Rembe - Chapter 9 (PT Apps) Flashcards by Ralph Liam Yulo

Local effects of a heat application include

a. Decreased diapedesis of leukocytes
b. Local analgesia
c. Decreased blood flow in the part
d. Decreased tissue metabolism

b. Local analgesia

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The critical temperature for a sustained cold application to tissue is

54 °F
50 °F
48 °F
43 °F

43 °F

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The point of thermal indifference of the skin for water (normal body temperature) is

82 °F
84 °F
86 °F
92 °F

92 °F

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Objectives of muscle reeducation programs include

a. Development of motor awareness
b. Development of voluntary response
c. Development of strength
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

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Indications for an ice pack include

Acute sprains, contusions, soft tissue injuries
Acute bursitis
Acute soft tissue injuries
All of the above

All of the above

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Local effects of cold applications include

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Increased local circulation
c. Superficial penetration beneath skin surface
d. Increased leukocytic migration through capillary walls

a. Vasoconstriction

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A good reaction to cold is characterized by

Bright pink skin
Maintained pulse rate
A feeling of chilliness
A sense of remorse

Bright pink skin

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To increase knee flexion range of motion, the proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique of choice is hold-relax applied directly to the

Iliopsoas
Quadriceps
Hamstrings
Anterior tibialis

Hamstrings

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What relationship group presents a large problem to overcome by a supervisor?

Intrapersonal
Peer group
Authority-responsibility
Subordinate to supervisor

Intrapersonal

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All of the following are part of the “seven deadly sins” of a manager’s style EXCEPT

a. Using snap judgment
b. Failure to make assignments and instructions clear
c. Being a leader instead of a boss
d. Being indifferent toward discipline and recognition

c. Being a leader instead of a boss

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What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples of effective leadership EXCEPT

a. Resolve conflict early
b. Encourage creativity and innovation
c. Provide little control or feedback
d. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth

c. Provide little control or feedback

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The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is

Theory Y
Theory X
Theory Z
Theory XYZ

Theory X

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Which of the following muscles has the most important function as a downward rotator of the scapula?

Levator scapulae
Upper trapezius
Pectoralis major
Rhomboideus major

Rhomboideus major

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During your evaluation of a patient’s shoulder, you discover he has a tear in the supraspinatus muscle. What test did you use?

Apley scratch test
Tinel test
Yergason test
Drop-arm test

Drop-arm test

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The acupressure point that alleviates pain of the forehead is known as

Chu-chih
Ho-ku
Lieh-chueh
Nei-kuan

Ho-ku

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When using the bindegervebs massage you should always end the massage with

Balancing strokes
Sunstrokes
Hypothenor strokes
Three-count strokes

Balancing strokes

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Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the humerus?

Teres major
Pectoralis major
Pectoralis minor
Supraspinatus

Pectoralis minor

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You have determined that your patient has a hip flexion contracture. What test did you use to determine the contracture?

Yergason
Tinel
Thomas
Ober

Thomas

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A physical therapy director who manages by theory Y will assume all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Employees inherently dislike work
b. Employees seek to accept responsibility
c. Employees will exercise self-direction
d. Employees assume work is natural

a. Employees inherently dislike work

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Herzberg’s two-factor motivation theory includes which of the following?

a. Satisfies and dissatisfies
b. Advancement and promotion
c. Responsibility and growth
d. Longer work hours and increased work load

a. Satisfies and dissatisfies

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All of the following are theoretical perspectives of group conflict EXCEPT

Analytical
Psychoanalytical
Developmental
Systems approach

Analytical

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All of the following are components of communication within a physical therapy department, EXCEPT:

Initiation
Transmission
Attending
Feedback

Attending

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All of the following are types of leadership, EXCEPT

Nonparticipative
Laissez-faire
Paternalistic
Bureaucratic

Nonparticipative

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In a quality assurance program the outcome assessment is based upon the condition of the patient

At time of evaluation
During treatment phase
At conclusion of care
After discharge

