Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biochemistry > Random (Metabolism) > Flashcards

Random (Metabolism) Flashcards

1
Q

Inhibitors of glycolysis

A
  1. Arsenate and iodoacetate - glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase
  2. Flouride - enolase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Allosteric regulation of glycolysis

A 
Phosphofructokinase 
Activators:
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate, ADP, AMP
Inhibitors:
ATP, citrate, acidic pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PDH complex is dependent on

A 
TPP
Lipoamide
Coenzyme A
FAD
NAD+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Main precursors of gluconeogenesis

A 
Pyruvate
Lactate
Glucogenic AA
Glycerol
Propionate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regulatory enzymes of gluconeogenesis

A

Pyruvate carboxylase
PEP-CK
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
Glucose 6 phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type 0 glycogen storage disease

A
  • liver glycogen synthase deficiency

- low glycogen stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type 1 GSD

A
  • Von Gierkes
  • glucose 6 phosphotase deficiency
  • accumulation of glycogen
  • fasting hypoglycemia
  • enlargement of liver
  • lactic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type 2 GSD

A
  • Pompes
  • lysosomal ā(1,4) ā(1,6) glucosidase
  • glycogen accumulates in lysosomes
  • heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type 3 GSD

A
  • Coris
  • debranching enzyme ā(1,6) glucosidase
  • hepatomegaly
  • symptoms vanish at puberty
  • similar to von Gierkes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type 4 GSD

A
  • Anderson’s
  • branching enzyme amylo(1,4-1,6) transglycolase
  • most severe
  • long unbranched chains accumulate and are recognized as foreign bodies
  • cardiac and liver failure before age 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type 5 GSD

A
  • McArdles
  • muscle glycogen phosphorylase
  • sufficient glycogen stores but cannot be released
  • can’t tolerate strenuous activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type 6 GSD

A
  • Hers
  • liver glycogen phosphorylase
  • impaired hepatic glycogenolysis
  • hepatomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type 7 GSD

A
  • Taruis
  • phosphofructokinase in muscle and RBC
  • hemolytic anemia
  • exercise intolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chief regulatory enzyme of HMP shunt

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

G6PD inhibited by

A

NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Essential fructosuria

A

Fructokinase

Accumulation of fructose and its excretion in urine

17
Q

Hereditary fructose intolerance

A

Aldolase B

Accumulation of fructose 1 phosphate

18
Q

High intake of fructose rich food

A 
Excess formation of fatty acids
Increased TAG and LDL
Decreased intracellular organic phosphate
Decreased synthesis of ATP
Increased synthesis of purines
Gout
19
Q

Why retinopathy in diabetes?

A

Accumulated glucose is converted to sorbitol with aldose reductase.
But sorbitol dehydrogenase is only present in seminal vesicles and ovaries.
So sorbitol accumulates in retina and tissues causing retinopathy

20
Q

Galactosemia

A 
Galactose 1 P uridyl transferase
Excess galactose in blood
Excess is converted to galactitol
MR, jaundice, hepatomegaly, proteinuria
CONGENITAL CATARACT
21
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus

A

When carbohydrate intolerance is noticed for the first time during pregnancy

  • can cause neonatal mortality
  • fetus secrets more insulin leading to increased birth weight of fetus
22
Q

Type 1 DM

A
  • Decreased insulin production
  • early onset
  • T cells attack insulin secreting cells of islets of langerhans
23
Q

Type 2 DM

A
  • decreased response to insulin

- late onset

24
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

Abdominal obesity + hypertryglyceridemia + high BP + high plasma glucose

  • Insulin resistance syndrome
  • increased risk of CAD and type 2 DM
25
Q

Kimmelstiel Wilson syndrome

A
  • Complication of DM
  • Nephrosclerosis
  • proteinuria
  • renal failure
26
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses

A

Intralysosomal accumulation of GAG in tissues

  • coarse facial features
  • thick skin
  • corneal opacity
  • MR
27
Q

Tay Sachs disease

A
  • Failure of degradation of gangliosides
  • Low Hexosaminidase A
  • cherry red spot in macula
28
Q

Hyperammonemia

A
  • feature of liver failure
  • also called portal systemic encephalopathy
  • toxins produced in intestines bypass liver
  • conc. in blood increases
  • CNS dysfunction
  • jaundice, hepatomegaly
29
Q

Lactose intolerance

A
  • deficiency of lactase
  • lactose accumulates in gut
  • diarrhea and flatulence
  • secondary - lactase activity decreases as age advances
  • treated with curd or yeast as they are rich in lactase
30
Q

Glucose galactose malabsorption

A
  • Defective SGluT-1
  • transporter of glucose in intestine
  • secondary active transport
31
Q

Congenital renal glycosuria

A
  • defective SGluT-2
  • transporter of glucose in kidneys
  • secondary active transport
32
Q

Oral rehydration solution

A
  • treatment for diarrhea
  • contains glucose and sodium
  • allows absorption of Na to replenish NaCl levels and glucose to provide energy
33
Q

Pasteur effect

A

The inhibitory effect of oxygen on glycolysis

34
Q

Warburg hypothesis

A
  • cancer cells utilise energy from glycolysis
  • they require lesser oxygen
  • inhibition of glycolysis depletes ATP in cancer cells leading to cell death.
  • warburg effect and hypoxia are frequently seen in human cancers
35
Q

Deficiency of glycolytic enzymes

A
  • mainly pyruvate kinase and hexokinase
  • hemolytic anaemia
  • hexokinase deficient RBC have low 2,3 BPG and high O2 affinity
  • PK deficient RBC have high 2,3 BPG and low O2 affinity
36
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A
  • occurs when halothane is given as anaesthetic
  • calcium release channel is defective
  • inappropriate release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • uncontrolled heat generation
  • ATP depletion
  • Lactic acidosis
  • CPK elevated
37
Q

Essential pentosuria

A

-one of members of Garrods triad
-decreased xylitol dehydrogenase and xylitol reductase
-L glucose is not converted to D glucose and is excreted in urine
-benedicts test +ve
-

Biochemistry (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions