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ID 1 Flashcards

1
Q

gram positive gram stain

A

dark purple (thick cell wall)

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2
Q

gram negative gram stain

A

pink (thin cell wall)

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3
Q

what organisms do not stain well

A 
atypicals
chlamydia
legionella
mycoplasma pneumonia
mycobacterium tuberculosis
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4
Q

gram positive cocci in clusters

A

staphylococcus (mssa and mrsa)

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5
Q

gram positive cocci in pairs and chains

A

strep pneumoniae (diplococci)
strep spp. (pyogenes)
enterococcus spp. (including VRE)

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6
Q

gram positive rods

A

listeria

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7
Q

gram positive anaerobes

A

peptostrepococcus
actinomyces
clostridium spps.

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8
Q

gram neg cocci

A

neisseria

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9
Q

gram neg rods

A 
gut ones
proteus
e coli
klebsiella
serratia
enterobacter
citrobacter

non gut ones
pseudomonas
h flu
providencia

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10
Q

gram neg. cocci bacilli

A

acinetobacter

bordetella pertussis

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11
Q

gram neg. diplococci

A

moraxella cat/

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12
Q

gram neg. anerobe

A

bacteroides fragilis

prevotella spp.

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13
Q

curved or spiral shaped gram neg. rods

A 
h pylori
campylobacter
treponema
boreelia
leptospira
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14
Q

high risk cdiff (killing off of normal gi gut flora) can be fatal

A

clindamycin

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15
Q

folic acid synthesis inhibitors

A

sulfonamides
trimethoprim
dapsone

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16
Q

cell wall inhibitors

A

beta lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
monobactams (aztreonam)
vancomycin, dalbavancin, televancin, oritavancin

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17
Q

protein synthesis inhibitors

A 
aminoglycosides
macrolides
tetrocyclines
clindamycin
linezolid,tedezolid
quinupristin/dalfopristin
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18
Q

cell membrane inhibitors

A

polymyxins
daptomycin
telavancin
oritivancin

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19
Q

dna/rna inhibitors

A

FQs
metronidazole, tinidazole
rifampin

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20
Q

concentration dependant

A

quinolones
aminoglycosides
daptomycin

goal is a high peak
large dose long interval

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21
Q

time dependent

A

cephalosporins
penicillins
carbapenems

goal is maintain drug level for most of the dosing interval
shorter dosing interval

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22
Q

beta lactam antibiotics

A

cephalopsorins, penicillins, carbapenems

all have a beta lactam ring

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23
Q

all penicillins cover what

A

enterococcus

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24
Q

all penicillins do not cover

A

MRSA or atypicals

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25
Q

only penicillin for pseduomonas

A

pip/taz (zosyn)

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26
Q

amoxicillin on its own cannot cover mssa but it can if its added with ___

A

clavulanate (augmentin)

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27
Q

natural penicillins (Pen v potassium, pen g benzathine) cover

A

gram positive cocci (strep and enterococci but not staph) and gram positive anaerobes

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28
Q

aminopenicillins cover

amoxicillin and ampicillin

A

gram positive (strep, enterococci not staph, gram pos. anaerobes, and gram neg HNPE)

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29
Q

amoxicillin/clavulantate

and ampicillin sulfbactam cover

A

gram positive (strep, enterococci, mssa, gram pos. anaerobes, gram neg. HNPEK) and gram neg. anaerobes (bacteroides fragelis)

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30
Q

zosyn covers everything augmentin and unasyn covers plus

A

citrobacter, acinteobacter, provindencia, enterobacter, serratia (CAPES), pseudomonas

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31
Q

antistaphylococcal penicillins are

A

nafcillin, dicloxacillin and oxacillin

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32
Q

antistaphyloccal penicillins are great against

A

MSSA but lack but lack activity against enterococcus, gram negatives and anarobes

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33
Q

penicillin G benzathine brand

IM

A

Bicillin LA

not used IV can cause death

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34
Q

side effects penicillins

A

seizures with accumulation
GI upset
diarrhea
Rash (SJS, TEN)

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35
Q

ampicillin and unasyn dilute in

A

NS only

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36
Q

nafcillin is a ___

A

vesicant, administer through central line

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37
Q

avoid penicillins in what allergy

A

beta lactam

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38
Q

all penicillins increase the risk of ___

A

seizures

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39
Q

first line tx for strep throat

A

penicillin VK

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40
Q

first line tx mild non purulent skin infection (no abscess)

