Reading; 9/26 Flashcards

1
Q

functional part of mammalian glands develop from:

A

epi interacting with underlying mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define proximate tissue interaction

A

presence of mesenchyme in close proximity to epi is required for normal development of the epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

proximate tissue interaction is aka:

A

secondary induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

epi-mes interactions regulate:

A

initiation, growth, cytodifferentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mes is req for development of what part of the adult gland?

A

supporting part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Composition of mes:

A

pluripotent CT stem cells and ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ex’s of undifferentiated pluripotent CT cells:

A

? fibroblasts, mast cells and macs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Composition of ecm:

A

GAG’s and proteloglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Functions of proteogycans in ecm:

A

give gel-like characteristic (form the hydrated ground substance), filtration, bind signalling molecules (ie Gf’s) in close proximity to their target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ex’s of GAG’s:

A

chondroitan sulfate, keratan sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are proteoglycan subunits formed?

A

GAg’s are bound to a core protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is the bristle brush-like structure in the ecm formed?

A

proteoglycan subunits (core protein bound gags) noncovalently bound to hyaluronic acid (a GAG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do proteoglycans function in filtration:

A

renal glomerular bm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This makes up the fibrous component that gives the tensile strength to the ecm:

A

collagens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

These give adhesive support to the ecm:

A

2 glycoproteins: laminin and fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are the 2 glycoproteins that give adhesive support to the ecm found?

A

laminin: basal lamina under epi, fibronectin: surrounding ecm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This is a supramoleculare mat underlying the epi:

A

basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Basal lamina is composed of:

A

Type 4 collagen, glycoprotieins (laminin, nidogen/ entactin) and proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

laminin and entactin interact with __ and each other thru ___ :

A

integrins, receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Integrins:

A

family of tansmembrane linker proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Function of integrins:

A

linkage and communincation bw cells and the ecm, function and development of organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One of the most important fibronectin receptors:

A

transmembrane glycoprotein, connections to both cytoskeleton and ecm allowing communication bw cytoskeleton (in) and fibronectin (out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Receptors that allow cell matrix interactions:

A

fibronectin and laminin receptors (glycoprotein receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

These facilitate cell-cell communication

A

ICAMs, by linking ecm to cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Functions of linkage of cells via ICAMs:

A

changes in cell shape, motility, migration, prollferation, and differentiation (gland development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This makes the basal lamina:

A

secreted by epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Function of basal lamina:

A

support, filtration, migration, polarity and diffferentiation of epi cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This makes the ecm:

A

ct cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ecm contains:

A

collagen types 1 and 3, glycoproteins (fibronectin, entascin) GAGs’ (chondroitan sulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

These are assembled into proteoglycans:

A

GAGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do the components of the bl and the ecm differ?

A

types of glycoproteins and proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the major process for formation of adult salivary gland:

A

morphogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The ecm provides regulatory cues for:

A

cell prol, diff, and morphogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does the ecm help to regulate cell prol?

A

development/ enlargement, cell replacement throughout life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fate of proliferating cells in the glands:

A

specialization or remain a dividing or stem cell population that continues to proliferate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define morphogenesis:

A

developmental processes responsible for formation fo shape and form of organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What other developmental processes does morphogenesis require?

A

proliferation and migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ex’s of morphogenic processes:

A

proliferation, migration, morphogenesis, glandular branching differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Morphogenic process responsible for development of adult architecture:

A

mophogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Morphogenic process responsible for specificity of cell types:

A

difffernetiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TF? Morphogenesis and differentiation are dependent processes.

A

F. independent but concurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define parenchyma:

A

functional glandular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

epi outgrowth of the buccal epi that invades the underlying mes:

A

glandular bud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The ct stroma makes up:

A

the capsule and septa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does the parenchyma develop?

A

as a glandular bud that invades underlying mes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What form from the mes?

