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naplex > random stuff > Flashcards

random stuff Flashcards

1
Q

macrobid avoid in

A

crcl less than 60

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2
Q

biaxin

A

clarithromycin

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3
Q

stoke tx

A

iv alteplase (tpa, activase)

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4
Q

temazepam

A

restoril (only for insomnia

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5
Q

benzos pregnancy category

A

D

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6
Q

benzo antidote

A

flumazenil

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7
Q

paroxetine paxil pregnancy category

A

D

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8
Q

depression drugs that are cypd 2d6 inhibitors

A

paroxitine (paxil), fluoxetine(prozac), sertraline(zoloft, duloxetine (cymbalta), bupropion (wellbutrin) avoid with tamoxifen! may decrease effects

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9
Q

citalopram celexa max dose because of QT
prolongation
if greater than 60 max dose is ?

A

40mg/day

20 mg/day

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10
Q

ssri w long t1/2, no tapering off

A

fluoxetine (prozac)

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11
Q

fluvoxamine brand

A

luvox only for OCD

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12
Q

venlafaxine snri brand

A

effexor

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13
Q

desvenlafaxine snri brand

A

pristiq

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14
Q

milnacripran snri brand

A

savella

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15
Q

blood pressure difference between snri and ssri

A

snri hypertension

ssri hypotension

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16
Q

bupropion causes

A

seizures

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17
Q

mirtazapine main points

A

weight gain
sedation
qt prolongation
ODT!

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18
Q

bedwetting

A

imipramine, or desmopressin

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19
Q

robitussin DM or delsym increses

A

serotonin

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20
Q

MAOIs

A

isocarboxazid (marplan)
phenelzine (nardil)
tranylcypromine (parnate)
selgeline (emsam)

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21
Q

gold standard bipolar med

A

lithium if contraindicated

depakote (divalproex)

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22
Q

lithium or divaloproex sodium combined with an antipsychotic is more effective than

A

monotherapy

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23
Q

vaLProic acid SE

A

liver failure, pancreatitis

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24
Q

Lamotrigine SE

A

RASH

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25
Q

carbamazepime SE

A

looks like TCAs so anticholinergic effects
also HLAb1502 test
aplastic anemia
agranulocytosis

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26
Q

lithium level

A

0.6-1

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27
Q

lithium with or without food

A

with food!

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28
Q

lithium pregnancy category

A

D

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29
Q

meds that increase lithium

A

nsaids, thiazides, aces

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30
Q

lithium with SSRIS

A

may cause serotonin syndrome

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31
Q

xanathine oxidase inhibitors

A

allopurinol (zyloprim, aloprim)

febuxostat (uloric)

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32
Q

no nsaids in

A

renal and hypertension

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33
Q

allopurinol hlab

A

5801

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34
Q

allopurinol main SE

A

rash

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35
Q

allopurinol DI

A

azathioprine
6mp
warfarin
thiazide + ace

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36
Q

carbamezapime hlab

A

1502

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37
Q

abacavir hlab

A

5701

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38
Q

dopamine agonists for parkinsons also approved for RLS

A

pramipexole (mirapex)
ropinorole (requip xl)
rotigotine (neupro) patch
apomorphine

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39
Q

ceftriaxone do you dose adjust in renal?

A

NO

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40
Q

carbapenems number 1 side effect

A

seizures

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41
Q

1st line for chronic angina

A

BBs

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42
Q

1st line for vasospastic angina (prinzmetals)

A

ccb

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43
Q

close angle glaucoma (er emergency) treatment

A

acetazolamide (diamox) iv -sulfa allergy

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44
Q

main two side effects with PTU and methimazole

A

agranulocytosis and hepatotoxicity

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45
Q

thyroid dosing in age 60 or less no conditions

A

1.6mcg/kg/day using IBW

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46
Q

thyroid dosing in greater than 60 no conditions

A

25 to 50 mcg once daily

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47
Q

thyroid dosing in patients with CAD

A

12.5 to 50 mcg once daily

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48
Q

BB antidote

A

glucagon

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49
Q

benadryl antidote

A

atropine

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50
Q

isoniazid antidote

A

pyridoxine B6

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51
Q

mtx antidote

A

leucovorin

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52
Q

ttp

A

brillinta (ticragelor)

