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1
Q

What is ostiod?

A

Unmineralised bone

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2
Q

What are lacunae?

A

Small spaces in compact bone
Home to osteocytes

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3
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Osteoblasts that have become surrounded in the bone matrix

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4
Q

What are the 3 stages of stress?

A

Alarm
Resistance
Exhaustion

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5
Q

What is FVC?

A

Forced viral capacity
Total amount of air exhaled during FEV test

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6
Q

How to measure FEV and FVC?

A

Spirometery

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7
Q

What is FEV1?

A

Forced expiratory volume in 1 second

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8
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

Population
Intervention
Comparison
outcome

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9
Q

What is VQ ratio?

A

Air getting in to alveoli and blood flow to lungs

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10
Q

What does V stand for?

A

Ventilation

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11
Q

What does Q stand for?

A

Perfusion

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12
Q

Where is ventilation greatest in lung?

A

Base

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13
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Low oxygen in blood

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14
Q

Hypocapnia?

A

Low co2 in blood

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15
Q

What is metastasis?

A

Cancer cells moving from place they first grew to another place in body

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16
Q

What do chemoreceptors detect in breathing?

A

Change in blood PO2 PCO2

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17
Q

When PCO2 is increased or pH decreased what happen?

A

Central chemoreceptors activated to increase ventilation

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18
Q

What happens when decrease in PO2?

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors activated to increase ventilation

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19
Q

Where are central chemoreceptors?

A

Cluster of neurons in brain stem

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20
Q

Where are peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

Carotid sinus and aortic arch

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21
Q

What plays major role in moment to moment breathing?

A

PCO2

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22
Q

What do mechanoreceptors detect?

A

Changes in lung and chest wall

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23
Q

What happens in lung inflates?

A

Signals sent via vagus nerve to NTS
Ventilation adjusted

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24
Q

What receptor picks up inflation or distension of airways? What happens?

A

Mechanoreceptors in Airway smooth muscle
Terminates inspiration

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25
Q

What receptor picks up rapid inflation/deflation or oedema? What happens

A

Mechanoreceptors in airway epithelium
Sigh or short expiration

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26
Q

Where does NTS receive info from?

A

Mechanoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors

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27
Q

What are paranasal sinuses responsible for?

A

Vocal resonance and speech modification

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28
Q

What is oroantral fistula?

A

Abnormal communication between mouth and paranasal sinus

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29
Q

Why is a foreign body more likely to go into right bronchus?

A

As it’s wider, shorter and vertical

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30
Q

What forms the superior Vena cava?

A

Brachiocephalic veins

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31
Q

What do the internal jugular and subclavian veins drain to form?

A

Brachiocephalic veins

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32
Q

When chest walls are weak what happens to FRC? Why

A

Decreases
Elastic recoil greater

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33
Q

At rest what is partial lressure of o2 and co2?

A

100
40

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34
Q

What does each division of bronchioles result in?

A

Increased SA
Decreased diameter
Increase in number

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35
Q

What forms anatomical dead space?

A

Conducting airway
Bronchi containing nonrespiratory bronchioles

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36
Q

What is part of the respiratory airway?

A

Bronchioles with alveoli where gas exchange occurs

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37
Q

What is type 1 epithelium in alveoli?

A

97%
Gas exchange

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38
Q

What is type 2 epithelium in alveoli?

A

3%
Septal cells
Pulmonary surfactant to reduce surface tension

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39
Q

What properties facilitate gas diffusion?

A

Large SA
Large PP gradient
Gases with good diffusion properties

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40
Q

What is equation for PP?

A

Fgas X Pb

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41
Q

What is partial pressure in mouth and trachea?

A

Mouth 159
Trachea 150

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42
Q

What is the most effective way to transport O2 ?

A

Bound to haemoglobin

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43
Q

What does oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve illustrate?

A

Relationship between PO2 in blood and number of O2 bound to haemoglobin

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44
Q

At what value of PO2 does O2 saturation start to decrease?

A

60

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45
Q

How to measure O2 saturation?

A

Pulse oximetre

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46
Q

What is expiratory exchange ratio?

A

Expired CO2 to O2 uptake

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47
Q

How is most CO2 transported?

A

Converted to bicarbonate in RBC

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48
Q

What is the bicarbonate equation?