At conclusion of care

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Ina quality assurance program, retrospective audit is performed After discharge At conclusion of care After treatment After evaluation

After discharge

The primary purpose for record keeping in a physical therapy department is Communication of patient care Betterment of patient care Quality of care assessment Medical-legal aspects

Betterment of patient care

The patient’s medical record is utilized for all of the following, EXCEPT: Patient’s own use Third-party pay Medical-legal aspects Medical treatment

Patient’s own use

The problem-oriented medical record is directed toward all of the following EXCEPT Organizing date Preserving medical logic Assessing quality care Restrict structure of care

Restrict structure of care

Departmental records and date are collected in physical therapy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: Standards of practice Standards of work Departmental planning Organization control

Standards of practice

When considering the construction or redesigning of a physical therapy department, all of the following are true EXCEPT Size of hospital Referral sources Changes in practice Changes in equipment

Changes in equipment

All of the following fall under the category of malpractice EXCEPT Breach of negative law Willful departure from acceptable practice Breach of positive law Negligence of the law

Breach of negative law

Which of the following muscles is most important for crutch walking? Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius Posteruir deltoid and subscapularis Middle deltoid and pectoralis major Anterior deltiod and biceps

Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius

For the paraplegic patient, which gait is the most difficult when ambulating with crutches? Swing-to Swing-through Four-point Two-point

Swing-through

The stance phase during ambulation begins when Toes leave the ground Toes touch the ground Heel touches the ground Heel leaves the ground

Heel touches the ground

Paralysis or marked weakness of the pretibial muscle group produces Foot drop during swing phase Excessive foot eversion Excessive foot inversion Plantar extension

Foot drop during swing phase

‘Williams’ exercises are designed to strengthen which of the following muscles? Abdominal and gluteus maximus Gluteus maximus and medius Gluteus maximus and minimus Erectus spinae

Abdominal and gluteus maximus

The major muscles that act for inspiratory movements include External intercostals Interal intercostals Scalene Sternocleidomastoid

External intercostals

An individual fatigues easily doing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following exercise programs will produce LESS fatigue? Oxford technique deLorme technique Cybex technique hellebrandt

Oxford technique

When using PNF, the movement is facilitated at its onset by Quich stretch Active stretch Extensor thrust Flexor thrust

Quich stretch

When a cane is used for ambulation, usually it is used Opposite the affected side Same side as injury Only during the phase stance Only during push-off

Opposite the affected side

During locomotion, the adductor muscles of the thigh a. Have peak activity just after heel contact b. Have a high activity level in early stance phase c. Have a high activity level in late stance phase d. Spike peak activity just before toe-off

d. Spike peak activity just before toe-off

During locomotion the erector spinae muscles a. Have a high activity during early stance phase b. Have a high activity during late stance phase c. Are silent during swing phase d. Have a low-grade activity during swing phase

d. Have a low-grade activity during swing phase

During swing phase in locomotion a. Ankle dorsiflexors show only slight activity b. Calf muscles are active c. Quadriceps are showing strong activity d. Hamstrings are silent

a. Ankle dorsiflexors show only slight activity

During stance phase in locomotion Calf muscles become active Quadriceps are active Hip abductors are active AOTA

AOTA

Actions of the trapezius (all or in part) include a. Protraction of the shoulder girdle b. Downward rotation of the shoulder girdle c. Shoulder girdle elevation d. Shoulder girdle does not move

c. Shoulder girdle elevation

Which of the following muscles are important in stabilizing the scapula? Levator scapulae Latissimus dorsi Deltoid Serratus anterior

Serratus anterior

When performing mobilization, the inferior glide of the humeral head is performed with the shoulder in what position? Slight abducted to 5° Abducted to 30° Externally rotated Internally rotated

Abducted to 30°

During mobilization, the anterior glide with external rotation adds a maximal stretch to the a. Anterior portion of the capsule b. Posterior portion of the capsule c. Anterior portion of the head of the humerus d. Posterior portion of the head of the humerus

a. Anterior portion of the capsule

When the patella is mobilized with the cephalad movement, the force is in what direction? Proximally Distally Medially Laterally