A

penicillin VK

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41
Q

first line tx acute otitis media

A 
amoxicillin (90mg.kg/day)
or augmentin (90mg/kg.day
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42
Q

drug of choice for infective endocarditis prophylaxis before dental procedure

A

amoxicillin 2 grams x1 (30-60 min before procedure)

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43
Q

penicillin drug used in h pylori tx

A

amoxicillin

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44
Q

first line for sinus infections

A

augmentin

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45
Q

no renal dose required for what two penicillins

A

dicloxacillin and oxacillin

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46
Q

drug of choice for syphillis

A

penicllin g benzathine (bicillin LA)

2.4 million units IM

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47
Q

pip/taz infusions short or long

A

extended infusions (4 hours can be used to maximize t>mic

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48
Q

cephalosporins do not cover what two things

A

atypicals or enterococcus

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49
Q

first generation cephalosporin has excellent ___ coverage and are preferred when used for ____

A

gram positive

MSSA

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50
Q

first gen cephs have limited gram neg. coverage what is it

A

PEK

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51
Q

second gen cephs cover

A

HENPEKS

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52
Q

third gen cephs cover

A

pseudomonas -ceftaz,cefepime,zerbaxa

ceftriaxone and cefotaximine- cover more resis. strains of of strep

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53
Q

cefepime (4th gen) covers

A

broad gram neg. coverage (hnpek, capes, pseudomonas)

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54
Q

fifth gen ceph

A

ceftaroline (MRSA)

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55
Q

no ceftriaxone in ___

A

neonates (0-28 days)

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56
Q

1st gens to know

A

cefazolin

cephalexin (keflex)

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57
Q

2nd gens to know

A

cefuroxime
cefotetan (cefotan)
cefoxitin
cefprozil

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58
Q

3rd gens to know

A 
cefdinir
ceftriaxone
cefotaxime
cefixime
cefpodoxime

ceftazidime (fortaz)
ceftaz/avibactam (avycaz)
ceftolozane/tazobactam (zerbaxa)

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59
Q

4th gen to know

A

cefepime (maxipime)

cefiderocol (fetroja)

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60
Q

5th gen to know

A

ceftaroline (teflaro)

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61
Q

no renal adjustment in what cephalosporin

A

ceftriaxone

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62
Q

cefotetan (2nd gen) can cause what type of reaction

A

disulfram with alcohol

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63
Q

if patient has a penicillin allergy on exam do not choose a ___

A

cephalosporin

exception pediatric patient with AOM

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64
Q

2 furry tan foxes

A

2nd gen cephs

+cefproxzil

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65
Q

cephalosporins have risk of ___

A

seizures

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66
Q

common use for keflex

A 
skin infection (mssa)
strep throat
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67
Q

common use for cefuroxime (2nd gen)

A

AOM, CAP, sinus infection

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68
Q

common use for cefdinir (3rd gen)

A

CAP, sinus infection

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69
Q

common use for cefazolin (1st gen) inpatient

A

surgical prophylaxis

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70
Q

common use for cefotetan and cefoxitin in patient

A

anaerobic coverage:bacteroides fragilis

surgical prophylaxis

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71
Q

common use for ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

A

cap, meningitis, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, pylenonephritis

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72
Q

common use for ceftazidime (3rd gen) and cefipime (4th gen)

A

active against pseudomonas

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73
Q

common use for avycaz and zerbaxa (3rd gen)

A

MDR gram neg org. including pseudomonas

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74
Q

ceftarolone is used for

A

MRSA

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75
Q

carbapenems are all ___ only

A

IV

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76
Q

ertapenem does not cover ___

A

PEA
pseudomonas
acintobacter
enterococcus

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77
Q

carbapenems are very broad spectrum and generally reserved for MDR gram ___infections

A

negative

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78
Q

carbapenems are active against

A

most gram positive
negative (including esbl producing bacteria)
and anaerobes

no coverage of atypicals MRSA VRE

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79
Q

ertapenem dilute in __ only

A

NS

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80
Q

do carbapenems cover MRSA

A

no

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81
Q

do not use carbapenems in pts with what allergy

A

PCN

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82
Q

just like penicillin and cephalosporins, carbapenems have a __ risk because these are all beta lactams

A

seizure

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83
Q

common uses for carbapenems

A

polymicrobial infections- diabetic foot infections(moderate to severe)
empiric therapy when resistant organisms are suspected
resistant pseudomonas or acinetobacter infections (except ertapenem)

