random stuff Flashcards
1
Q
macrobid avoid in
A
crcl less than 60
2
Q
biaxin
A
clarithromycin
3
Q
stoke tx
A
iv alteplase (tpa, activase)
4
Q
temazepam
A
restoril (only for insomnia
5
Q
benzos pregnancy category
A
D
6
Q
benzo antidote
A
flumazenil
7
Q
paroxetine paxil pregnancy category
A
D
8
Q
depression drugs that are cypd 2d6 inhibitors
A
paroxitine (paxil), fluoxetine(prozac), sertraline(zoloft, duloxetine (cymbalta), bupropion (wellbutrin) avoid with tamoxifen! may decrease effects
9
Q
citalopram celexa max dose because of QT
prolongation
if greater than 60 max dose is ?
A
40mg/day
20 mg/day
10
Q
ssri w long t1/2, no tapering off
A
fluoxetine (prozac)
11
Q
fluvoxamine brand
A
luvox only for OCD
12
Q
venlafaxine snri brand
A
effexor
13
Q
desvenlafaxine snri brand
A
pristiq
14
Q
milnacripran snri brand
A
savella
15
Q
blood pressure difference between snri and ssri
A
snri hypertension
ssri hypotension
16
Q
bupropion causes
A
seizures
17
Q
mirtazapine main points
A
weight gain
sedation
qt prolongation
ODT!
18
Q
bedwetting
A
imipramine, or desmopressin
19
Q
robitussin DM or delsym increses
A
serotonin
20
Q
MAOIs
A
isocarboxazid (marplan)
phenelzine (nardil)
tranylcypromine (parnate)
selgeline (emsam)
21
Q
gold standard bipolar med
A
lithium if contraindicated
depakote (divalproex)
22
Q
lithium or divaloproex sodium combined with an antipsychotic is more effective than
A
monotherapy
23
Q
vaLProic acid SE
A
liver failure, pancreatitis
24
Q
Lamotrigine SE
A
RASH
25
carbamazepime SE
looks like TCAs so anticholinergic effects
also HLAb1502 test
aplastic anemia
agranulocytosis
26
lithium level
0.6-1
27
lithium with or without food
with food!
28
lithium pregnancy category
D
29
meds that increase lithium
nsaids, thiazides, aces
30
lithium with SSRIS
may cause serotonin syndrome
31
xanathine oxidase inhibitors
allopurinol (zyloprim, aloprim)
| febuxostat (uloric)
32
no nsaids in
renal and hypertension
33
allopurinol hlab
5801
34
allopurinol main SE
rash
35
allopurinol DI
azathioprine
6mp
warfarin
thiazide + ace
36
carbamezapime hlab
1502
37
abacavir hlab
5701
38
dopamine agonists for parkinsons also approved for RLS
pramipexole (mirapex)
ropinorole (requip xl)
rotigotine (neupro) patch
apomorphine
39
ceftriaxone do you dose adjust in renal?
NO
40
carbapenems number 1 side effect
seizures
41
1st line for chronic angina
BBs
42
1st line for vasospastic angina (prinzmetals)
ccb
43
close angle glaucoma (er emergency) treatment
acetazolamide (diamox) iv -sulfa allergy
44
main two side effects with PTU and methimazole
agranulocytosis and hepatotoxicity
45
thyroid dosing in age 60 or less no conditions
1.6mcg/kg/day using IBW
46
thyroid dosing in greater than 60 no conditions
25 to 50 mcg once daily
47
thyroid dosing in patients with CAD
12.5 to 50 mcg once daily
48
BB antidote
glucagon
49
benadryl antidote
atropine
50
isoniazid antidote
pyridoxine B6
51
mtx antidote
leucovorin
52
ttp
brillinta (ticragelor)
53
niaspan
extended release niacin
less flushing than normal niacin
can cause rhabdo
54
steroid things to review in a chart
A1C
WBC
Weight
Blood Pressure
55
Epclusa is used to treat what and what are the compenets
hep C and
56
med that can cause positive coombs test
macrobid
57
a pharmacist cant make capsules from what
creams
58
citalopram increases bleeding risk with
warfarin
59
integrillin MOA
glycoprotein 11b,111a receptor antagonist
60
levemir and toujeo pen
42 days
61
novolog pen
28 days
62
tresiba pen
56 days
63
lantus pen
28 days
64
tradjenta (linagliptin) can cause
pancreatitis
65
treat PAH and has a boxed warning for embryo fetal toxicity
ambristentan
66
atripla components
efavirenz, emtriciabine, tenofivir
67
atripla at ___ on an ___ ____
at bedtime on an empty stomach
68
causes of CAP
```
pneumococcus
pseudomas
mycoplasma pneumoniae
moraxella catarhalhalis
mrsa
legionella
h flu
```
69
bisphosphonates not used if crcl less than
35
70
pulmonary capillary wedge pressure reduced most by
lasix (loop)
71
edoxaban
savyasa - factor xa inhibitor
72
inr >10 with no bleeding what to do
2.5- 5 mg po vitamin k
| plus hold warfarin
73
ssris and snris can cause hypo
hyponatremia
74
oral anticoags that do not require bridging
apixaban and rivaroxaban
75
metformin does not increase
insulin production
76
for type 1 and type 2 DM
symlin
77
aspergillosis
vfend- voriconazole
78
bacterial vaginosis - fishy smell
metronidazole
79
oral thrush
nystatin swish and swallow
80
herpes
valacyclovir (valtrex)BID
81
CLASS II cabinent is for
high risk hazardous drugs
82
how long is hep c treatment
12 weeks
83
cap outpatient healthy no combor.