Proximally

When the patella is mobilized with the medial movement, the force is in what direction? Laterally Medially Proximally Distally

Medially

When the patella is mobilized with the lateral movement, the force is in what direction? Proximally Distally Medially Laterally

Laterally

Which of the following spinal orthoses limit lumbar extension and reduce lordosis? Chairback brace Knight spinal brace William’s brace Taylor brace

William’s brace

The Philadelphia collar is nearly as effective as what other rigid cervical brace for controlling flexion-extension between the occiput and third cervical vertebrae? Hard cervical collars Four-poster cervical brace Somi brace Soft cervical collars

Four-poster cervical brace

Pain that is experience before any point restriction can be felt indicates what type of lesion? Acute stage Subacute stage Joint hypomobility Painful one

Acute stage

Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the median nerve? Flexor carpi radialis Flexor digitorum superficialis Flexor pollicus longus Abductor pollicur longus

Abductor pollicur longus

Which of the following muscles is NOT supplied by the ulnar nerve? Flexor carpi ulnaris Palmaris brevis Adductor pollicis Opponens pollicis

Opponens pollicis

All of the following muscles act on the wrist EXCEPT: Flexor carpi radialis Extensor carpi ulnaris Flexor carpi ulnaris Extensor digitorum communis

Extensor digitorum communis

All of the following muscles have an action on both the wrist and the digits EXCEPT Extensor pollicis brevis Extensor indicis proprius Extensor carpi radialis longus Flexor digitorum profundus

Extensor carpi radialis longus

Protraction (abduction) of the shoulder girdle is seriously weakened by the loss of the Middle trapezius Serratus anterior Latissimus dorsi Pectoralis minor

Serratus anterior

The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the Serratus anterior Latissimus dorsi Levator scapulae Pectoralis minor

Levator scapulae

Your patient is in the prone position with the knees flexed. You compressed the heel and rotated the leg. The patient complained of pain. What test did you use? Mcmurray Apley’s Tinel Ober

Apley’s

Which of the following motions would be severely limited with a median nerve injury? Elbow flexion Elbow extension Forearm pronation Forearm supination

Forearm pronation

Which of the following muscles is necessary to raise the arm straight overhead? Upper trapezius Middle trapezius Lower trapezius Serratus anterior

Serratus anterior

Loss of which of the following muscles will markedly limit hyperextension of the arm? Posterior deltoid Latissimus dorsi Teres major Pectoralis major

Posterior deltoid

A positive Ober test indicates Contracted biceps Contracted gastrocnemius Contracted iliotibial band Contracted iliopsoas

Contracted iliotibial band

Which of the following muscles is a pure flexor of the elbow? Biceps brachii Brachioradialis Pronator teres Brachialis

Brachialis

The knee joint has 1° freedom of motion 2° freedom of motion 3° freedom of motion 4° freedom of motion

2° freedom of motion

If pain is felt during a restricted joint movement, what type of lesion is present? Acute Subacute Joint hypomobility Painful one

Joint hypomobility

The radial nerve has been severed mid arm. The resulting deformity is Claw hand Ape hand Wrist drop A combination of claw hand and ape hand

Wrist drop

A child turns his head to the right, his right arm extends and his left arm flexes. What reflex did the child exhibit? Asymmetrical tonic neck Symmetrical tonic neck Asymmetrical tonic labyrinthine Symmetrical tonic labyrinthine

Asymmetrical tonic neck

A cerebrovascular accident patient has a subluxed right shoulder. The subluxation occurs as a result of a. No portions of the mating cartilages are in contact b. Angle of fracture of the humerus c. Reducing the fracture of the humerus d. Partial separation of the articular cartilages

d. Partial separation of the articular cartilages

In normal development, a child will roll from prone to supine at what age? 0-3 months 3-5 months 4-6 months 6-8 months

