posteruir deltoid and subscapularis
Middle deltoid and pectoralis major
Anterior deltiod and biceps

A

Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius

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29
Q

For the paraplegic patient, which gait is the most difficult when ambulating with crutches?

Swing-to
Swing-through
Four-point
Two-point

A

Swing-through

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30
Q

The stance phase during ambulation begins when

Toes leave the ground
Toes touch the ground
Heel touches the ground
Heel leaves the ground

A

Heel touches the ground

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31
Q

Paralysis or marked weakness of the pretibial muscle group produces

Foot drop during swing phase
Excessive foot eversion
Excessive foot inversion
Plantar extension

A

Foot drop during swing phase

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32
Q

‘Williams’ exercises are designed to strengthen which of the following muscles?

Abdominal and gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus and medius
Gluteus maximus and minimus
Erectus spinae

A

Abdominal and gluteus maximus

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33
Q

The major muscles that act for inspiratory movements include

External intercostals
Interal intercostals
Scalene
Sternocleidomastoid

A

External intercostals

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34
Q

An individual fatigues easily doing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following exercise programs will produce LESS fatigue?

Oxford technique
deLorme technique
Cybex technique
hellebrandt

A

Oxford technique

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34
Q

When using PNF, the movement is facilitated at its onset by

Quich stretch
Active stretch
Extensor thrust
Flexor thrust

A

Quich stretch

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35
Q

When a cane is used for ambulation, usually it is used

Opposite the affected side
Same side as injury
Only during the phase stance
Only during push-off

A

Opposite the affected side

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36
Q

During locomotion, the adductor muscles of the thigh

a. Have peak activity just after heel contact
b. Have a high activity level in early stance phase
c. Have a high activity level in late stance phase
d. Spike peak activity just before toe-off

A

d. Spike peak activity just before toe-off

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37
Q

During locomotion the erector spinae muscles

a. Have a high activity during early stance phase
b. Have a high activity during late stance phase
c. Are silent during swing phase
d. Have a low-grade activity during swing phase

A

d. Have a low-grade activity during swing phase

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38
Q

During swing phase in locomotion

a. Ankle dorsiflexors show only slight activity
b. Calf muscles are active
c. Quadriceps are showing strong activity
d. Hamstrings are silent

A

a. Ankle dorsiflexors show only slight activity

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39
Q

During stance phase in locomotion

Calf muscles become active
Quadriceps are active
Hip abductors are active
AOTA

A

AOTA

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40
Q

Actions of the trapezius (all or in part) include

a. Protraction of the shoulder girdle
b. Downward rotation of the shoulder girdle
c. Shoulder girdle elevation
d. Shoulder girdle does not move

A

c. Shoulder girdle elevation

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41
Q

Which of the following muscles are important in stabilizing the scapula?

Levator scapulae
Latissimus dorsi
Deltoid
Serratus anterior

A

Serratus anterior

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42
Q

When performing mobilization, the inferior glide of the humeral head is performed with the shoulder in what position?

Slight abducted to 5°
Abducted to 30°
Externally rotated
Internally rotated

A

Abducted to 30°

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43
Q

During mobilization, the anterior glide with external rotation adds a maximal stretch to the

a. Anterior portion of the capsule
b. Posterior portion of the capsule
c. Anterior portion of the head of the humerus
d. Posterior portion of the head of the humerus

A

a. Anterior portion of the capsule

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44
Q

When the patella is mobilized with the cephalad movement, the force is in what direction?

Proximally
Distally
Medially
Laterally

A

Proximally

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45
Q

When the patella is mobilized with the medial movement, the force is in what direction?

Laterally
Medially
Proximally
Distally

A

Medially

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46
Q

When the patella is mobilized with the lateral movement, the force is in what direction?

Proximally
Distally
Medially
Laterally

A

Laterally

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47
Q

Which of the following spinal orthoses limit lumbar extension and reduce lordosis?

Chairback brace
Knight spinal brace
William’s brace
Taylor brace

A

William’s brace

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48
Q

The Philadelphia collar is nearly as effective as what other rigid cervical brace for controlling flexion-extension between the occiput and third cervical vertebrae?