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53
Q

niaspan

A

extended release niacin
less flushing than normal niacin
can cause rhabdo

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54
Q

steroid things to review in a chart

A

A1C
WBC
Weight
Blood Pressure

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55
Q

Epclusa is used to treat what and what are the compenets

A

hep C and

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56
Q

med that can cause positive coombs test

A

macrobid

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57
Q

a pharmacist cant make capsules from what

A

creams

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58
Q

citalopram increases bleeding risk with

A

warfarin

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59
Q

integrillin MOA

A

glycoprotein 11b,111a receptor antagonist

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60
Q

levemir and toujeo pen

A

42 days

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61
Q

novolog pen

A

28 days

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62
Q

tresiba pen

A

56 days

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63
Q

lantus pen

A

28 days

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64
Q

tradjenta (linagliptin) can cause

A

pancreatitis

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65
Q

treat PAH and has a boxed warning for embryo fetal toxicity

A

ambristentan

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66
Q

atripla components

A

efavirenz, emtriciabine, tenofivir

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67
Q

atripla at ___ on an ___ ____

A

at bedtime on an empty stomach

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68
Q

causes of CAP

A 
pneumococcus
pseudomas
mycoplasma pneumoniae
moraxella catarhalhalis
mrsa
legionella
h flu
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69
Q

bisphosphonates not used if crcl less than

A

35

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70
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure reduced most by

A

lasix (loop)

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71
Q

edoxaban

A

savyasa - factor xa inhibitor

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72
Q

inr >10 with no bleeding what to do

A

2.5- 5 mg po vitamin k

plus hold warfarin

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73
Q

ssris and snris can cause hypo

A

hyponatremia

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74
Q

oral anticoags that do not require bridging

A

apixaban and rivaroxaban

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75
Q

metformin does not increase

A

insulin production

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76
Q

for type 1 and type 2 DM

A

symlin

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77
Q

aspergillosis

A

vfend- voriconazole

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78
Q

bacterial vaginosis - fishy smell

A

metronidazole

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79
Q

oral thrush

A

nystatin swish and swallow

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80
Q

herpes

A

valacyclovir (valtrex)BID

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81
Q

CLASS II cabinent is for

A

high risk hazardous drugs

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82
Q

how long is hep c treatment

A

12 weeks

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83
Q

cap outpatient healthy no combor.

A

amoxicillin high dose or doxycycline

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84
Q

cap outpatient with comorb.

A

beta lactam:augmentin, cefuroxime, cefopoxidime
+macrolide or doxycyline

or monotherapy with a respiratory FQ

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85
Q

non severe in patient cap without risk for MRSA or pseudomonas

A

IV beta lactam (unasyn, cefotaxime, ceftaroline, caftriaxone)
+macrolide

Monotherapy: respiratory FQ

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86
Q

inpatient cap severe without risk for MRSA or pseudomonas

A

blactam+ macrolide or blactam +FQ

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87
Q

trichomonas

A

a single 2g dose, or 500mg bid X 7 days of metronidazole (flagyl) or tinidazole (tindamax)

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88
Q

genital herpes

A

valacyclovir, acyclovir, famicyclovir

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89
Q

Chlamydia

A

doxycycline 100 mg BIDx7days
or
Azithromycin 1 g single dose (okay if pregnant)

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90
Q

gonorhhea

A

ceftriaxone 500 mg single IM inj

if chlamydia is not excluded add doxy 100 mg bid x 7 days

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91
Q

syphillis

A

benzathine PCN G IM (bicillin LA not CR)

2.4 MU IM x1

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92
Q

MI gets antiplatelets not coags

A

dual therapy asa and plavix

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93
Q

calcium carbonate

A

40%

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94
Q

calcium citrate

A

21%

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95
Q

ferrous sulfate

A

20%

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96
Q

ferrous gluconate

A

12%

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97
Q

levothyroxine iv po

A

0.75:1

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98
Q

furosemide iv:po

A

1:2

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99
Q

morphine IV:PO

A

10:30

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100
Q

Hydromorphone IV PO

A

1.5:7.5

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101
Q

the rabai needs prayer for comfort VITAMINS

A 
thiamine B1
riboflavin B2
niacin B3
pyroxidine B6
folate B9
cyanocobalmin B12
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102
Q

TDD for insulin type 1

A

0.5u/kg/day using total BW

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103
Q

LDL equation

A

TC-HDL-TG/5

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104
Q

MWQ=

A

sensitivity requirement/0.05

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105
Q

test for fungus

A

koh

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106
Q

catapres change

A

weekly

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107
Q

DAYtrana patch

A

up to 9 hours/day

apply to hip

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108
Q

duragesic (fentanyl patch)

A

1 patch every 72 hours

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109
Q

opioid tolerance is

A

60 mg morphine/day taken for 1 week!