4-6 months

In normal development, a child begins to reach for objects and to crawl at what age? 0-3 months 3-5 months 4-6 months 6-8 months

3-5 months

In normal development, a child begins to reach for objects and to crawl at what age? 0-3 months 4-6 months 6-8 months 3-5 months

3-5 months

During prone weight-bearing posture, the child progresses through various stages of motor control. Which of the following refers to rocking or weight shifting? Controlled mobility Stability Static-dynamic level Skill of locomotion

Controlled mobility

A positive posterior draw sign signifies what ligament is torn? Lateral collateral Anterior cruciate Posterior cruciate Posterior meniscal

Posterior cruciate

When testing for a medial collateral ligament tear, apply Valgus stress Varus stress Posterior stress Anterior stress

Valgus stress

When testing for lateral knee stability, apply Valgus stress Varus stress Posterior stress Anterior stress

Varus stress

A positive anterior draw sign indicates what ligament is torn? Anterior cruciate Posterior cruciate Anterior meniscus Lateral collateral

Anterior cruciate

During knee flexion and extension, what will produce an audible clicking in the joint line? Mcmurray test Ober test Apley’s compressiont est Thomas test

Mcmurray test

A positive Tinel sign indicates pain over Severed nerve Severed ligament Severed muscle Severed blood vessel

Severed nerve

The quadriceps muscles reach their peak of activity during locomotion a. At the beginning of the swing phase b. Late in the swing phase c. Following heel contact during stance phase d. Late in the stance phase

c. Following heel contact during stance phase

Which of the following presents itself with a median nerve paralysis? a. Flexion of the thumb is absent b. Opposition of the thumb is lost c. There is atrophy of the thenar muscles d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What reactions causes segmental rotation during normal development? STLR ATNR Body on body STNR

Body on body

Circumduction is characteristic of joints with 1° of freedom of motion 2° of freedom of motion 3° of freedom of motion 2 or 3° of freedom of motion

2 or 3° of freedom of motion

The subscapularis a. Is attached to the rib cage b. Inserts greater tubercle of the humerus c. Has a nerve supply only in the lower subscapular nerves d. Is one of the “cuff muscles”

d. Is one of the “cuff muscles”

The following muscles originate on the scapula and inserts into the humerus. They are known as “Cuff muscles” Brachialis Triceps brachii Biceps brachii

“Cuff muscles”

Timing for emphasis, a PNF technique, is utilized by the therapist to accomplish a. Decrease over mobile joints b. Increased range of motion c. Increased strength to normal muscles d. An overflow to weak muscles

d. An overflow to weak muscles

Shoulder external rotation is performed by Subscapularis Teres minor Teres major Pectoralis major

Teres major

Shoulder internal rotation is achieved by Posterior deltoid Teres minor Latissimus dorsi Pectoralis minor

Latissimus dorsi

The upper and lower portions of the trapezius are synergists in Elevation Retraction Protraction Upward rotation

Upward rotation

The subscapularis in infraspinatus a. Are antagonists in shoulder internal rotation b. Are antagonists in scapula internal rotation c. Elevate the head of the humerus in shoulder abduction d. Are synergists for shoulder flexion

a. Are antagonists in shoulder internal rotation

The patella a. Provides poor leverage for the quadriceps muscles when the knee is extended b. Provides better leverage for the quadriceps muscle when the knee is flexed c. Plays no role in the mechanics of the knee joint d. Lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint axis

d. Lifts the quadriceps tendon away from the joint axis

In strong wrist flexion, the long fingers flexors will act. The synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the long finger flexors is Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi ulnaris Brachioradialis Long finger extensors

Long finger extensors

In hypertension at the shoulder joint, especially with the resistance, the posterior portion of the deltoideus will also tend to rotate the arm outwardly. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is Latissimus dorsi Teres minor Posterior deltoid Anterior deltoid