amoxicillin high dose or doxycycline
84
cap outpatient with comorb.
beta lactam:augmentin, cefuroxime, cefopoxidime
+macrolide or doxycyline
or monotherapy with a respiratory FQ
85
non severe in patient cap without risk for MRSA or pseudomonas
IV beta lactam (unasyn, cefotaxime, ceftaroline, caftriaxone)
+macrolide
Monotherapy: respiratory FQ
86
inpatient cap severe without risk for MRSA or pseudomonas
blactam+ macrolide or blactam +FQ
87
trichomonas
a single 2g dose, or 500mg bid X 7 days of metronidazole (flagyl) or tinidazole (tindamax)
88
genital herpes
valacyclovir, acyclovir, famicyclovir
89
Chlamydia
doxycycline 100 mg BIDx7days
or
Azithromycin 1 g single dose (okay if pregnant)
90
gonorhhea
ceftriaxone 500 mg single IM inj
if chlamydia is not excluded add doxy 100 mg bid x 7 days
91
syphillis
benzathine PCN G IM (bicillin LA not CR)
| 2.4 MU IM x1
92
MI gets antiplatelets not coags
dual therapy asa and plavix
93
calcium carbonate
40%
94
calcium citrate
21%
95
ferrous sulfate
20%
96
ferrous gluconate
12%
97
levothyroxine iv po
0.75:1
98
furosemide iv:po
1:2
99
morphine IV:PO
10:30
100
Hydromorphone IV PO
1.5:7.5
101
the rabai needs prayer for comfort VITAMINS
```
thiamine B1
riboflavin B2
niacin B3
pyroxidine B6
folate B9
cyanocobalmin B12
```
102
TDD for insulin type 1
0.5u/kg/day using total BW
103
LDL equation
TC-HDL-TG/5
104
MWQ=
sensitivity requirement/0.05
105
test for fungus
koh
106
catapres change
weekly
107
DAYtrana patch
up to 9 hours/day
| apply to hip
108
duragesic (fentanyl patch)
1 patch every 72 hours
109
opioid tolerance is
60 mg morphine/day taken for 1 week!