A

ct stroma (capsule and septa) and bvs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mes is derived from:

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TF? Mes is needed for normal diff of sal glands.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What provide signals that direct morphogenesis and differentiation of the glandular bud?

A

ecm components synthesized by mes ct cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Parotid glands originate here:

A

near corners of stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Submandibular glands originate here:

A

floor of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

sublingula glands originate here:

A

lateral to subm primordia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define primordium:

A

1st beginnings of an organ or part in developing embryp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This differentiates into the main excretory duct of the sg:

A

bud closest to stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

most distal portions of the bud form:

A

secretory end piece or acini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Origin of epi buds of parotid and minor sg’s

A

ectodermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Origin of epi buds of subm and subl sg’s

A

endodermal (sub glands are endo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What permits intermingling of the stomodeal ectoderm and cranial foregut endoderm?

A

breakdown of buccopharengeal membrane in the 4th wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

buccopharengeal membrane is aka:

A

oropharyngeal mem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

breakdown of buccopharengeal membrane occurs in this wk of development:

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why are we not sure about the origin of all sg’s?

A

breakdown of buccopharyngeal membrane and mingling of tissues in 4th wk of develoment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Parotid glands originate in this wk of development:

A

6th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Subm glands originate in this wk of development:

A

end of 6th or beg of 7th wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Subl glands originate in this wk of development:

A

about 8th wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

All minor sg’s form from:

A

epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When do the minor sg’s begin to develop?

A

12th prenatal wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

6 stages of sg development:

A

initial bud, endothelial cord, branching, lobule, lumen, differentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

TF? The epi induces the underlying mes to form the bud.

A

F. reverse, mes induces buccal epi (tissue thickens to bc epi bud)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is the growing epi bud separated from the condensation of mes?

A

basal lamina secreted by the epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

TF? The epi bud forms the epi cord.

A

F. reverse, cord forms bud *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is happening in the surrounding mes during the formation of the epi bud?

A

condensation and proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Basal lamina is bw:

A

cord and mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Basal lamina is made of:

A

GAG’s, collagen, and glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

TF? Both the basal lamina and the mes influence morphogenesis and differentiation of the sg’s throughout development

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is happening during branching?

A

differentiation of gland and ct around the branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What branches into terminal bulbs?

A

epi cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

These are the presumptive acini:

A

terminal bulbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What leads to extensive lobulation?

A

differentiation of ct around the branches (lobulalation occurs during branching)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does the glandular capsule form from?

A

mes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What surrounds the entire glandular parenchyma?

A

glandular capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

This hollows out to form the lumen:

A

epi cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

lumen formation happens when?

A

6mo in all 3 major sg’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Order of lumen formation:

A

proximal (oral, terminal), distal, and branch ducts, midportion of main duct, acini, secretory granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What leads to lumen development?

A

tight junction formation in cells that was initially simpler intercellular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

This happens during lumen formation:

A

extensive branching and growth of ct setpa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Final morphologic stage of sg development:

A

cytodifferentiation of acini and intercalated ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Mitotic shift during cytodiffferentiation:

A

from entire epi cord to the terminal bulb portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Where are the stem cells that undergo proliferation and diff into acinar cells, ductal cells, and myoepi cells?

A

bulb region (terminal bulb cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When do myoepi cells develop?

A

During cytodifferentiation of acinar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

TF? Acinar development is the same for mucous and serous.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How are the stages of acini formation classified?

A

morphology of secretory granules and organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

TF? Cytodifferentiation patterns are the same for all the sg’s.

A

F, differs for serous and mucous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Intercalated duct cells develop from:

A

terminal bulb cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What continues to mature after cytodifferentiation?

A

stimulus-secretion coupling and innervation of gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Terminal bulb cells differentiate to become:

A

MAD: myoepi, acinar, ductal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

These cells function as stem cells during development, adulthood and following injury:

A

terminal bulb cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Preprogrammed pattern of gene expression specific for each cell type:

A

intrinsic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Signals provided by cell-cell / cell-matrix interactions, cytokines, hormones, and gf’s in the extracellular milieu:

A

extrinsic factors

99
Q

What defines boundaries bw groups of cells during development?

A

extrinsic factors

100
Q

3 categories of fruit fly genes:

A

maternal, segmentation, and homeotic

101
Q

Maternal fruit fly genes:

A

expressed: oogenesis, act: oocyte maturation, define broad regions in egg, regulate segmentation genes

102
Q

Segmentation genes in fruit fly:

A

determine # and/or polarity of segments, define smaller regions of embryo

103
Q

homeotic genes of fruit fly function:

A

regulate development of discreet body parts

104
Q

What determines pattern of gene and TF expression during formation of sg’s in fruit fly?

A

regulatory cascade

105
Q

Initial polarity in fruit fly is in this axis:

A

A-P, head to tail, establishes segmentation of embryo

106
Q

What establishes D-V, back to abdomen gradient that translates into specific structures?

A

Further development within each A-P segment

107
Q

What genes regulate the formation of the sg’s in the fruit fly?

A

homeotic genes, has homeobox domain (60-AA’s, DNA binding domain)

108
Q

Homeotic gene in fruit fly that encodes a TF responsible for the location of sg’s:

A

Scr (Sex combs reduced)

109
Q

Where in the fruit fly is Src uniformily transcribed?

A

posterior head (where sg’s will be)

110
Q

Overexpression of Src leads to:

A

sg development at ectopic sites

111
Q

No expression of Src leads to:

A

no sg’s

112
Q

What establish the limits of sg development?

A

protein products of other genes

113
Q

How do protein products limit sg development?

A

inhibit expression of Src

114
Q

What establishes teh D-V boundaries of sg formation in fruit fly?

A

genes homologous to BMP-4

115
Q

What determines the correct patterning of vertebrate embryos?

A

appropriate Hox gene expression

116
Q

Responsible for the differentiation of cells along the A-P axis of all metozoans:

A

hox gene expression and restriction (fruit fly is a metazoan)

117
Q

Where, in vertebrates, does Hox gene expression occur?

A

nervous system and its derivatives, inc neural crest cells

118
Q

Cells instrumental in formation of sg’s, teeth and overall craniofacial morpholoy throughout formation and differentiation of branchial arches:

A

neural crest cells

119
Q

Scr gene is homologous to:

A

one of the Hox genes

120
Q

Mammalian Hox genes regulate:

A

branching organs (sgs’s, lungs), cell-cell and cell-matrix communications, cell fate, cell diff

121
Q

Function of BMP-4:

A

regulate downstream events in differentiating teeth and maybe sg’s, limit Scr expression, involved in cascade of gene expression that regulates epi-mes interactions (?) involved in branching and other morphogenetic events

122
Q

TF? Teeth and sg’s develop via reciprocal interactions bw epi and mes.

A

T

123
Q

Primary morphogenetic process in sg development:

A

branching

124
Q

What initiates branching that is followed by epi proliferation?

A

Cleft formation

125
Q

Type of collagen that accumulates at branching point:

A

Type 3, critical for branching to occur

126
Q

Collagen important for maintenance and support of branches:

A

Type 1 and 4

127
Q

Type __ collagen leads to stabilization

A

1 and 4

128
Q

Type __ collagen is involved in active branching

A

3

129
Q

Mes is made of Type _ collagen and the BL is made of Type _

A

1 and 3, 4

130
Q

GAG’s are removed from this surface during cleft formation:

A

basal surface of epi

131
Q

This causes disruption of the basal lamina during cleft formation:

A

removal of GAG’s from the BL

132
Q

biosynthesis and deposition of this is needed for branching:

A

proteoglycan

133
Q

TF? Growth of rudiments are required for branching.

A

F

134
Q

Predominant GAG’s in bl of actively branching young rudiments:

A

Chondroitin sulfates, increases during stabilization

135
Q

This GAG increases during stabilization:

A

Chondroitin sulfates

136
Q

TF? epi expansion and branching are dependent upon one and other.

A

F. Independent processes, tunicamycin

137
Q

Function of tunicamycin:

A

inhibits N-linked glycosylation, dec protein and cell proliferation (smaller rudiment w miniature lobes), normal branching and lobule formation

138
Q

Localization of mitotic activity in the bud:

A

most peripheral regions

139
Q

Function of hyaluronidase:

A

No cleft formation, disrupts BL interfering w signal required for

140
Q

Destabilization of this inhibits cleft development and affects cell prol:

A

BL

141
Q

What happens wo normal BL?

A

no branching or localization of proliferation/ mitotic activity

142
Q

Functions of BL:

A

stabilization of epi, initiation and maintenance of lobular morphology

143
Q

How might the Bl regulate morphogenetic changes?

A

directly or selective filtration or channeling of materials to epi (ions like Ca2+)

144
Q

Affects that changing Ca2+ flow to epi might:

A

alter function of microtubules, migration, and arangement

145
Q

What synthesizes collagen?

A

mesenchyme

146
Q

This is required for stabilization after branching:

A

Type 1 and 4 collagen ( maintenance and support, adult gland) synthesis by mes

147
Q

Function of collagenolyic activity:

A

selective breakdown of BL and communication bw epi, BL, and surrounding mes

148
Q

Epi can be grown in vitro in this matrix:

A

Matrigel, artificial matrix

149
Q

Matrigel is made of:

A

laminin, Type 4 collagen, heparan sulfate, entactin, and nidogen

150
Q

Function of FGF in morphogenetic process:

A

Stalk elongation

151
Q

Function of EGF in morphogenetic process:

A

regulation of branching

152
Q

The combo of these added to Matrigel results in morphology similar to in vivo:

A

FGF and EGF

153
Q

Regulates

presentation and distribution of Gf’s to epi in vivo:

A

ECM molecules

154
Q

These regulate branching morphogenesis:

A

ECM and specific GF’s (EGF, right?)

155
Q

Initiation of cytodifferentiation of acinar cells is dependent upon:

A

preprogrammed development, early stages of morphogenesis

156
Q

TF? Mesenchymal factors are required for secretory cell diffferentiation.

A

F. may be independent

157
Q

What is req for cytodifferentiation?

A

epi-mes interactions in situ, then exocrine cell diff wo the continued presence of mes

158
Q

What type of coupling is there bw gland morphogenesis and cytodifferentiation?

A

partial, independently controlled processes

159
Q

When is full differentiation of functional secretory component apparent?

A

birth

160
Q

When is functional secretory component complete?

A

onset of solid diet, masticatory stimuli

161
Q

Acinar: mucous, serous, or mixed?

A

serous

162
Q

tubular: mucous, serous, or mixed?

A

mucous

163
Q

Tubuloacinar: mucous, serous, or mixed?

A

mixed

164
Q

Postnatal development process:

A

maturation of stimulus-secretion coupling, making of neural connections from the ANS

165
Q

What does stimulus-secretion coupling link?

A

secretagogue-mem receptor to signal transduction pws wiin the cell and controls acinar secretions

166
Q

What is the primary regulator of sg function?

A

ANS

167
Q

Glands w ducts:

A

exocrine

168
Q

Sg’s, exocrine or endocrine?

A

exo, but associated with substances that may be secreted by endo mechanism

169
Q

Biologically active substances that sg’s are associated w:

A

nerve GF, EGF (may be secreted via endocrine system)

170
Q

Sg’s are classified as what type of glands?

A

compound tubuloacinar glands, branched duct system and secretory units with both tubular and acinar portions

171
Q

Method of secretion classificaiton of sg:

A

merocrine (partially secreting), repeatedly functional: vesicle fusion w apical mem, exocytosis, insertion of vesicular mem back into apical mem

172
Q

Volume produced by major sg’s per day:

A

0.5 to 0.75 L

173
Q

location of major sg’s:

A

apart from oral cavity with which they communicate

174
Q

How many major salivary glands are there?

A

6, 3 pairs

175
Q

Location of minor sg’s:

A

oral cavity, bw hard/soft palate and tongue, behind teeth

176
Q

Name the 5 minor sg’s:

A

buccal, lingual, labial, palatine, glossopalatine

177
Q

Minor sg named as eponym:

A

Glands of Von Ebner

178
Q

mucous secretions produce:

A

mucins, lubricant for chewing, deglutition (swallowing) and digestion

179
Q

serous secretions contain:

A

water, enzymes (amylase and maltase), salts, and organic ions

180
Q

Secretion type of parotid:

A

purely serous adult, predominantly serous newborn

181
Q

Secretion type of palatine glands:

A

purely mucous

182
Q

Secretion type of subm and subl glands:

A

mixed, subm: mostly serous, subl: mostly mucous

183
Q

Function of serous component of saliva:

A

chewing, debris removal, digestive potential debated

184
Q

pH range of stomach after a meal:

A

6.7-7.5, allows activity of amylase, DNAase and other enzymes

185
Q

3 ways salivary enzymes aid digestion:

A

break down to starch/ sucrose/lipid, facilitate access by increasing surface area, clearance of food stuck to teeth and oral mucosa

186
Q

Size order of major glands:

A

Parotid, sugm, subl

187
Q

Anatomical location of subm gland:

A

near the angle of mandible

188
Q

Sg’s w extensive capsules:

A

parotid and subm

189
Q

Does the subl gland have a capsule?

A

yes, minimal

190
Q

% contributions of the 3 major sg’s:

A

Subm: 60%, Parotid: 25%, Subl: 5%

191
Q

Striated duct length, longest to shortest for major sg’s:

A

subm, parotid, subl (same order as % contribution)

192
Q

Sym innervation (vasomotor) to all intercalated ducts:

A

postganglionics via superiro cervical ganglion

193
Q

Preganglionic para innervation (secretomotor) to long and narrow intercalated ducts:

A

inf salivatory nuceus via CN 9

194
Q

Preganglionic para innervation (secretomotor) to intercalated ducts that are shorter than in parotid or inconspicuous:

A

sup salivatory nucleus via chorda tympani (CN 7)

195
Q

Postganglionic para innervation (secretomotor) to long and narrow intercalated ducts:

A

otic ganglion to auriculotemporal n. to gland

196
Q

Postganglionic para innervation (secretomotor) to intercalated ducts that are shorter than in parotid or inconspicuous:

A

Subm ganglion to gland

197
Q

Arterial supply to long and narrow intercalated ducts:

A

external carotid branches

198
Q

Arterial supply to intercalated ducts that are shorter than in parotid:

A

facial and lingual branches

199
Q

Arterial supply to intercalated ducts that are inconspicuous:

A

subl and submental

200
Q

diseases characterized by masticatory pain:

A

glandular inflammatory diseases, ie mumps

201
Q

Location of parotid gland:

A

ant to external acoustic meatus and mastoid process, inf to zygomatic arch, lateral and pos to the ramus on surface of masseter m.

202
Q

Parotid gland is anatomically closely related to these structures:

A

facial n., external carotid, sup temporal and maxillary vv. and numerous cervical lymph nodes

203
Q

Relation of parotid to facial n. begins at this wk:

A

10th wk

204
Q

Duct from parotid:

A

Stenson’s

205
Q

Path of Stenson’s duct:

A

lateral surface of parotid, cross anteriorly across masseter m. and buccal fat pad, sharp medial bend ant to masseter into papilla opposite Max2M

206
Q

Epi of Stenson’s duct becomes continuous with:

A

mucous membrane of mouth

207
Q

Location of subm gland:

A

medial to and under partial cover of mandible, closely assoc w mylohyoid and medial pterygoid mm., subm lymph nodes and facial aa. and vv.

208
Q

Subm duct:

A

Wharton’s

209
Q

Path of Wharton’s duct:

A

extend anteriorily in floor of mouth, open at subl papilla at side of frenulum of tongue

210
Q

Location of subl gland:

A

beneath mucous membrane of floor of mouth

211
Q

How is the subl gland different than the other 2 major sg?

A

large collection of small glands vs. one discreet gland

212
Q

Excretory duct of subl gland:

A

Bartholin’s ducts

213
Q

Path of Bartholin’s duct:

A

join subm duct or open w a separate papilla

214
Q

These, smaller sublingual ducts may join the subm duct or open separately into floor of mouth

A

Duct of Rivinus *

215
Q

How many acinar cells make up each acini?

A

5-7

216
Q

What surrounds and divides the sg into separate lobules?

A

Ct of the glandular capsule and septa

217
Q

How are secretions squeezed out of acini?

A

myoepithelial cell contraction following neural stimulation

218
Q

name the 3 types of secretory endpieces:

A

serous, mucous, and mixed

219
Q

2 types of ducts:

A

intercalated and striated

220
Q

Interlobular ducts:

A

excretory, bw lobules

221
Q

Function of ct septa:

A

support and conduit for nerves (mostly autonomic), bvs and lymphatics

222
Q

Pattern of blood supply to sg’s:

A

larger vessels enter each lobe at one point and branch to supply each lobule, duct system drains in similar manner

223
Q

TF? Duct system is the same for each major sg:

A

F

224
Q

2 main structural parts of duct system:

A

intralobular and interlobular portions

225
Q

2 types of intralobular ducts:

A

intercalated and striated (secretory)

226
Q

Major sg with the fewest number of intralobular ducts and greatest number of interlobular

A

subl glands (both striated and intercalated ducts are very short)

227
Q

Major sg with the largest number of intralobular ducts:

A

parotid, then subm, then subl (more ducts does not mean more excretion)

228
Q

Major sg with the most endpieces:

A

subl glands

229
Q

Intercalated ducts:

A

1st (most distal) part of intralobular system, low cuboidal epi, drain acini

230
Q

Describe the cells of intercalated ducts:

A

few secretory granules, some RER, mito and round or oval centrally placed nuclei

231
Q

2nd largest intralobular type:

A

striated ducts

232
Q

Location of striated ducts:

A

bw intercalated and excretory ducts

233
Q

striated ducts are aka:

A

secretory or salivary ducts

234
Q

Most specialized sg ducts:

A

striated

235
Q

Which sg ducts complete most ionic transport functions from acinar lumen to OC?

A

striated ducts

236
Q

Describe the cells of striated ducts:

A

tall columnar epi, eosinophilic cytoplasm, spherical, centrally or eccentrically placed nuclie

237
Q

What gives the striated appearance?

A

basal cytoplasm, striations perpendicular to base of cell, infoldings of basal plasma mem makes cytoplasmic rows w many mito

238
Q

Ion movements in striated duct cells:

A

Na rebsorption, K excretion

239
Q

Hormones that affect striated duct cells:

A

adrenal cortical steroid hormones, mainly aldosterone (similar histo and fxn to renal DT)

240
Q

Affect of sodium reabsorption in striated duct cells:

A

isotonic to hypotonic saliva (excretory duct also involved)

241
Q

Cell type surrounding the central lumen:

A

striated

242
Q

Cell type of excretory ducts (interlobular):

A

primarily stratified columnar, some pseudostratified epi

243
Q

Cell type changes as ducts get larger:

A

simple columnar, to pseudos or stratified, columnar epi, to SSE at entrance to OC, continuous w buccal epi