Hard cervical collars
Four-poster cervical brace
Somi brace
Soft cervical collars

A

Four-poster cervical brace

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49
Q

Pain that is experience before any point restriction can be felt indicates what type of lesion?

Acute stage
Subacute stage
Joint hypomobility
Painful one

A

Acute stage

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49
Q

Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the median nerve?

Flexor carpi radialis
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor pollicus longus
Abductor pollicur longus

A

Abductor pollicur longus

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50
Q

Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the ulnar nerve?

Flexor carpi ulnaris
Palmaris brevis
Adductor pollicis
Opponens pollicis

A

Opponens pollicis

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51
Q

All of the following muscles act on the wrist EXCEPT:

Flexor carpi radialis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Extensor digitorum communis

A

Extensor digitorum communis

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52
Q

All of the following muscles have an action on both the wrist and the digits EXCEPT

Extensor pollicis brevis
Extensor indicis proprius
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Flexor digitorum profundus

A

Extensor carpi radialis longus

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53
Q

Protraction (abduction) of the shoulder girdle is seriously weakened by the loss of the

Middle trapezius
Serratus anterior
Latissimus dorsi
Pectoralis minor

A

Serratus anterior

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54
Q

The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the

Serratus anterior
Latissimus dorsi
Levator scapulae
Pectoralis minor

A

Levator scapulae

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55
Q

Your patient is in the prone position with the knees flexed. You compressed the heel and rotated the leg. The patient complained of pain. What test did you use?

Mcmurray
Apley’s
Tinel
Ober

A

Apley’s

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56
Q

Which of the following motions would be severely limited with a median nerve injury?

Elbow flexion
Elbow extension
Forearm pronation
Forearm supination

A

Forearm pronation

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57
Q

Which of the following muscles is necessary to raise the arm straight overhead?

Upper trapezius
Middle trapezius
Lower trapezius
Serratus anterior

A

Serratus anterior

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58
Q

Loss of which of the following muscles will markedly limit hyperextension of the arm?

Posterior deltoid
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pectoralis major

A

Posterior deltoid

59
Q

A positive Ober test indicates

Contracted biceps
Contracted gastrocnemius
Contracted iliotibial band
Contracted iliopsoas

A

Contracted iliotibial band

60
Q

Which of the following muscles is a pure flexor of the elbow?

Biceps brachii
Brachioradialis
Pronator teres
Brachialis

A

Brachialis

61
Q

The knee joint has

1° freedom of motion
2° freedom of motion
3° freedom of motion
4° freedom of motion

A

2° freedom of motion

62
Q

If pain is felt during a restricted joint movement, what type of lesion is present?

Acute
Subacute
Joint hypomobility
Painful one

A

Joint hypomobility

63
Q

The radial nerve has been severed mid arm. The resulting deformity is

Claw hand
Ape hand
Wrist drop
A combination of claw hand and ape hand

A

Wrist drop

64
Q

A child turns his head to the right, his right arm extends and his left arm flexes. What reflex did the child exhibit?

Asymmetrical tonic neck
Symmetrical tonic neck
Asymmetrical tonic labyrinthine
Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine

A

Asymmetrical tonic neck

65
Q

A cerebrovascular accident patient has a subluxed right shoulder. The subluxation occurs as a result of

a. No portions of the mating cartilages are in contact
b. Angle of fracture of the humerus
c. Reducing the fracture of the humerus
d. Partial separation of the articular cartilages

A

d. Partial separation of the articular cartilages

66
Q

In normal development, a child will roll from prone to supine at what age?

0-3 months
3-5 months
4-6 months
6-8 months

A

4-6 months

66
Q

In normal development, a child begins to reach for objects and to crawl at what age?

0-3 months
3-5 months
4-6 months
6-8 months

A

3-5 months

66
Q

In normal development, a child begins to reach for objects and to crawl at what age?

0-3 months
4-6 months
6-8 months
3-5 months

A

3-5 months

67
Q

During prone weight-bearing posture, the child progresses through various stages of motor control. Which of the following refers to rocking or weight shifting?

Controlled mobility
Stability
Static-dynamic level
Skill of locomotion

A

Controlled mobility

68
Q

A positive posterior draw sign signifies what ligament is torn?