Latissimus dorsi

In radial deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi radialis will also tend to flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralzied by certain muscles acting as synergist, which would be the a. Extensor carpi dardialis longus b Flexor carpi radialis brevis c. Extensor digitorun d. Extensor pollicus longus

a. Extensor carpi dardialis longus

In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the extensor carpi ulnaris will also tend to extend the wrist. The synergist that will neutralize this tendency is Flexor carpi radialis Palmaris longus Flexor digitorum profundus Flexor carpi ulnaris

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Consider thigh flexion. The tensor fascia latae is a prime mover for flexion but it will also tend to abduct the thigh. This tendency will be neutralized by the Sartorious Iliacus Psoas major Pectineus

Pectineus

In thigh extension, the gluteus maximus, adductor magnus, and the hamstring muscles are the principal prime movers, the first two especially when the thigh is flexed 45° or greater. The adductor magnus will tend to adduct the thigh unless this tendency is neutralized by the Pectineus Iliopsoas Gluteus minimus Gluteus medius

Gluteus medius

You wish to increase range of motion of a muscles. You can use hold-relax or contract-relax techniques. What is the main difference. Isotonic contractions-both Direction of movement Verbal command Causes pain

Verbal command

If forearm pronation is desired without elbow flexion, the synergists preventing or neutralizing the flexion include Triceps brachii Brachialis Brachioradialis Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus

Triceps brachii

You wish to enhance stability of the hip for ambulation. Which of the following PNF procedures would you use? Cutaneous stimulation Joint approximation Isometric contraction Concentric contraction

Joint approximation

When the patella is mobilized with the caudal movement, the force is in what direction? Laterally Medially Distally Proximally

Distally

An increased inclination of the pelvis is also known as Posterior tilt Backward tilt Erect Forward tilt

Forward tilt

A patient has a positive Trendelenburg sign, what does this mean? Pelvis drops on affected side Pelvis drops on unaffected side Pelvis does not move Pelvis is dislocated

Pelvis drops on unaffected side

A spinal cord patient with a C-5 lesion cannot do any of the following, EXCEPT Feed himself Assist lifting himself Dress himself Bathe himself

Assist lifting himself

A spinal cord patient with a T-1 lesion can do all of the following EXCEPT Wheelchair independence Feed himself Functional ambulation Dress himself

Functional ambulation

A spinal cord patient at the level of L-4 has all of the following muscles intact EXCEPT Quadriceps Hamstrings Psoas major Rectus abdominus

Hamstrings

The muscle responsible for unlocking the extended knee position is Gastro-soleus Biceps femoris Semitendinosus Popliteus

Popliteus

An individual ambulation with a spinal cord severance at L-4 to S-2 can perform all of the following EXCEPT a. Independent ambulation without braces b. Independent ambulation with short leg braces c. Completely free of wheelchair d. Ambulate with forearm crutch

a. Independent ambulation without braces

An individual with a quadrilateral socket will bear most of the body weight on Quadriceps Gluteus maximus ASIS of the pelvis Ischium of the pelvis

Ischium of the pelvis

The mechanical advantage of a lever is a. Ratio of the length of the force arm to the resistance encountered b. Ratio of the length of the weight arm to the effort applied c. Product of the force and the resistance encountered d. Ratio of the length of the force arm and the length of the weight arm

d. Ratio of the length of the force arm and the length of the weight arm

During locomotion the calf group of muscles a. Reach peak activity during swing phase b. Are relatively silent during swing phase c. Reach peak activity during stance phase d. Are relatively silent during stance phase

c. Reach peak activity during stance phase

Which of the following muscles is an elbow flexor and is supplied by the radial nerve? Biceps brachii Brachialis Pronator teres Brachioradialis

Brachioradialis

Which of the following muscles can carry out its function without respect to the position of the forearm? Biceps brachii Brachialis Pronator teres Brachioradialis

Brachialis

Which of the following muscles is NOT a “cuff muscle” at the shoulder joint? Supraspinatus Subscapularis Infraspinatus Teres Major

Teres Major

Which of the following muscles has LEAST effect on eversion of the ankle? Peroneus longus Peroneus brevis Extensor digitorum longus Extensor halluces longus