110
butrans patch
every 7 days
111
flector (diclofenac) patch
1 patch twice daily
112
lidoderm patch
12 hours/day
| 12 hours on 12 hours off
113
transderm scop
apply 4 hours before exposure, leave on up to 3 days
114
oxytrol (oxybutynin) for OAB patch
one patch twice a week
115
minivelle and vivelle dot (estradiol) patches
one patch twice weekly
116
xulane patch (OC)
one patch each week for 3 weeks then one week off
117
androderm patch
daily patch, once a dau
118
exelon (rivastigmine)
| for alzheimers dementia
1 patch everyday
119
neupro (rotigotine patch)
| parkinsons or RLS
one patch everyday
120
emsam (selegiline) depression
one patch everyday
121
nicoderm
one patch a day
122
apixiban DVT/PE treatment dose
10mg BID for 7 days, then 5mg bid
123
pradaxa afib
CRCL >30: 150mg BID
| CRCL 15-30: 75mg BID
124
xarelto DVT/PE treatment dose
CRCL >30: 15mg BID x 21 days then 20 mg QD
125
xarelto afib dose
crcl >50: 20 mg QD
| crcl 15-50: 15 mg QD
126
edoxaban general dose
60 mg QD
| if crcl less than 50 : 30 mg QD
127
avoid edoxaban if
crcl >95 or <15
128
cisplatin antidote
amifostine (prevent nephrotoxicity)
129
doxorubicin antidote
dexrazoxane
zinecard-prevents cardiomyopathy
totect-treats extravasation
130
flurouricil
leucovorin (enhances efficacy)
131
fluroouricil or capecitibine antidone
uridine triacetate (vistogaurd) overdose
132
ifofosfamide
mesna (mesnex)
133
irnotecan
atropine-acute
| loperamide-delayed
134
methotrexate
leucovorin
| glucarpidase
135
drugs for neutropenia ANC <1000
filgrastam (neupogen)- daily
pegfilgrastam (neulasta)- once per chemo cycle
sargramostim
136
sargramostime is
GM-CSF
137
G-CSF is
filgrastam
138
for anticipatory N/V before chemo
give ativan
139
best place to apply testosterone gels
shoulder/upper arms
140
lotrel
amlodipine/ benzapril
141
exforge
amlodipine/valsartan
142
twynsta
amlodpine/ telmesartan
143
azor
amlodipine/olmesartan
144
TRIbenzor
amlodipine/olmesartan/HCTZ
145
caduet
amlodipine+atorvastatin
146
consensi
amlodipine+ celecoxib
147
entresto
sacubitril+valsartan
148
bidil
isosorbide dinitrate+hydralazine
149
aggrenox
asa+ ER dipyridamole
150
twinrix
hep A + hep B greater than 18 yo
151
proquad
MMR+ varicella
152
pediarix
Dtap+IPV+HEP B
153
stalevo
carbidopa+levodopa+entacepone
154
epzicom is
abacavir/lamivudine (check *5701)
155
trizivir contains what
abacavir so check 5701
156
retrovir
zidovudine
157
viread
TDF (nrti)
158
isentress
raltegravir (insti)
159
tivicay
dolutegravir (insti)
160
triumeq
| *preferred regimine
abacavir/ lamivudine/ dolutegravir (5701)
161
dovato
dolutegravir/lamivudine ( do means 2 in some languages)
162
biktarvy
| good regime!
bictegravir/emtricitabine/TAF
163
aTRIpla
has 3 drugs
efavirenz/TDF/emtricitabine
not currently a preferred regimen
164
norvir
ritonavir
165
prezista
darunavir
166
reyataz
atazanavir
167
methotrexate dosing with RA
| what to give with it
weekly
| folate
168
methotrexate MOA
sphase
| antimetabolite
169
methotrexate SE
Mucositis
Myleosupression
Hepatotoxicity
Photosensitivity
Rash
Renal
X-preg cat X
X-chest xray pulmonary fibrosis
170
LefLunomide (Arava)
```
long half life
Liver stuff (increase AST and ALT)
and alopecia
```
check ALT every month for the first 6 months
dont use if liver impaired
Preg. category X
171
sulfasalazine can cause
orange -yellow discoloration of skin lenses and urine
| used for RA and UC
172
xeljanx
tofacitinib PO JAK inhibitor
173
anakinra
kineret (interlukin 1 receptor antagonist)
174
biologic DMARDs
TNF blockers
1) adalimumab- humira
2) etanercept- enbrel
3) infliximab- remicade
4) golimumab- simponi
5) certolizumab- cimzia
175
montelukast dosing
major side effect
1-5: 4mg
6-14: 5 mg
QHS
neuropsychic events
176
proair, proventil, ventolin
albuterol
177
xopenex
levoalbuterol
178
salmeterol
LABA (servent diskus)
179
beclomethasone
qvar
180
pulmiCORT
budesonide
181
SYMbiCORT
budesonide+formoterol
182
flovent
fluticasone
183
arnuity ellipta
fluticasone
184
ADvair
fluticasone+salmeterol
185
breo ellipta
fluticasone + vilanterol
186
asmanex
mometosone
187
DUlera
mometasone+ formoterol
188
tiotropium
spiriva respimat
189
umedclidinium
incruse ellipta
190
spiriva handihaler has
the capsule
191
all respiclicks are
dry powder
192
do you have to prime and shake MDIs
yes
193
how to breath for MDI
slowly and deeply
194
how to breath for DPI
quickly
195
HFAs are
MDIs that you shake and prime
| breathe slowly and deeply
196
can use spacers for
MDI formulations