Lateral collateral
Anterior cruciate
Posterior cruciate
Posterior meniscal

A

Posterior cruciate

69
Q

When testing for a medial collateral ligament tear, apply

Valgus stress
Varus stress
Posterior stress
Anterior stress

A

Valgus stress

70
Q

When testing for lateral knee stability, apply

Valgus stress
Varus stress
Posterior stress
Anterior stress

A

Varus stress

71
Q

A positive anterior draw sign indicates what ligament is torn?

Anterior cruciate
Posterior cruciate
Anterior meniscus
Lateral collateral

A

Anterior cruciate

72
Q

During knee flexion and extension, what will produce an audible clicking in the joint line?

Mcmurray test
Ober test
Apley’s compressiont est
Thomas test

A

Mcmurray test

72
Q

A positive Tinel sign indicates pain over

Severed nerve
Severed ligament
Severed muscle
Severed blood vessel

A

Severed nerve

73
Q

The quadriceps muscles reach their peak of activity during locomotion

a. At the beginning of the swing phase
b. Late in the swing phase
c. Following heel contact during stance phase
d. Late in the stance phase

A

c. Following heel contact during stance phase

74
Q

Which of the following presents itself with a median nerve paralysis?

a. Flexion of the thumb is absent
b. Opposition of the thumb is lost
c. There is atrophy of the thenar muscles
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

75
Q

What reactions causes segmental rotation during normal development?

STLR
ATNR
Body on body
STNR

A

Body on body

76
Q

Circumduction is characteristic of joints with

1° of freedom of motion
2° of freedom of motion
3° of freedom of motion
2 or 3° of freedom of motion

A

2 or 3° of freedom of motion

77
Q

The subscapularis

a. Is attached to the rib cage
b. Inserts greater tubercle of the humerus
c. Has a nerve supply only in the lower subscapular nerves
d. Is one of the “cuff muscles”

A

d. Is one of the “cuff muscles”

78
Q

The following muscles originate on the scapula and inserts into the humerus. They are known as

“Cuff muscles”
Brachialis
Triceps brachii
Biceps brachii

A

“Cuff muscles”

78
Q

Timing for emphasis, a PNF technique, is utilized by the therapist to accomplish

a. Decrease over mobile joints
b. Increased range of motion
c. Increased strength to normal muscles
d. An overflow to weak muscles

A

d. An overflow to weak muscles

79
Q

Shoulder external rotation is performed by

Subscapularis
Teres minor
Teres major
Pectoralis major

A

Teres major

80
Q

Shoulder internal rotation is achieved by

Posterior deltoid
Teres minor
Latissimus dorsi
Pectoralis minor

A

Latissimus dorsi

81
Q

The upper and lower portions of the trapezius are synergists in

Elevation
Retraction
Protraction
Upward rotation

A

Upward rotation

82
Q

The subscapularis in infraspinatus

a. Are antagonists in shoulder internal rotation
b. Are antagonists in scapula internal rotation
c. Elevate the head of the humerus in shoulder abduction
d. Are synergists for shoulder flexion

A

a. Are antagonists in shoulder internal rotation

83
Q

The patella

a. Provides poor leverage for the quadriceps muscles when the knee is extended
b. Provides better leverage for the quadriceps muscle when the knee is flexed
c. Plays no role in the mechanics of the knee joint
d. Lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint axis

A

d. Lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint axis

84
Q

In strong wrist flexion, the long fingers flexors will act. The synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the long finger flexors is

Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Brachioradialis
Long finger extensors

A

Long finger extensors

84
Q

In hypertension at the shoulder joint, especially with the resistance, the posterior portion of the deltoideus will also tend to rotate the arm outwardly. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is

Latissimus dorsi
Teres minor
Posterior deltoid
Anterior deltoid

A

Latissimus dorsi

85
Q

In radial deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi radialis will also tend to flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralzied by certain muscles acting as synergist, which would be the

a. Extensor carpi dardialis longus
b Flexor carpi radialis brevis
c. Extensor digitorun
d. Extensor pollicus longus

A

a. Extensor carpi dardialis longus

86
Q

In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the extensor carpi ulnaris will also tend to extend the wrist. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is

Flexor carpi radialis
Palmaris longus
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor carpi ulnaris