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84
Q

aztreonam is a what

A

monobactam

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85
Q

can aztreonam be used in a PCN allergy

A

yes, in fact it is primarily used when a beta lactam allergy is present

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86
Q

aztreonam covers many gram negatives including this special guy

A

pseudomonas

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87
Q

aztreonam has no coverage of what

A

anaerobes or gram positives

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88
Q

aztreonam is __ only

A

IV

there is also an inhaled form for CF

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89
Q

aminoglycosides mainly cover

A

gram negatives including pseudomonas

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90
Q

aminoglycosides kill gram negatives fast and are synergistic with what

A

beta lactams

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91
Q

notable toxicities for aminoglycosides

A

oto and nephrotoxicity

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92
Q

aminoglycosides bigger dose ___ frequently protects the kidneys

A

less

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93
Q

aminoglycosides are

A 
gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin
streptomycin
plazomicin
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94
Q

trough level goal for gent abd tobra

A

less than 2

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95
Q

aminoglycosides warnings

A

use caution in impaired renal fxn
elderly
taking other nephrotoxic drugs: amphotericn B,
cisplatin, polymixins, cyclosporine, loops, nsaids, radiocontrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin

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96
Q

when to draw aminoglycoside levels

A

draw a trough right before or 30 min before the 4th dose

draw a peak 30 min after the end of the infusion of the 4th dose

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97
Q

dosing for aminoglycosides

A

use actual weight if underweight
use actual or ideal for normal or overweight (follow protocol)
for obese must use adjusted bodyweight

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98
Q

gentamicin and tobramycin typical dose (traditional dosing)

A

1-2.5mg/kg dose

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99
Q

for aminoglycosides if crcl is 60 or greater give it every

A

8 hours for traditional dosing

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100
Q

quinolones inhibit ___ and ___

A

bacterial DNA topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase

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101
Q

quinolones cover ___, ___ and finally ___

A

gram positive, negative and ATYPICALS

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102
Q

respiratory FQs

A

MGL
my good lungs
(enhanced coverage of strep pneumo and atypicals)

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103
Q

which two Fqs have enhanced gram neg. activity including activity against pseudomonas

A

cipro and levo

104
Q

only FQ that cannot be used for UTIs

A

moxifloxacin

105
Q

delafloxacin is approved for __ infections and has activity against __

A

skin infections MRSA

106
Q

boxed warnings for FQs

A

tendon inflammation and rupture
peripheral neuropathy
seizures (CNS effects)

107
Q

warnings with FQs

A

QT prolongation- highest risk with moxifloxacin
hypo or hyperglycemia
avoid systemic FQs in children and preg/breastfeeding due to musculoskeletal toxicity
photosensitivity/toxicity

108
Q

do not put what fq through an NG tube

A

cipro oral suspension

109
Q

cipro +dexamethasone ear drops called

A

ciprodex

110
Q

levofloxacin brand name

A

levaquin

111
Q

avelox generic

A

moxifloxacin

112
Q

ocuflox eye drops generic

A

ofloxacin

113
Q

avoid anything that can bind when taking a FQs including

A 
antacids
polyvalent cations (magnesium, aluminium, calcium, iron, zinc)
multivitamins
sucralafate
bile acid resin

lanthanum carbonate (fosrenol)
sevelamer (renvela)
seperate by at least 2 hours before or 2-6 hours after

114
Q

fqs can increase the effects of what blood thinner

A

warfarin

115
Q

fq that is not renally adjusted

A

moxifloxacin

116
Q

avoid FQs in __ and ___

A

children and pregnancy

117
Q

counseling for FQs

A

avoid sun
seperate from cations
monitor BG if DM

118
Q

Macrolides cover

A

atypicals (legionella, chlamydia, mycoplasma, mycobacterium)

Haemophilus

119
Q

macrolides are treatment options for

A

community acquired respiratory tract infections

sexually transmitted diseases (chlamydia, gonorrhea)

