ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 functions of the GIT?

A

digestion
absorption (transfer nutrients into circulation)

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2
Q

what type of epithelium is in the oral cavity, pharynx and oesophagus?

A

stratified squamous

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3
Q

what is an advantage of having stratified squamous epithelium at the start of the GIT?

A

no blood loss after repeated trauma

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4
Q

what are the 3 parts of the small intestine?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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5
Q

what are the parts of the large intestine?

A

caecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
rectum
anus

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6
Q

what is the motility in the mouth?

A

chewing and swallowing - breakdown food then swallow

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7
Q

what is the motility in the stomach?

A

churning - mix of food and fluid with acid, bicarbonate and enzymes

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8
Q

what is the product of churning in the stomach?

A

chyme

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9
Q

what is the motility in the intestines called and what aids it?

A

peristalsis - muscular contration

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10
Q

what is the motility at the very end of the GIT?

A

defection/ mass movements

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11
Q

what are the 4 epithelial layers in the GIT?

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis propria
serosa/ adventitia

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12
Q

what is the parts of the mucosa layer of the git?

A

epithelium
lamina propria
muscular mucosae

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13
Q

what is the function of the mucosa layer in the GIT?

A

lines surfaces of organs and cavities

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14
Q

in the mucosa layer of the GIT what does the lamina propria do?

A

has inflammatory cells
provides nutrients and support

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15
Q

in the mucosa layer of the GIT what type of tissue is the lamina propria?

A

loose thin connective tissue

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16
Q

in the mucosa layer of the GIT what type of tissue is the muscular mucosae?

A

smooth muscle tissue

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17
Q

what comes on the outside of the muscular mucosae of the mucosa layer of the GIT?

A

submucosa

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18
Q

what type of tissue is the sub mucosa?

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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19
Q

what vessels does the submucosa contain?

A

blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels

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20
Q

what are the 2 layers of the muscular propria?

A

outer = longitudinal layer
inner = circular layer

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21
Q

what is the function of the muscular propria and what feature helps with this?

A

it is thick for peristalsis (movement of food)

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22
Q

where is the adventitia found?

A

oral cavity
upper oesophagus
thorax
ascending colon
descending colon
rectum

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23
Q

what type of epithelium is the serosa and where is it found?

A

fixed tissue - 2 layers of simple squamous
rest of GIT that adventitia isn’t foudn

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24
Q

what is the function of digestive tract organs?

A

aid digestion and absorption

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25
Q

what are 4 accessory organs in the GIT?

A

gall bladder
liver
pancreas
salivary glands

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26
Q

what is the function of the gall bladder?

A

store and concentrate bile that was produced in the liver
- aids fat digestion

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27
Q

what is the function of the salivary glands?

A

buffer the pH in the mouth
protect surfaces of the oral cavity

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28
Q

what are the minor salivary glands and what secretions do they produce?

A

lingual = mucous
buccal = serous
palatal = serous
labial = serous
- glossopalatine = serous

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29
Q

what are the 3 major salivary glands and their secretions?

A

parotid - serous
submandibular - mixed
sublingual - mucous

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30
Q

why does the GIT have a function of secretion?

A

to ensure food and fluid moves smoothly over the epithelial surfaces

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31
Q

what is secreted in the small intestine and large intestine?

A

enzymes SI
mucous LI

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32
Q

how does the GIT digest food mechanically?

A

contraction of smooth muscle to move food along

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33
Q

how does the GIT digest food chemically?

A

breaks food down into smaller particles by amylase, hydrochloric acid and enzymes

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34
Q

is more fluid and nutrients absorbed in the small or large intestine?

A

small intestine absorbs more

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35
Q

how much does the small intestine absorb?

A

7500ml

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36
Q

what is excreted from the GIT?

A

indigestible produces that can’t be absorbed

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37
Q

what is the anterior boundary of the mouth?

A

lip

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38
Q

what are the lateral boundaries of the mouth?