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris

87
Q

Consider thigh flexion. The tensor fascia latae is a prime mover for flexion but it will also tend to abduct the thigh. This tendency will be neutralized by the

Sartorious
Iliacus
Psoas major
Pectineus

88
Q

In thigh extension, the gluteus maximus, adductor magnus, and the hamstring muscles are the principal prime movers, the first two especially when the thigh is flexed 45° or greater. The adductor magnus will tend to adduct the thigh unless this tendency is neutralized by the

Pectineus
Iliopsoas
Gluteus minimus
Gluteus medius

A

Gluteus medius

88
Q

You wish to increase range of motion of a muscles. You can use hold-relax or contract-relax techniques. What is the main difference.

Isotonic contractions-both
Direction of movement
Verbal command
Causes pain

A

Verbal command

89
Q

If forearm pronation is desired without elbow flexion, the synergists preventing or neutralizing the flexion include

Triceps brachii
Brachialis
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus

A

Triceps brachii

90
Q

You wish to enhance stability of the hip for ambulation. Which of the following PNF procedures would you use?

Cutaneous stimulation
Joint approximation
Isometric contraction
Concentric contraction

A

Joint approximation

91
Q

When the patella is mobilized with the caudal movement, the force is in what direction?

Laterally
Medially
Distally
Proximally

92
Q

An increased inclination of the pelvis is also known as

Posterior tilt
Backward tilt
Erect
Forward tilt

A

Forward tilt

93
Q

A patient has a positive Trendelenburg sign, what does this mean?

Pelvis drops on affected side
Pelvis drops on unaffected side
Pelvis does not move
Pelvis is dislocated

A

Pelvis drops on unaffected side

94
Q

A spinal cord patient with a C-5 lesion cannot do any of the following, EXCEPT

Feed himself
Assist lifting himself
Dress himself
Bathe himself

A

Assist lifting himself

95
Q

A spinal cord patient with a T-1 lesion can do all of the following EXCEPT

Wheelchair independence
Feed himself
Functional ambulation
Dress himself

A

Functional ambulation

96
Q

A spinal cord patient at the level of L-4 has all of the following muscles intact EXCEPT

Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Psoas major
Rectus abdominus

A

Hamstrings

97
Q

The muscle responsible for unlocking the extended knee position is

Gastro-soleus
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Popliteus

98
Q

An individual ambulation with a spinal cord severance at L-4 to S-2 can perform all of the following EXCEPT

a. Independent ambulation without braces
b. Independent ambulation with short leg braces
c. Completely free of wheelchair
d. Ambulate with forearm crutch

A

a. Independent ambulation without braces

99
Q

An individual with a quadrilateral socket will bear most of the body weight on

Quadriceps
Gluteus maximus
ASIS of the pelvis
Ischium of the pelvis

A

Ischium of the pelvis

100
Q

The mechanical advantage of a lever is

a. Ratio of the length of the force arm to the resistance encountered
b. Ratio of the length of the weight arm to the effort applied
c. Product of the force and the resistance encountered
d. Ratio of the length of the force arm and the length of the weight arm

A

d. Ratio of the length of the force arm and the length of the weight arm

101
Q

During locomotion the calf group of muscles

a. Reach peak activity during swing phase
b. Are relatively silent during swing phase
c. Reach peak activity during stance phase
d. Are relatively silent during stance phase

A

c. Reach peak activity during stance phase

102
Q

Which of the following muscles is an elbow flexor and is supplied by the radial nerve?

Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Pronator teres
Brachioradialis

A

Brachioradialis

103
Q

Which of the following muscles can carry out its function without respect to the position of the forearm?

Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Pronator teres
Brachioradialis

A

Brachialis

104
Q

Which of the following muscles is NOT a “cuff muscle” at the shoulder joint?

Supraspinatus
Subscapularis
Infraspinatus
Teres Major

A

Teres Major

105
Q

Which of the following muscles has LEAST effect on eversion of the ankle?

Peroneus longus
Peroneus brevis
Extensor digitorum longus
Extensor halluces longus

A

Extensor halluces longus

106
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to joints that permits 3° of freedom of motion?