120
Q

macrolides include

A

azithromycin
clarithromycin
erythromycin

121
Q

zpak dose

A

500 mg day 1

250 mg day 2-5

122
Q

do not use lovastatin or simvastatin with what two macrolides

A

clarithromycin or erythromycin

azithromycin okay

123
Q

warnings with macrolides

A

QT prolongation

hepatotoxicity

124
Q

clarithromycin has a warning with ___ , increased mortality

A

coronary artery disease

125
Q

clarithromycin and erythromycin are __ and ___ of cyp3a4

A

substrates and inhbitors

126
Q

QT prolonging drugs to avoid combo with FQs and Macrolides

A

azole antifungals, antipsychotics, methadone

127
Q

common uses for macrolides

A

CAP

alternative to beta lactam for strep throat

128
Q

azithromycin can be used for what

A 
COPD exacerbation
monotherapy for chlamydia
combo therapy for gonorrhea
prophylaxis for MAC
DOC for severe travelers diarrhea with dysentery
129
Q

clarithromycin used for tx of

A

H. pylori

130
Q

Erythromycin increases ___ ___ and is used for gastroparesis

A

gastric motility

131
Q

zpak dosing

A

two 250mg pills once on day 1

then 250mg daily x 4 days

132
Q

macrolides bind to the ___s subunit

A

50

133
Q

tetracyclines bind to the __s subunit

A

30

134
Q

tetracyclines cover

A

gram positive
negative
atypicals!
other unique pathogens (spirochettes, rickettsiae, bacillus anthracis

135
Q

doxycycline indications

A 
CAP
tick borne/rickettsial diseases
chylamdia
gonorrhea
mild skin infections caused by MRSA
136
Q

minocycline is preferred tx for

A

acne

137
Q

doxycyline brand

A

vibramycin

138
Q

minocycline brand

A

minocin

solodyn

139
Q

warning for tetracyclines who shouldnt take

A

children less than 8

pregnancy and breastfeeding

140
Q

tetracycline with DILE

A

minocycline

141
Q

should you avoid sun with tetracyclines

A

yes

142
Q

iv:po ratio for tetracyclines

A

1:1

143
Q

avoid ___ products with tetracyclines

A

dairy

144
Q

avoid anything that can bind with tetracylines

A 
antacids
polyvalent cations (magnesium, aluminium, calcium, iron, zinc)
multivitamins
sucralafate
bile acid resin

lanthanum carbonate (fosrenol)
sevelamer (renvela)
seperate by at least 2 hours before or 2-6 hours after

145
Q

sulfonamides inhibit the folic acid ___

A

pathway

146
Q

bactrim covers

A

mssa and mrsa

broad gram neg. coverage

147
Q

what dose bactrim not cover

A

pseudomonas, enterococcus, atypicals, anaerobes

148
Q

dose of bactrim is based on what component

A

TMP

149
Q

single strength bactrim

A

400/80

s/t

150
Q

double strength bactrim

A

800/160

s/t

151
Q

uncomplicated UTI bactrim dose

A

1 double strength tablet twice a day for 3 days

800/160mg BID x 3 days

152
Q

bactrim is CI in ___ ___

A

sulfa allergy

153
Q

warnings with sulfameth

A

SJS/TEN, TTP (skin reactions)

G6PD deficiency! -dont use if known deficiency and d/c if hemolysis occurs

154
Q

bactrim SEs

A

photosensitivity
hemolytic anemia (coombs test)
increase potassium
crystalluria (take with full glass of water)!

155
Q

bactrim big interaction with what drug

A

WARFARIN

can cause a significant increase in INR

156
Q

common used for bactrim

A

CA-MRSA skin infections
UTI
pneumocysitis pneumonia (PCP)

157
Q

ratio of SMx/TMP

A

5:1
5 looks like an s
S also comes before T

single strength has 80 mg tmp
DS has 160 mg TMp

158
Q

if patient is on WARFARIN consider different abx than ___

A

bactrim!
bactrim will increase the INR

also watch potassium with bactrim if taking other drugs that increase potassium

159
Q

vancomycin inhibits

A

cell wall synthesis

160
Q

vancomycin only covers gram

A 
positive
MRSA
streptococci
enterocci
and 
cdiff - oral route only for c diff
161
Q

vancomycin dose and trough

A

15-20mg/kg based on total body weight! every 8 -12 h9ours

162
Q

used what weight for vanc dosing

A

total body weight

163
Q

first line for MRSA infections

A

vancomycin

164
Q

consider an alternative MRSA drug when MRSA MIC for vanc is

A

2 or greater

165
Q

for vancomycin if the crcl is 20-49 increase the dosing interval to

A

every 24 hours

166
Q

vancomycin dose for c diff

A

PO only

125-500mg QID x 10 days (upper end for severe complicated disease)

167
Q

vancomycin warnings

A

oto and nephrotoxic

infusion related reactions: redman syndrome

168
Q

redman syndrome with vancomycin how to avoid

A

do not infuse faster than 1 gram per hour

169
Q

vancomycin trough for uti and skin infections

A

10-15

170
Q

vanc. trough for serous mrsa infections (bacteremia, endocarditis, sepsis, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, meningitis)