197
pulmicort flexhaler is
DPI it's the only one you prime at the beginning
quickly and deeply with DPI
198
asmanex twisthaler is
DPI
199
all elliptas are
DPI
200
avoid bisphosphonates in crcl less than
30
201
diskus are
DPI
202
symbicort
DPI
203
dulera
for mom
| MDI
204
montelukast, zafrilukast MOA
leukotriene receptor antagonist (work on receptors)
205
zileuton (zyflo) MOA
5-lipooxygenase pathway inhibitor (pathway)
206
acyclovir can cause
renal toxicity
207
first line for all severe fungal infections
amphotecerin B
208
no steroid in
COPD
209
handihaler
DPI
210
respimat
```
PTOP
prime
turn
open
press
```
211
albuterol/ipatropium
combivent CopD
212
always load before
you breathe out
213
interferon side effects
fatigue
depression
flu like syndrome
liver damage
214
roflumilast (daliresp)
```
suicidality weight loss
copd maintence
last line
pde4 inhibitor
cyp 3a4 sub
liver
```
215
aNOro ellipta has
no steroid
| just umeclidium and vilanterol
216
servent diskus is ___ alone
salmeterol alone
217
combos inhalers
```
symbicort
advair + airduo
breo ellipta
dulera
anoro
trelegy
```
218
ICS/ LABA combos
advair
symbicort
breo ellipta
dulera
219
ipatroopium
atrovent
220
combivent respimat
ipatropium and albuterol
221
symbicort and dulera are
MDIS
222
no DPIs in what allergy
milk protein
223
1st line tx for sponteous bacterial peritonitis
ceftriaxone
224
sofosbuvir (eplcusa)+amiodarone what happens
severe bradycardia
225
ribavirin main counseling
| and SE
can cause birth defects
| hemolytic anemia
226
natural product used to liver dx
milk thistle
227
kcl 10%=
20MEq/15ml
228
rapid acting IM injectable antipyschotics
(HZZ)
haloperidol
ziprasidone (geodon)
zprexa (olanazapine)
229
long acting IM injectable antipsychotics
```
halodol ORAL
fluphenazine
risperidone (risperidone consta)
risperidone (perseris) SQ
paliperidone palimate
invega sustenna
invega trinza
abilify maintena
abilify aristada
aristada intitio
zyrexa relprevv
```
230
risperidal contsa given
IM every 2 weeks
po for 3 weeks then stop
231
invega sustenna given
once a month
232
invega TRInza given
every 3 months
233
abilify maintena
once monthly
234
abilify aristada
every 4 to 6 weeks
235
aristada initio
only to be given as a booster in a single dose
236
clozapine =
REMS agranulocytotis
physician patient and pharmacy have to be registered to look at ANC base line must be at least 1500
ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION
SEIZURES
MYOCARDITIS
! boxed warnings
237
quietapine (seroquel) dosage forms
only comes in tablets
| and XR
238
must take ziprasidone (geodon) with ___
food! can decrease absoprtion up to 80 percent
| geodon GEODON GOOD MEAL
239
ziprasidone is know for
QT prolongation
and no weight gain
check electrolytes before starting
contact doctor if have a rash
240
latuda with the
fooda (lurasidone)
241
lowest to no weight gain anti psychotics
ziprasidone, lurasidone, aripiprazole
242
phenbarb level
20-40
| enhances GABA
243
phenytoin and phenobarb shouldnt be given faster than
50mg/per min
244
phenytoin/fosphenytoin main things
```
sedation
rash
gingival hyperplasia
hepatoxicity
hair growth
```
245
phenytoin/fosphenytoin level
10-20
246
valproic acid MOA
increase gaba
247
phenytoin and fospehen MOA
na channel blocker
248
valproic acid range
50-100
249
vaLProic acid black box warnings
hepatic failure
pancreatitis
teratogenic
250
never use valproic acid if
pregnant in migraine prophylaxis
251
valproic acid increases
lamictal (so lower the dose of lamictal)
252
carbamazepime looks like
looks like cyclobenzaprine and tcas
| -anticholingeric
253
CArbAmAzePine SEs
boxed warning: SEVERE SJS/TEN, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis
```
seperate 14 days from MAOIs
fetal harm
siadh
photosensitivity
monitor liver
```
254
carbamazepine CI if
prior myleosupression
255
carbamezapmine MOA
na channel blocker
256
gabapentin is 100% _____
renal, dose adjust
| causes peripheral edema
257
pregabalin is 100% ____
renal, dose adjust
| causes peripheral edema
258
lamotrigine main thing
RASH RASH RASH
259
topiramate and zonisamide and topamax can cause
kidney stones, weight loss, and decrease sweating(hyperthermia)
260
sulfa allergy with which anticonvulsant
zonisamide
261
topamax is renal or liver
RENAL
262
topiramate is preg category
D
263
topiramate can cause metabolic __
acidosis
264
lacosamide! Vimpat SE
heart block, pr prolongation
| chedule V
265
vigabatrin (sabril) can cause
vision loss!
266
all seizure meds cause
sedation/ somnolence,
| suicidal thinking and behavior
267
active metabolite of oxcarbazepine
eliscarbepine
268
epidiolex (cannabidiol) for seizures
only for sever seixures
LGS
and dravet syndrome
- weight loss and watch liver
- monitor ALT, AST
269
smoke less than 25 cigs/day (20 in a pack) what gum to choose
if smoke greater than 25 in day
2mg
4 mg
max gums they can chew a day 24 pieces
270
avoid lithium with
NSAIDS, choose tylenol instead or ASA
271
kadian is
morphine
272
methadone can cause
QT prolongation, can also use it do get off opioids hecause of NMDAreceptor anatagonist
273
no thiazides or loops with sulfa allergy except
EA
274
hyzaar
losartan/hctz
275
dyazide
hctz/triamtere
276
altace
ramipril
277
mycelex
clortimazole, oral thrush
278
esas only when hgb is
less than 10, interupt when it exceeds 12
279
hyperphosphatemia
calcium acetate (phoslo, phoslyra)
sevelamer (renagel, renvela)
lanthanum (fosrenol)
alumnium hydroxide (ampho gel)
280
zanaflex
tizanadine
281
valtrex
valacyclovir
282
vibramycin
doxycycline
283
ziac
bisoprolol/ hctz
284
levophed
norepi works on alpha and beta
285
jantoven
dabigatran
286
divaloprex/valpproic acid effect on weight
increase
287
lithium effect on weight gain
increase
288
lanoxin
digoxin
289
reclast
zoledronic acid
290
tenormin
atenolol
291
antidote for methanol and etylene glycol toxicity is
fomepizole
292
ESRD have what electrolyte abnormalities
hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia
low hemoglobin
293
beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomemetic activity
APP
acebutolol
pindolol
pentbutolol
294
no FQs or bactrim with
warfarin
295
3 electrolytes to monitor in DKA
potassium
magnesium
phosphate
296
drugz used to treat chemo induced anemia
aranesp, epogen or procrit
297
epzicom and trizir have
abacavir so must test 5701
298
iv PPIS
esomeprazole and pantoprazole
299
ghonorrhea tx
ceftriazone 500 mg IM injection
300
urine bugs PEKEPS
```
proteus
ecoli
klebsiella
enterococci
pseudomanas
staph saprophyticus
```
301
tylenol kids
10-15/mg/kg/dose
302
carbamazepine causes
agranulocytosis
303
common SE with brillinta
dyspnea
304
ABx that dont require renal dose adjustmnet
oxacillin, nafcillin, moxifloxacin, ceftriaxone, clindamycin, linezolid and tigecycline
305
prasugrel
effient
306
ticagrelor
brilinta
307
cangrelor
kengreal
308
zegrid
omeprazole+ sodium bicarb
309
eltegravir always needs to be
boosted
310
do not use amiodarone with HCV drugs containing
sofosbuvir (epclusa, harvoni)
311
hep b preferred treatment
interferon alfa or nrti (tenofovir or entecavir)
| vemlidy/viread
312
-previr
| hcv
ns3/4a
313
-asvir
n35A
314
-buvir
ns5B
315
number of dissociation particles
calcium chloride-
sodium citrate-
cacl2-3
| na3c6h5o7-4
316
number of dissociated ions related to dissociation fator
```
1=1
2=1.8
3=2.6
4=3.4
5=4.2
```
317
valence of 2
all the calcium ones
ferrous, lithium, magnesium
the chelation ones
318
valence of 1
potassiums sodiums ammoniums
319
1 oz= how many g
28.4g
320
1 lb to g
454 g
321
1 grain to mg
65 mg
322
humalog mix pens
10 days
323
humulin r vials
31 days
324
humulin n, n/r pens
14 days
325
humulin r u-500 viAL
40 DAYS
326
NOVOLIN R, N, N/R 70/30 vial
42 days
327
novolog mixes in pens
14 days
328
levemir (detemir)
42 days
329
degludec (tresiba)
56 days
330
toujeo pen
56 days