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110
Q

butrans patch

A

every 7 days

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111
Q

flector (diclofenac) patch

A

1 patch twice daily

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112
Q

lidoderm patch

A

12 hours/day

12 hours on 12 hours off

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113
Q

transderm scop

A

apply 4 hours before exposure, leave on up to 3 days

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114
Q

oxytrol (oxybutynin) for OAB patch

A

one patch twice a week

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115
Q

minivelle and vivelle dot (estradiol) patches

A

one patch twice weekly

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116
Q

xulane patch (OC)

A

one patch each week for 3 weeks then one week off

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117
Q

androderm patch

A

daily patch, once a dau

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118
Q

exelon (rivastigmine)

for alzheimers dementia

A

1 patch everyday

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119
Q

neupro (rotigotine patch)

parkinsons or RLS

A

one patch everyday

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120
Q

emsam (selegiline) depression

A

one patch everyday

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121
Q

nicoderm

A

one patch a day

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122
Q

apixiban DVT/PE treatment dose

A

10mg BID for 7 days, then 5mg bid

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123
Q

pradaxa afib

A

CRCL >30: 150mg BID

CRCL 15-30: 75mg BID

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124
Q

xarelto DVT/PE treatment dose

A

CRCL >30: 15mg BID x 21 days then 20 mg QD

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125
Q

xarelto afib dose

A

crcl >50: 20 mg QD

crcl 15-50: 15 mg QD

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126
Q

edoxaban general dose

A

60 mg QD

if crcl less than 50 : 30 mg QD

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127
Q

avoid edoxaban if

A

crcl >95 or <15

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128
Q

cisplatin antidote

A

amifostine (prevent nephrotoxicity)

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129
Q

doxorubicin antidote

A

dexrazoxane
zinecard-prevents cardiomyopathy
totect-treats extravasation

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130
Q

flurouricil

A

leucovorin (enhances efficacy)

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131
Q

fluroouricil or capecitibine antidone

A

uridine triacetate (vistogaurd) overdose

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132
Q

ifofosfamide

A

mesna (mesnex)

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133
Q

irnotecan

A

atropine-acute

loperamide-delayed

134
Q

methotrexate

A

leucovorin

glucarpidase

135
Q

drugs for neutropenia ANC <1000

A

filgrastam (neupogen)- daily
pegfilgrastam (neulasta)- once per chemo cycle
sargramostim

136
Q

sargramostime is

A

GM-CSF

137
Q

G-CSF is

A

filgrastam

138
Q

for anticipatory N/V before chemo

A

give ativan

139
Q

best place to apply testosterone gels

A

shoulder/upper arms

140
Q

lotrel

A

amlodipine/ benzapril

141
Q

exforge

A

amlodipine/valsartan

142
Q

twynsta

A

amlodpine/ telmesartan

143
Q

azor

A

amlodipine/olmesartan

144
Q

TRIbenzor

A

amlodipine/olmesartan/HCTZ

145
Q

caduet

A

amlodipine+atorvastatin

146
Q

consensi

A

amlodipine+ celecoxib

147
Q

entresto

A

sacubitril+valsartan

148
Q

bidil

A

isosorbide dinitrate+hydralazine

149
Q

aggrenox

A

asa+ ER dipyridamole

150
Q

twinrix

A

hep A + hep B greater than 18 yo

151
Q

proquad

A

MMR+ varicella

152
Q

pediarix

A

Dtap+IPV+HEP B

153
Q

stalevo

A

carbidopa+levodopa+entacepone

154
Q

epzicom is

A

abacavir/lamivudine (check *5701)

155
Q

trizivir contains what

A

abacavir so check 5701

156
Q

retrovir

A

zidovudine

157
Q

viread

A

TDF (nrti)

158
Q

isentress

A

raltegravir (insti)

159
Q

tivicay

A

dolutegravir (insti)

160
Q

triumeq

*preferred regimine

A

abacavir/ lamivudine/ dolutegravir (5701)

161
Q

dovato

A

dolutegravir/lamivudine ( do means 2 in some languages)

162
Q

biktarvy

good regime!