A

15-20

171
Q

nephrotoxicity increases with vanc. with use of other nephrotoxic drugs like

A 
amphotericin b 
cisplatin
polymixins
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
loops
NSAIDs
radiocontrast dye
172
Q

lipoglycopeptides are what

A

-vancins

173
Q

vancins are very similar to what

A

vancomycin

174
Q

vancins are approved for what

A

skins and soft tissue infections including MRSA

175
Q

vancins are CI with the use of IV

A

UFH

176
Q

telavancin has a specific boxed warning for __ risk

A

fetal risk and nephrotoxicity

177
Q

like vancomycin, vancins can cause this syndrome

A

red man syndrome (give over 60 minutes)

178
Q

you cannot put daptomycin in ____

A

dextrose

179
Q

daptomycin is ___ dependent and a __ inhibitor

A

concentration

cell membrane

180
Q

daptomycin activity

A 
mostgram positive including MRSA
and enterococci (e faceleis and faecium)
181
Q

daptomycin brand

A

cubucin

182
Q

do not use daptomycin to treat

A

pneumonia, drug is inactivated by lung surfactant

183
Q

unique side effect for daptomycin

A

increases CPK (muscle thing) might have muscle pain and weakness

think about how using with statins can increase muscle toxicity

184
Q

daptomycin can only be put in

A

normal saline

185
Q

warnings for daptomycin

A

myopathy and rhabdomyolysis

can also falsely increase PT and INR

186
Q

linezolid and tedizolid bind to the __ unit

A

50 s

187
Q

linezolid and tedizolid have similar coverage to ___ but also cover VRE (e faecium and e faecalis)

A

vancomycin

cover MRSA

188
Q

linezolid brand name

A

zyvox

189
Q

zyvox (linezolid) CI

A

do not use with or within 2 weeks of MAO inhbitors

190
Q

linezolid iv to po

A

1:1

191
Q

linezolid comes

A

iv po

192
Q

avoid __foods with linezolid

A

tyramine

193
Q

warnings with linezolid

A

duration related myleosupression (thrombocytopenia)
peripheral and optic neuropathy
serotonin syndrome
hypoglycemia

194
Q

SEs with linezolid

A

can decrease platelets

195
Q

do you shake linezolid suspension

A

no

196
Q

brand name for quinpristin/dalfopristin

A

synercid

197
Q

synercid (quinpristin/dalfopristin) binds to the __ subunit

A

50s

198
Q

synercid use is limited bc its not well

it is approved for complicated skin and soft tissue infections

A 
tolerated
arthralgias/myalgias
infusion reactions
edema
hyperbilirubinemia
199
Q

synercid does cover

A

gram positive bacteria including MRSA

enterococcus including VRE but not e faecalis

200
Q

synercid can only be diluted in

A

dextrose

201
Q

tigecyline covers almost ___but

A

everything

the 3 P’s (pseudomonas, proteus, providencia)

202
Q

why is tigecyclines use limited/ boxed warning

A

increased risk of death

203
Q

tigecycline binds to the __subunit

A

30s

204
Q

what color should the reconstituted tigecycline be

A

tangerine (yellow orange)

205
Q

polymyxins boxed warning toxicity

A

nephrotoxicity! of course

but also neurotoxicity which can lead to respiratory paralysis

206
Q

two drugs in the polymyxin class

A 
colistimethate sodium (colistin)
polymyxin b sulfate

both injection

207
Q

polymyxins cover gram negatives and due to the risks that they carry (neuro and nephrotoxicity) they are reserved for

A

MDR gram negative pathogens in combo with other abx

208
Q

which abx can cause gray syndrome

A

chloramphenicol

209
Q

clindamycin is a ___ that binds to the ___s subunit

A

lincosamide

50s

210
Q

clindamycin what does it cover

A

anaerobes

gram positives including MRSA

211
Q

clindamycin brands

A

cleocin

topicals (cleocin t, clindagel)

212
Q

clindamycin doesnt require what

A

renal dose adjustment

213
Q

clindamycin boxed warning

A

colitis (c.diff)

214
Q

major SE with clindamycin

A

GI (NVD)

215
Q

d test used for what antibiotic

A

clindamycin

216
Q

how is dtest used with clindamycin

A

should be performed on staph aureus that is susceptible to clindamycin but resistant to erythromycin

a flattened zone between the disks indicates inducible clindamycin resistance and clindamycin should not be used