A

Water + carbon dioxide
To
Carbonic acid h2co3
To
Bicarbonate hco3

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49
Q

In healthy individual what is FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

> 70%

70% o2 expired per second

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50
Q

What does spirometry test measure?

A

FEV1

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51
Q

What is VQ ratio in healthy lung?

A

0.8

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52
Q

When is VQ ratio > 1?

A

When ventilation exceeds perfusion

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53
Q

When is VQ ratio less than 1?

A

When perfusion exceed ventilation

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54
Q

What is the pressure and resistance in pulmonary circulation?

A

Low

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55
Q

What is the physiological dead space?

A

Vol of gas in each breath that doesn’t participate in gas exchange

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56
Q

What is VQ mismatching?

A

In some alveoli VQ>1 and some VQ<1

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57
Q

What is VQ in physiological shunt?

A

0

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58
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Decreased 02

59
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

pO2< 80

60
Q

What is
Alveolar ventilation
Pulmonary BF
in healthy individual

A

4-6 L min
5 L min

61
Q

Where is
Pleural pressure
Transpulmonary pressure
Greatest?

A

Base
Apex

62
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Air moves in and out of lungs

63
Q

What is perfusion?

A

Deoxy blood through lung for O2

64
Q

What is Hyperoxia?

A

Increase 02

65
Q

What is hypocapnia?

A

Decreased CO2

66
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Increased CO2

67
Q

What is starlings law?

A

Magnitude of stretch predicts strength of contraction

68
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Vol of blood pumped by heart per min

69
Q

What is CO equation?

A

Stroke vol times heart rate

70
Q

On ECG what is p wave?

A

Atrial depolarisation

71
Q

What is QRS complex?

A

ventricular depolarisation

72
Q

What is t wave?

A

Ventricular repolarisation

73
Q

What is PR interval?

A

Delay through AV node

74
Q

What is ST interval?

A

Plateau of ventricular AP

75
Q

What is stroke vol?

A

Volume of blood ejected per contraction

76
Q

What is stroke vol equation

A

EDV - ESV

77
Q

What is systole and diastole?

A

S = ejects
D = fills

78
Q

Which ventricle is thicker and why?

A

Left as if overcome greater pressure

79
Q

What is MAP equation ?

A

CO x TPR
OR
DBP + 1/3 PP

80
Q

What is vascular compliance and eq?

A

Ability of vessel to expand and recoil with changes in pressure

Change in volune
Change in pressure

81
Q

3 types of capillaries?

A

Fenestrated
Continuous
Discontinuous

82
Q

3 layers of vessel wall?

A

Tunica intima (only one in capillaries)
Tunica media
Tunica advantica

83
Q

How is ADH produced?

A

Dehydration or decreased blood pressure
Acts on hypothalamus
Releases ADH to posterior pituitary
Releasee ADH to kidney

84
Q

What regulates calcium production from the parafollicular cells?

A

Calcitonin

85
Q

What do thyroid hormones do?

A

Increased metabolic rate
Determines basal metabolic rate

86
Q

How is cortisol produced?

A

ACTH produced from anterior pituitary then produced by adrenal cortex

87
Q

What’s does adrenal medulla produce ?

A

Adrenaline

88
Q

Temporalis origin and insertion

A

Temporal fossa
Coronoid process of mandible

89
Q

Temporalis function

A

Elevates and retraction

90
Q

Masseter origin and insertion

A

Zygomatic arch
Angle and later surface of ramus of mandible

91
Q

Masseter function

A

Elevate mandible

92
Q

Medial pteygoid Origin and insertion

A

Medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone

Medial surface of angle and Ramus of mandible

93
Q

Medial pterygoid function

A

Elevate and protrude

94
Q

Lateral pterygoid origin and insertion

A

Greater wing of sphenoid and lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid

Joint capsule of TMJ and Pterygoid fovea of mandible

95
Q

Lateral pterygoid function

A

Depress and protrude mandible

96
Q

What passes through mandibular for amen?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

97
Q

Where does inferior alveolar nerve come from ?

A

mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

98
Q

When is the Jaw most stable?

A

Mandible elevated and consuls in articular fossa

99
Q

What prevents too much forward movement of mandible?

A

Articular tuberance

100
Q

What does the lateral TMJ ligament do?

A

Straps condyl to TMJ

101
Q

What ligament provides mandible with most stability?