A

bictegravir/emtricitabine/TAF

163
Q

aTRIpla

A

has 3 drugs
efavirenz/TDF/emtricitabine
not currently a preferred regimen

164
Q

norvir

A

ritonavir

165
Q

prezista

A

darunavir

166
Q

reyataz

A

atazanavir

167
Q

methotrexate dosing with RA

what to give with it

A

weekly

folate

168
Q

methotrexate MOA

A

sphase

antimetabolite

169
Q

methotrexate SE

A

Mucositis
Myleosupression

Hepatotoxicity

Photosensitivity

Rash
Renal

X-preg cat X
X-chest xray pulmonary fibrosis

170
Q

LefLunomide (Arava)

A 
long half life 
Liver stuff (increase AST and ALT)
and alopecia

check ALT every month for the first 6 months
dont use if liver impaired

Preg. category X

171
Q

sulfasalazine can cause

A

orange -yellow discoloration of skin lenses and urine

used for RA and UC

172
Q

xeljanx

A

tofacitinib PO JAK inhibitor

173
Q

anakinra

A

kineret (interlukin 1 receptor antagonist)

174
Q

biologic DMARDs

A

TNF blockers

1) adalimumab- humira
2) etanercept- enbrel
3) infliximab- remicade
4) golimumab- simponi
5) certolizumab- cimzia

175
Q

montelukast dosing

major side effect

A

1-5: 4mg
6-14: 5 mg

QHS

neuropsychic events

176
Q

proair, proventil, ventolin

A

albuterol

177
Q

xopenex

A

levoalbuterol

178
Q

salmeterol

A

LABA (servent diskus)

179
Q

beclomethasone

A

qvar

180
Q

pulmiCORT

A

budesonide

181
Q

SYMbiCORT

A

budesonide+formoterol

182
Q

flovent

A

fluticasone

183
Q

arnuity ellipta

A

fluticasone

184
Q

ADvair

A

fluticasone+salmeterol

185
Q

breo ellipta

A

fluticasone + vilanterol

186
Q

asmanex

A

mometosone

187
Q

DUlera

A

mometasone+ formoterol

188
Q

tiotropium

A

spiriva respimat

189
Q

umedclidinium

A

incruse ellipta

190
Q

spiriva handihaler has

A

the capsule

191
Q

all respiclicks are

A

dry powder

192
Q

do you have to prime and shake MDIs

A

yes

193
Q

how to breath for MDI

A

slowly and deeply

194
Q

how to breath for DPI

A

quickly

195
Q

HFAs are

A

MDIs that you shake and prime

breathe slowly and deeply

196
Q

can use spacers for

A

MDI formulations

197
Q

pulmicort flexhaler is

A

DPI it’s the only one you prime at the beginning

quickly and deeply with DPI

198
Q

asmanex twisthaler is

A

DPI

199
Q

all elliptas are

A

DPI

200
Q

avoid bisphosphonates in crcl less than

A

30

201
Q

diskus are

A

DPI

202
Q

symbicort

A

DPI

203
Q

dulera

A

for mom

MDI

204
Q

montelukast, zafrilukast MOA

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist (work on receptors)

205
Q

zileuton (zyflo) MOA

A

5-lipooxygenase pathway inhibitor (pathway)

206
Q

acyclovir can cause

A

renal toxicity

207
Q

first line for all severe fungal infections

A

amphotecerin B

208
Q

no steroid in

A

COPD

209
Q

handihaler

A

DPI

210
Q

respimat

A 
PTOP
prime
turn
open
press
211
Q

albuterol/ipatropium

A

combivent CopD

212
Q

always load before

A

you breathe out

213
Q

interferon side effects

A

fatigue
depression
flu like syndrome
liver damage

214
Q

roflumilast (daliresp)

A 
suicidality weight loss
copd maintence
last line
pde4 inhibitor
cyp 3a4 sub
liver
215
Q

aNOro ellipta has

A

no steroid

just umeclidium and vilanterol

216
Q

servent diskus is ___ alone

A

salmeterol alone

217
Q

combos inhalers

A 
symbicort
advair + airduo
breo ellipta 
dulera 
anoro
trelegy
218
Q

ICS/ LABA combos

A

advair
symbicort
breo ellipta
dulera

219
Q

ipatroopium

A

atrovent

220
Q

combivent respimat

A

ipatropium and albuterol

221
Q

symbicort and dulera are

A

MDIS

222
Q

no DPIs in what allergy

A

milk protein

223
Q

1st line tx for sponteous bacterial peritonitis

A

ceftriaxone

224
Q

sofosbuvir (eplcusa)+amiodarone what happens

A

severe bradycardia

225
Q

ribavirin main counseling

and SE

A

can cause birth defects

hemolytic anemia

226
Q

natural product used to liver dx

A

milk thistle

227
Q

kcl 10%=

A

20MEq/15ml

228
Q

rapid acting IM injectable antipyschotics

A

(HZZ)
haloperidol
ziprasidone (geodon)
zprexa (olanazapine)