Extensor halluces longus

Which of the following does NOT apply to joints that permits 3° of freedom of motion? Hip joint The axes all pass through the center of the joint Glenohumeral joint Condyloid joints

Condyloid joints

Which of the following is NOT pertinent to Newton’s Third Law? a. Action and reaction are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction b. The forces acting upon a body neutralize each other c. Applies to all forces, including muscle forces d. Bodies at rest tend to remain at rest whille bodies in motion tend to remain in motion

d. Bodies at rest tend to remain at rest whille bodies in motion tend to remain in motion

You wish to develop trunk control for a cerebrovascular accident patient. Which of the following PNF techniques would you use? Hold-relax Rhythmic stabilization Rhythmic initiation Slow reversal hold

Rhythmic initiation

A primarily phasic muscle may respond favorably to what type of stretch in the lengthened range? Active Slow Continuous Quick

Quick

Which of the following actions take place at the shoulder joint? a. Flexion-extension movements in a frontal plane b. Flexion-extension movements in a sagittal plane c. Abduction-adduction movements in a sagittal plane d. Abduction-adduction movements in a transverse plane

b. Flexion-extension movements in a sagittal plane

Patient will progress through stages of motor control. All of the following are the stages EXCEPT Uncontrolled mobility Mobility Stability Skill

Uncontrolled mobility

Which of the following is NOT related to the cardinal planes of the body? a. They are perpendicular to each other b. They pass through the center of gravity of the body c. The sagittal plane divides the body into front and back parts d. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower parts

c. The sagittal plane divides the body into front and back parts

Which of the following PNF techniques will provide controlled mobility for your patient? Repeated contractions Slow reversal hold Hold-relax Rhythmic stabilization

Slow reversal hold

Which of the following muscles will have the highest function excursion? Gluteus maximus Psoas major Deltoideus Semimembranosus

Semimembranosus

A muscle contracts without being allowed to shorten or lengthen. This is called Isotonic contraction Isometric contraction Concentric contraction Eccentric contraction

Isometric contraction

Which of the following muscles comes closer to being a pure internal rotator at the shoulder? Anterior deltoideus Teres major Latissimus dorsi Subscapularis

Subscapularis

Which of the following muscles are synergists for scapula retraction, but antagonists for shoulder girdle upward and downward rotation? a. Trapezius and serratus anterior b. Trapezius and rhomboids c. Upper and lower trapezius d. Anterior and posterior deltoids

b. Trapezius and rhomboids

A positive Trendelenburg sign results from paralysis of Hip abductors Hip flexors Hip extensors Hip adductors

Hip abductors

The biceps will supinate the forearm, especially when the elbow is flexed. The synergist that will neutralize the supinating tendencies of the biceps is Coracobrachialis Brachialis Flexor carpi radialis Pronator teres

Pronator teres

The biceps and the supinator muscle will supinate forearm. If supination alone is desired, the synergist that will neutralize the flexion tendencies of the biceps is Brachioradialis Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus Triceps brachii Extensor digitorum

Triceps brachii

In strong wrist flexion, the flexor carpi ulnaris will also tend to cause ulnar deviation at the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which would be Palmaris longus Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi ulnaris None of the above

None of the above

In ulnar deviation of the wrist, the flexor carpi ulnaris will have a tendency to also flex the wrist unless this tendency is neutralized by a synergist, which is the Palmaris longus Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi ulnaris Abductor pollicus longus

Extensor carpi ulnaris

The peroneus longus is a plantar flexor of the foot. It will also revert the foot unless this tendency is neutralized by the Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior Flexor digitorum longus Flexor halluces longus

Tibialis posterior

The tibialis anterior has two actions: foot inversion and foot dorsiflexion. The synergist that will neutralize the tendencies of foot inversion when dorsiflexion is desired is Peroneus tertius Peroneus brevis Peroneus longus Posterior tibialis