A

cheek

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39
Q

what are the inferior boundaries of the mouth?

A

mylohyoid and tongue

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40
Q

what is the superior boundaries of the mouth?

A

hard palate
soft palate

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41
Q

what is the posterior boundaries if the GIT?

A

fauces (pillars)

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42
Q

what’s part of the exocrine secretions from the major salivary glands?

A

salt
water
mucous
amylase

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43
Q

what role does the buccinator play in eating?

A

puffs out jaw to keep the food in the centre

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44
Q

what role do the facial muscles play in movement of the mouth?

A

they move the mouth but not for chewing

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45
Q

what are the obicularis orisis muscles found ?

A

in the lip

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46
Q

how does the mouth detect pain?

A

nociception

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47
Q

describe the movement going from the oesophagus to the anal canal?

A

smooth muscle so involuntary with no control

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48
Q

how does the mouth detect changes in temperature?

A

thermoreception

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49
Q

how does the mouth sense movement?

A

mechanoreceptors

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50
Q

what are the motor functions of the mouth?

A
  • transport breakdown and swallowing of food
  • communicate via speak and facial expression
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51
Q

what is the 3 functions of salivation in the mouth?

A

protect mouth
lubricate epithelium
aids digestion

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52
Q

what lymphoid tissue is in the mouth and what is its function?

A

tonsils - inflammatory tissue first line of defence

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53
Q

what are reflexes in the mouth and what is the purpose of them?

A

gag, swallow, vomit
- prevent harm going any further

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54
Q

what are plica fimbriata?

A

folds under the tongue

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55
Q

what is the function go the lingual veins?

A

drain the floor of the mouth

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56
Q

what holds the tongue in place?

A

lingual frenulum

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57
Q

what happens if the lingual frenulum is too short?

A

tongue tied
- trouble with speak, eating and swallowing

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58
Q

what are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A

oropharynx
nasopharynx
laryngopharynx

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59
Q

where does the pharynx start and end?

A

base of skull to oesophagus (C6)

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60
Q

what are the 2 functions of the pharynx?

A
  • transport air
  • muscles direct food to the oesophagus
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61
Q

what is the function of the nasopharynx?

A
  • respiratory communication between the mouth and nose
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62
Q

what is the function of the oropharynx?

A

respiratory and digestion

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63
Q

what is the 2 parts of the laryngopharynx and what do they include?

A

superior = epiglottis
inferior = laryngeal cartilage forms ring

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64
Q

what is the epiglottis?

A

elastic cartilage that helps to close off the trachea during swallowing

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65
Q

where is the inferior laryngopharynx found?

A

below the thyroid cartilage
at the level of the cricoid cartilage

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66
Q

where is the piriform fossa found?

A

lies on either side of the laryngeal opening

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67
Q

what does the piriform fossa do?

A

involved in speech
- things often become trapped in it

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68
Q

what happens if the uvula isn’t working?

A

the soft palate may allow passage of fluid into the nasal cavity

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69
Q

what is the superior and inferior oropharynx?

A

superior = soft palate
inferior = base of tongue (epiglottis)

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70
Q

what does the nasocriminal duct allow?

A

communication between the eyes and nose

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71
Q

where are the tubal tonsils found?

A

roof of the nasopharynx = around the auditory tube

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72
Q

what do the tubal tonsils do?

A

equalise air between the inner and middle ear

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73
Q

what tonsils get taken out during tonsillitis?

A

pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)

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74
Q

what structures stop dirt from entering the nose and mouth?

A

nasal hairs and uvula

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75
Q

what is the uvula?

A

part of soft palate that rises during swallowing

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76
Q

what does the uvula prevent?

A

prevents food and fluid entering nasal cavity

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77
Q

what do the palatoglossal arches do?

A

joins palate to tongue

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78
Q

what do palatopharyngeal arches do?