229
Q

long acting IM injectable antipsychotics

A 
halodol ORAL
fluphenazine
risperidone (risperidone consta)
risperidone (perseris) SQ
paliperidone palimate
invega sustenna
invega trinza
abilify maintena 
abilify aristada 
aristada intitio
zyrexa relprevv
230
Q

risperidal contsa given

A

IM every 2 weeks

po for 3 weeks then stop

231
Q

invega sustenna given

A

once a month

232
Q

invega TRInza given

A

every 3 months

233
Q

abilify maintena

A

once monthly

234
Q

abilify aristada

A

every 4 to 6 weeks

235
Q

aristada initio

A

only to be given as a booster in a single dose

236
Q

clozapine =

A

REMS agranulocytotis
physician patient and pharmacy have to be registered to look at ANC base line must be at least 1500

ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION
SEIZURES
MYOCARDITIS
! boxed warnings

237
Q

quietapine (seroquel) dosage forms

A

only comes in tablets

and XR

238
Q

must take ziprasidone (geodon) with ___

A

food! can decrease absoprtion up to 80 percent

geodon GEODON GOOD MEAL

239
Q

ziprasidone is know for

A

QT prolongation
and no weight gain

check electrolytes before starting
contact doctor if have a rash

240
Q

latuda with the

A

fooda (lurasidone)

241
Q

lowest to no weight gain anti psychotics

A

ziprasidone, lurasidone, aripiprazole

242
Q

phenbarb level

A

20-40

enhances GABA

243
Q

phenytoin and phenobarb shouldnt be given faster than

A

50mg/per min

244
Q

phenytoin/fosphenytoin main things

A 
sedation 
rash
gingival hyperplasia
hepatoxicity
hair growth
245
Q

phenytoin/fosphenytoin level

A

10-20

246
Q

valproic acid MOA

A

increase gaba

247
Q

phenytoin and fospehen MOA

A

na channel blocker

248
Q

valproic acid range

A

50-100

249
Q

vaLProic acid black box warnings

A

hepatic failure
pancreatitis
teratogenic

250
Q

never use valproic acid if

A

pregnant in migraine prophylaxis

251
Q

valproic acid increases

A

lamictal (so lower the dose of lamictal)

252
Q

carbamazepime looks like

A

looks like cyclobenzaprine and tcas

-anticholingeric

253
Q

CArbAmAzePine SEs

A

boxed warning: SEVERE SJS/TEN, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis

seperate 14 days from MAOIs
fetal harm
siadh
photosensitivity
monitor liver
254
Q

carbamazepine CI if

A

prior myleosupression

255
Q

carbamezapmine MOA

A

na channel blocker

256
Q

gabapentin is 100% _____

A

renal, dose adjust

causes peripheral edema

257
Q

pregabalin is 100% ____

A

renal, dose adjust

causes peripheral edema

258
Q

lamotrigine main thing

A

RASH RASH RASH

259
Q

topiramate and zonisamide and topamax can cause

A

kidney stones, weight loss, and decrease sweating(hyperthermia)

260
Q

sulfa allergy with which anticonvulsant

A

zonisamide

261
Q

topamax is renal or liver

A

RENAL

262
Q

topiramate is preg category

A

D

263
Q

topiramate can cause metabolic __

A

acidosis

264
Q

lacosamide! Vimpat SE

A

heart block, pr prolongation

chedule V

265
Q

vigabatrin (sabril) can cause

A

vision loss!