A

Lateral

102
Q

What are the ligaments of TMJ

A

lateral
Sphenomandibulsr
Stylomandibular

103
Q

What comes from the external auditory medius?

A

Styloid process then the stylomandibular ligament

104
Q

What is the nerve supply to the TMJ?

A

Auriculartemporal and Masseteric from trigeminal nerve

105
Q

What is the blood supply to the TMJ?

A

Maxillary and superficial temporal branches of ECA

106
Q

What type of joint is TMJ?

A

Synovial of condyloid type

107
Q

What cartilage is present in TMJ?

A

Hyaline

108
Q

how do hormones act?

A

via negative feedback

109
Q

what makes up are nucleotides make up of? give examples

A

base, sugar, phosphate
co enzymes like NAD CoA or ATP

110
Q

what is a nucleoside made from?

A

base and sugar

111
Q

what is the main biological energy store and where is it produced?

A

ATP from mitochondria

112
Q

what is the base and sugar in ATP?

A

base is adenine
sugar is ribose

113
Q

how is ATP joined?

A

esterification of C5 with 3 phosphate groups

114
Q

how is energy released from ATP?

A

when each phosphate bond is broken = ADP + Pi therefor energy

115
Q

what is the function of nucleic acid?

A

synthesise proteins
transmit genetic info

116
Q

what are the bases in nucleic acid?

A

purines = A and G
pyramidines = C and T and U

117
Q

how does cAMP act as a second messenger?

A
  • hormone binds to receptors on plasma membrane
  • adrenal cyclase stimulated
  • increased adrenal cyclase so increases cAMP
  • rate of processes altered
118
Q

what is cAMP? (eg. tide or side)

A

ribonucleotide

119
Q

what ion is involved in ATP to AMP?

A

magnesium

120
Q

where is the phosphate on cAMP?

A

on C5
-cyclises between C5 and C3 of ribose

121
Q

how is ATP converted to cAMP then AMP?

A

with the help of magnesium
1. by adrenal cyclase with 2 phosphates released
2. by phosphodiesterase

122
Q

what is the DNA backbone made of?

A

deoxyriboses linked by phosphodiester bridges

123
Q

what is the bonds of the DNA backbone?

A

3’ - 5’ phosphodiester bonds

124
Q

what is the bonds in the RNA backbone?

A

5’ - 3’ phosphodiester bonds

125
Q

name 3 differences between RNA and DNA?

A
  1. uracil replaces thymine
  2. 1 strand with no base pairs
    3.ribose replaces deoxyribose
126
Q

3 types of RNA

A

ribosomal
messenger
transfer

127
Q

what causes mutation?

A

errors in DNA synthesis, radiation

128
Q

describe the 3 types of mutations?

A

conservative = AA replaced with similar
nonconservative = AA replaced with not similar
no mutation = change in 3rd base so no change AA

129
Q

what does insertion or deletion cause?

A

frameshift therefor completely different protein

130
Q

what happen sin sickle cell anaemia?

A

glutamic acid replaced with valine = non conservative

131
Q

what happens in protein synthesis?

A

DNA to mRNA by transcription
mRNA through tRNA and rRNA to protein = translation

132
Q

what does RNA polymerase do in translation?

A

copies base sequence in template to produce mRNA

133
Q

what does tRNA contain?

A

codon anticodon

134
Q

what caries AA to ribosome?

A

tRNA

135
Q

how many tRNAs are there? how many AA?

A

64
20

136
Q

what is recombinant DNA technology?

A

join DNA molecules from different organisms and insert into a host to produce new genetic combinations

137
Q

what are stages of gene cloning?

A

isolate gene using restriction enzyme
gel electrophoresis
insert into plasmid

138
Q

in dna sequencing where does the primer bind?

A

3’ end of DNA

139
Q

what is chain termination in DNA sequencing?

A

interrupt DNA strand synthesis depending on presence of ddNTPs

140
Q

what do restriction enzymes do?

A

cut DNA at specific sequences

141
Q

what way do restriction enzymes cut DNA? how are they rejoined?

A

staggered cut with sticky ends
dna ligase rejoins

142
Q

what is gel electrophoresis?

A

separates DNA fragments based on size

143
Q

what structure do non steroid hormones have?

A

cholesterol ring

REVISION (12 decks)

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