Hip joint
The axes all pass through the center of the joint
Glenohumeral joint
Condyloid joints

A

Condyloid joints

107
Q

Which of the following is NOT pertinent to Newton’s Third Law?

a. Action and reaction are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction
b. The forces acting upon a body neutralize each other
c. Applies to all forces, including muscle forces
d. Bodies at rest tend to remain at rest whille bodies in motion tend to remain in motion

A

d. Bodies at rest tend to remain at rest whille bodies in motion tend to remain in motion

108
Q

You wish to develop trunk control for a cerebrovascular accident patient. Which of the following PNF techniques would you use?

Hold-relax
Rhythmic stabilization
Rhythmic initiation
Slow reversal hold

A

Rhythmic initiation

109
Q

A primarily phasic muscle may respond favorably to what type of stretch in the lengthened range?

Active
Slow
Continuous
Quick

110
Q

Which of the following actions take place at the shoulder joint?

a. Flexion-extension movements in a frontal plane
b. Flexion-extension movements in a sagittal plane
c. Abduction-adduction movements in a sagittal plane
d. Abduction-adduction movements in a transverse plane

A

b. Flexion-extension movements in a sagittal plane

111
Q

Patient will progress through stages of motor control. All of the following are the stages EXCEPT

Uncontrolled mobility
Mobility
Stability
Skill

A

Uncontrolled mobility

112
Q

Which of the following is NOT related to the cardinal planes of the body?

a. They are perpendicular to each other
b. They pass through the center of gravity of the body
c. The sagittal plane divides the body into front and back parts
d. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower parts

A

c. The sagittal plane divides the body into front and back parts

113
Q

Which of the following PNF techniques will provide controlled mobility for your patient?

Repeated contractions
Slow reversal hold
Hold-relax
Rhythmic stabilization

A

Slow reversal hold

114
Q

Which of the following muscles will have the highest function excursion?

Gluteus maximus
Psoas major
Deltoideus
Semimembranosus

A

Semimembranosus

115
Q

A muscle contracts without being allowed to shorten or lengthen. This is called

Isotonic contraction
Isometric contraction
Concentric contraction
Eccentric contraction

A

Isometric contraction

116
Q

Which of the following muscles comes closer to being a pure internal rotator at the shoulder?

Anterior deltoideus
Teres major
Latissimus dorsi
Subscapularis

A

Subscapularis

117
Q

Which of the following muscles are synergists for scapula retraction, but antagonists for shoulder girdle upward and downward rotation?

a. Trapezius and serratus anterior
b. Trapezius and rhomboids
c. Upper and lower trapezius
d. Anterior and posterior deltoids

A

b. Trapezius and rhomboids

118
Q

A positive Trendelenburg sign results from paralysis of

Hip abductors
Hip flexors
Hip extensors
Hip adductors

A

Hip abductors

119
Q

The biceps will supinate the forearm, especially when the elbow is flexed. The synergist that will neutralize the supinating tendencies of the biceps is

Coracobrachialis
Brachialis
Flexor carpi radialis
Pronator teres

A

Pronator teres

120
Q

The biceps and the supinator muscle will supinate forearm. If supination alone is desired, the synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the biceps is

Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus
Triceps brachii
Extensor digitorum

A

Triceps brachii

121
Q

In strong wrist flexion, the flexor carpi ulnaris will also tend to cause ulnar deviation at the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which would be

Palmaris longus
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi ulnaris
None of the above

A

None of the above

122
Q

In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi ulnaris will have a tendency to also flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which is the

Palmaris longus
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Abductor pollicus longus

A

Extensor carpi ulnaris

123
Q

The peroneus longus is a plantar flexor of the foot. It will also revert the foot unless this tendency is neutralized by the

Tibialis anterior
Tibialis posterior
Flexor digitorum longus
Flexor halluces longus

A

Tibialis posterior

124
Q

The tibialis anterior has two actions: foot inversion and foot dorsiflexion. The synergist that will neutralize the tendencies of foot inversion when dorsiflexion is desired is

Peroneus tertius
Peroneus brevis
Peroneus longus
Posterior tibialis

A

Peroneus tertius

125
Q

The shoulder commonly has limited range in external rotation, abduction, and flexion. There are found in what PNF pattern?

D1 F
D1 E
D2 F
D2 E

126
Q

The patient is placed in supine position. This would be the best position to test

Knee flexion-fair
Ankle plantar flexion - non weight-bearing tests for gastrocnemius and soleus
Trunk elevation - fair
Sartorius - poor

A

Sartorius - poor

127
Q

All of the following movements could be tested with the patient in the standing position EXCEPT

a. Elevation of pelvis
b. Hip external or internal rotation - poor
c. Ankle plantar flexion, for soleus
d. Hip abduction - normal and good

A

d. Hip abduction - normal and good

128
Q

Your patient lurches backward during stance phase. What type of gait is he demonstrating?

Wide-based gait
Antalgic gait
Gluteus medius gait
Extensor gait

A

Extensor gait

129
Q

A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is lateral trunk bending. Which of the following is NOT a cause?

Weak hip abductor
Weak hip adductor
Pain or discomfort of the stump
Abducted socket

A

Weak hip adductor

130
Q

A common above-knee amputee deviation is circumduction. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation?

Insufficient knee flexion
Inadequate suspension
Socket is too large
Excessive plantar flexion

A

Socket is too large

131
Q

A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is wide base walking. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation?

a. Prosthesis too short
b. Mechanical hip joint set in abduction
c. Contracted hip abductors
d. Pain in crotch area

A

a. Prosthesis too short

131
Q

The SACH prosthesis is defined as

a. Solid ankle cork heel
b. Solid ankle cushioned heel
c. Soft ankle cushioned heel
d.Soft ankle customed hee

A

c. Soft ankle cushioned heel

132
Q

An excessive plantar-flexion bumper in a single-axis ankle allows what to happen?

a. Foot-flat will occur prematurely
b. Prevent normal knee flexion
c. Cause slapping on the floor
d. Prosthesis is in plantar flexion

A

c. Cause slapping on the floor

133
Q

The dorsiflexion bumper permits the prosthetic transverse ankle axis to do which of the following?

Dorsiflexion
Plantar-flex
Rotate
Remain in neutral

A

Dorsiflexion

134
Q

The PTB socket is defined as

a. Posterior tendon bearing
b. Patellar tendon bearing
c. Patellar transfer bearing
d. Pressure tendon bearing

A

b. Patellar tendon bearing

135
Q

The Lenox Hill orthosis provides what type of stability to the knee?

Extension
Flexion
Mediolateral
None of the above

A

Mediolateral

136
Q

A plantar-flexion (posterior) ankle stop allows which of the following?

Plantar-flexion
Dorsiflexion
Inversion
Eversion

A

Dorsiflexion

137
Q

A dorsiflexion (anterior) ankle stop allows which of the following?

Plantar-flexion
Dorsiflexion
Inversion
Eversion

A

Plantar-flexion

138
Q

The maximum loose-pack position is defined as

Active position
Prone position
Supine position
Resting position

A

Resting position

139
Q

The close-packed position is characterized by which of the following criteria?

a. Joint capsule is maximally relaxed
b. Joint capsule is maximally tensed
c. Minimal contact with concave surfaces
d. Minimal contact with convex surfaces

A

b. Joint capsule is maximally tensed

140
Q

The translatory gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow

Parallel joint surfaces
Oblique joint surfaces
Articular surfaces
Parallel treatment plane

A

Parallel treatment plane

141
Q

The objective of joint mobilization is to quickly restore the active

Roll-gliding
Traction
Rolling
Treatment

A

Roll-gliding

141
Q

An individual has been referred to physical therapy for posture evaluation. The following signs were found which led you to discover a scoliosis. Which one is NOT a sign or symptom of scoliosis?

One leg shorter
Pelvic obliquity
Elevated shoulder
Flat back

142
Q

An individual has had a very short below-elbow amputation. What control motion would you use to teach the patient to control his prosthesis?

Pronation-supination
Shrug control
Arm flexion
Scapula-retraction

A

Arm flexion

143
Q

An individual demonstrates a steppage gait during his ambulation activities. You would describe a steppage gait as excessive

Knee and hip flexion
Knee and hip extension
Knee and ankle flexion
Knee and ankle extension

A

Knee and hip flexion

144
Q

Your patient has a positive Trendelenburg which results in what type of gait?

Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Steppage
Antalgic

A

Gluteus medius

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