266
Q

all seizure meds cause

A

sedation/ somnolence,

suicidal thinking and behavior

267
Q

active metabolite of oxcarbazepine

A

eliscarbepine

268
Q

epidiolex (cannabidiol) for seizures

A

only for sever seixures
LGS
and dravet syndrome

  • weight loss and watch liver
  • monitor ALT, AST
269
Q

smoke less than 25 cigs/day (20 in a pack) what gum to choose

if smoke greater than 25 in day

A

2mg

4 mg

max gums they can chew a day 24 pieces

270
Q

avoid lithium with

A

NSAIDS, choose tylenol instead or ASA

271
Q

kadian is

A

morphine

272
Q

methadone can cause

A

QT prolongation, can also use it do get off opioids hecause of NMDAreceptor anatagonist

273
Q

no thiazides or loops with sulfa allergy except

A

EA

274
Q

hyzaar

A

losartan/hctz

275
Q

dyazide

A

hctz/triamtere

276
Q

altace

A

ramipril

277
Q

mycelex

A

clortimazole, oral thrush

278
Q

esas only when hgb is

A

less than 10, interupt when it exceeds 12

279
Q

hyperphosphatemia

A

calcium acetate (phoslo, phoslyra)
sevelamer (renagel, renvela)
lanthanum (fosrenol)
alumnium hydroxide (ampho gel)

280
Q

zanaflex

A

tizanadine

281
Q

valtrex

A

valacyclovir

282
Q

vibramycin

A

doxycycline

283
Q

ziac

A

bisoprolol/ hctz

284
Q

levophed

A

norepi works on alpha and beta

285
Q

jantoven

A

dabigatran

286
Q

divaloprex/valpproic acid effect on weight

A

increase

287
Q

lithium effect on weight gain

A

increase

288
Q

lanoxin

A

digoxin

289
Q

reclast

A

zoledronic acid

290
Q

tenormin

A

atenolol

291
Q

antidote for methanol and etylene glycol toxicity is

A

fomepizole

292
Q

ESRD have what electrolyte abnormalities

A

hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia
low hemoglobin

293
Q

beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomemetic activity

A

APP
acebutolol
pindolol
pentbutolol

294
Q

no FQs or bactrim with

A

warfarin

295
Q

3 electrolytes to monitor in DKA

A

potassium
magnesium
phosphate

296
Q

drugz used to treat chemo induced anemia

A

aranesp, epogen or procrit

297
Q

epzicom and trizir have

A

abacavir so must test 5701

298
Q

iv PPIS

A

esomeprazole and pantoprazole

299
Q

ghonorrhea tx

A

ceftriazone 500 mg IM injection

300
Q

urine bugs PEKEPS

A 
proteus
ecoli
klebsiella
enterococci
pseudomanas
staph saprophyticus
301
Q

tylenol kids

A

10-15/mg/kg/dose

302
Q

carbamazepine causes

A

agranulocytosis

303
Q

common SE with brillinta

A

dyspnea

304
Q

ABx that dont require renal dose adjustmnet

A

oxacillin, nafcillin, moxifloxacin, ceftriaxone, clindamycin, linezolid and tigecycline

305
Q

prasugrel

A

effient

306
Q

ticagrelor

A

brilinta

307
Q

cangrelor

A

kengreal

308
Q

zegrid

A

omeprazole+ sodium bicarb

309
Q

eltegravir always needs to be

A

boosted

310
Q

do not use amiodarone with HCV drugs containing

A

sofosbuvir (epclusa, harvoni)

311
Q

hep b preferred treatment

A

interferon alfa or nrti (tenofovir or entecavir)

vemlidy/viread

312
Q

-previr

hcv

A

ns3/4a

313
Q

-asvir

A

n35A

314
Q

-buvir

A

ns5B

315
Q

number of dissociation particles
calcium chloride-
sodium citrate-

A

cacl2-3

na3c6h5o7-4

316
Q

number of dissociated ions related to dissociation fator

A 
1=1
2=1.8
3=2.6
4=3.4
5=4.2
317
Q

valence of 2

A

all the calcium ones
ferrous, lithium, magnesium

the chelation ones

318
Q

valence of 1

A

potassiums sodiums ammoniums

319
Q

1 oz= how many g

A

28.4g

320
Q

1 lb to g

A

454 g

321
Q

1 grain to mg

A

65 mg

322
Q

humalog mix pens

A

10 days

323
Q

humulin r vials

A

31 days

324
Q

humulin n, n/r pens

A

14 days

325
Q

humulin r u-500 viAL

A

40 DAYS

326
Q

NOVOLIN R, N, N/R 70/30 vial

A

42 days

327
Q

novolog mixes in pens

A

14 days

328
Q

levemir (detemir)

A

42 days

329
Q

degludec (tresiba)

A

56 days

330
Q

toujeo pen

A

56 days

naplex (24 decks)

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