Peroneus tertius

The shoulder commonly has limited range in external rotation, abduction, and flexion. There are found in what PNF pattern? D1 F D1 E D2 F D2 E

D2 F

The patient is placed in supine position. This would be the best position to test Knee flexion-fair Ankle plantar flexion - non weight-bearing tests for gastrocnemius and soleus Trunk elevation - fair Sartorius - poor

Sartorius - poor

All of the following movements could be tested with the patient in the standing position EXCEPT a. Elevation of pelvis b. Hip external or internal rotation - poor c. Ankle plantar flexion, for soleus d. Hip abduction - normal and good

d. Hip abduction - normal and good

Your patient lurches backward during stance phase. What type of gait is he demonstrating? Wide-based gait Antalgic gait Gluteus medius gait Extensor gait

Extensor gait

A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is lateral trunk bending. Which of the following is NOT a cause? Weak hip abductor Weak hip adductor Pain or discomfort of the stump Abducted socket

Weak hip adductor

A common above-knee amputee deviation is circumduction. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation? Insufficient knee flexion Inadequate suspension Socket is too large Excessive plantar flexion

Socket is too large

A common above-knee amputee gait deviation is wide base walking. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this deviation? a. Prosthesis too short b. Mechanical hip joint set in abduction c. Contracted hip abductors d. Pain in crotch area

a. Prosthesis too short

The SACH prosthesis is defined as a. Solid ankle cork heel b. Solid ankle cushioned heel c. Soft ankle cushioned heel d.Soft ankle customed hee

c. Soft ankle cushioned heel

An excessive plantar-flexion bumper in a single-axis ankle allows what to happen? a. Foot-flat will occur prematurely b. Prevent normal knee flexion c. Cause slapping on the floor d. Prosthesis is in plantar flexion

c. Cause slapping on the floor

The dorsiflexion bumper permits the prosthetic transverse ankle axis to do which of the following? Dorsiflexion Plantar-flex Rotate Remain in neutral

Dorsiflexion

The PTB socket is defined as a. Posterior tendon bearing b. Patellar tendon bearing c. Patellar transfer bearing d. Pressure tendon bearing

b. Patellar tendon bearing

The Lenox Hill orthosis provides what type of stability to the knee? Extension Flexion Mediolateral None of the above

Mediolateral

A plantar-flexion (posterior) ankle stop allows which of the following? Plantar-flexion Dorsiflexion Inversion Eversion

Dorsiflexion

A dorsiflexion (anterior) ankle stop allows which of the following? Plantar-flexion Dorsiflexion Inversion Eversion

Plantar-flexion

The maximum loose-pack position is defined as Active position Prone position Supine position Resting position

Resting position

The close-packed position is characterized by which of the following criteria? a. Joint capsule is maximally relaxed b. Joint capsule is maximally tensed c. Minimal contact with concave surfaces d. Minimal contact with convex surfaces

b. Joint capsule is maximally tensed

The translatory gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow Parallel joint surfaces Oblique joint surfaces Articular surfaces Parallel treatment plane

Parallel treatment plane

The objective of joint mobilization is to quickly restore the active Roll-gliding Traction Rolling Treatment

Roll-gliding

An individual has been referred to physical therapy for posture evaluation. The following signs were found which led you to discover a scoliosis. Which one is NOT a sign or symptom of scoliosis? One leg shorter Pelvic obliquity Elevated shoulder Flat back

Flat back

An individual has had a very short below-elbow amputation. What control motion would you use to teach the patient to control his prosthesis? Pronation-supination Shrug control Arm flexion Scapula-retraction

Arm flexion

An individual demonstrates a steppage gait during his ambulation activities. You would describe a steppage gait as excessive Knee and hip flexion Knee and hip extension Knee and ankle flexion Knee and ankle extension

Knee and hip flexion

Your patient has a positive Trendelenburg which results in what type of gait? Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius Steppage Antalgic

Gluteus medius

Rembe - Chapter 9 (PT Apps) Flashcards

Clinical Application