217
Q

common uses for clindamycin

A

purulent and nonpurulent skin infections

beta lactam alternative for dental abscesses

218
Q

metranidazole has activity against ___ and ___

A

anaerobes and protozoal infections

219
Q

metronidazole is used for

A 
bacterial vaginosis
trichomoniasis
giardiasis
amebiasis
c diff
combos for intra abdominal infections
220
Q

brand for metronidazole

A

flagyl

221
Q

iv to po metronidazole

A

1:1

222
Q

metronidazole is CI in

A

pregnancy (1st trimester)

use of alcohol during tx and 3 days after tx (disulfram rxn)

223
Q

metronidazole and cefotetan have what in commmon

A

disulfram reaction

224
Q

SE of metronidazole

A

metallic taste

225
Q

fidaxomicin brand name

A

dificid

226
Q

what is fidaxomicin used for

A

c diff (not effective for systemic infections)

227
Q

metronidazole can increase the INR watch with ____

A

WARFARIN

just like bactrim

228
Q

rifaximin is structurally related to what and covers what

A

rifampin

ecoli

229
Q

notes about rifaximin (xifaxan)

A

not for systemic infections

used off label for cdiff and tx of hepatic encephalopathy

230
Q

rifaximin is used for

A

travelers diarrhea
decrease recurrence of hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose is first line)
irritable bowel syndrome w/ diarrhea (IBS-D)

231
Q

urinary agents

A

fosfomycin

nitrofuranitoin

232
Q

fosfomycin use

A 
single dose (3 grams po x 1 mixed in water)
female uncomplicated uti
233
Q

macrobid used for

A

uncomplicated uti only

234
Q

macrobid dose

A

100 mg bid x 5 days

235
Q

macrobid CI

A

crcl <60

236
Q

warnings with macrobid

A

hemolytic anemia

caution in G6PD def.

237
Q

macrobid SEs

A

GI upset take with food

brown urine discoloration (harmless)

238
Q

DOC for uncomplicated UTI is

A

macroBID (BID)

239
Q

mupirocin (bactroban) is a topical used to eliminate ___

A

MRSA

240
Q

doc MSSA

A 
dicloxacillin
nafcillin
oxacillin
cefazolin,cephalexin
augmentin, unasyn
doxycyclin, minocycline
bactrim
241
Q

CA-MRSA skin and soft tissue

A

bactrim
doxycycline/minocycline
clindamycin (d test first)
linezolid

242
Q

severe SSTI requiring IV or hospital (cover mrsa and strep)

A

vancomycin (consider alt if mic 2 or greater)
linezolid, tedizolid
daptomycin
ceftaroline

others
-vancins
synercid
tigecycline

243
Q

nosocomial MRSA

A

vancomycin
linezolid
daptomycin (not in pneumonia)

others:
rifampin (not alone)
telavancin

244
Q

VRE (e. faecalis)

A

Pen G or ampicillin
linezolid
daptomycin

other tigecycline

245
Q

VRE (e faecium)

A

linezolid
daptomycin

other
synercid
tigecycline

246
Q

DOC pseudomonas

A 
pip/taz
cefepime
ceftaz
ceftaz/avibactam (avycaz)
ceftolozane/tazobactam (zerbaxa)
carbapenems (except ertapenem)
cipro,levofloxacin
aztreonam
aminoglycosides
colisitmethate, polymyxin B
247
Q

DOC acinetobacter

A

carbapenems (except ertapenem)

248
Q

doc HNPEK

A

augmentin

249
Q

DOC bacteroides fragilis

A

metronidazole
augmentin
cefotetan, cefoxitin
carbapenems

250
Q

cdiff DOC

A

oral vanc

fidaxomycin

251
Q

atypicals DOC

A

azithromycin
doxycycline
FQs

252
Q

drugs to fridge after reconstitution

A

penicillin vk
ampicillin
augmentin
cephalexin (keflex)

253
Q

drugs to not fridge

A 
CEFDINIR 
azithromycin
clarithromycin
doxycycline
ciprofloxacin 
etc
254
Q

drugs that dont require renal dose adjustment

A 
antistaphylococcal pcns
ceftriaxone
clindamycin
doxycycline
macrolides (azithromycin and erythromycin only)
metronidazole
moxifloxacin
linezolid
255
Q

avoid calcium rich foods with ___

A

FQs

NAPLEX (24 decks)

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