A

joins the palate to what’s below it

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79
Q

what are the 4 types of tonsils and where are they found?

A

pharyngeal tonsils - roof of nasopharynx
tubal tonsils - roof of nasopharynx
palatine tonsils - in oropharynx
lingual tonsils - posterior 1/3 of tongue

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80
Q

where in the body are the 2 layers of the muscularis propria switched to inner longitudinal and outer circular?

A

pharyngeal constrictors

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81
Q

what is the motor nerve supply to the pharynx?

A

vagus X

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82
Q

what is the sensory nerve supply to the pharynx?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (pharyngeal plexus)

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83
Q

where do all pharyngeal constrictors join?

A

median raphe

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84
Q

what nerve innervates the pharyngeal constrictors?

A

vagus

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85
Q

where does the superior pharyngeal constrictor run?

A

mylohyoid to roof of mouth

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86
Q

where does middle pharyngeal constrictor run?

A

to hyoid bone but not joined to it

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87
Q

where does the inferior pharyngeal constrictor run?

A

runs to largest laryngeal cartilage (thyroid cartilage)

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88
Q

which pharyngeal constrictor are the vocal folds attached to?

A

inferior

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89
Q

where does the oesophagus run?

A

from pharynx to stomach

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90
Q

what does the oesophagus lie in?

A

neck
thorax
abdomen

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91
Q

what is the oesophagus posterior to?

A

trachea and the heart

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92
Q

what are the oesophageal spincters and their function?

A

muscular rings around either end to close when food is not being swalled

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93
Q

what are the oesophageal spincters and their function?

A

muscular rings around either end to close when food is not being swallowed

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94
Q

what organ pierces the diaphragm?

A

oesophagus

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95
Q

where is the lower oesophageal spinster found?

A

between oesophagus and stomach

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96
Q

what would dysfunction of the lower oesophageal spinster lead to?

A

cancer
GORD
dysplasia

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97
Q

how is the upper oesophageal spinster influenced?

A

swallowing reflex

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98
Q

what is the upper oesophageal spinster comprised off?

A

lower fibres of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor and involuntary skeletal muscle

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99
Q

what type if epithelium is in the oesophagus?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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100
Q

what are the muscle layers of the muscularis propria in the oesophagus?

A

circular inner
longitudinal outer

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101
Q

what are the muscle types in the 3 parts of the oesophagus?

A

upper 1/3 = skeletal
middle 1/3 = mixed
lower 1/3 = smooth

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102
Q

where does the oesophagus meet the stomach?

A

gastrooesophageal junction

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103
Q

what does the lower oesophageal spinster do at the start of the stomach?

A

regulates food passing into the stomach
prevents the contents of the stomach going back up

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104
Q

what are the 2 roles of swallowing?

A

feed the stomach
prevent food entering airway

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105
Q

what is the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

oro to laryngopharynx
- soft palate raises
- depression of epiglottis
- contract vocal folds (pharyngeal constrictors)
- relax upper oesophageal spincter

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106
Q

what happens at the oesophageal phase of swallowing? is it voluntary?

A

pharyngeal constrictors contract
involuntary

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107
Q

what is the symptoms of dysphagia?

A

difficulty swallowing

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108
Q

what is dysphagia?

A

neuromuscular disease

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109
Q

what happens in dysphagia?

A

sphincter spasm
- tumours grow obstructing oesophagus about 30-50% before symptoms show

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110
Q

what is tracheooesophageal fistula?

A

abnormal connection between the trachea and the oesophagus

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111
Q

what are the 3 types of tracheooesophageal fistulas?

A

A = most common 90% connection between trachea and oesophagus
B = oesophagus forms in 2 parts, 1 connecting to stomach and other to trachea but dont meet
C = associated with other birth defects, fluid passing to oesophagus goes straight to trachea

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112
Q

what is Barretts oesophagus?

A

metaplasia where stratified squamous epithelium in the oesophagus changes to columnar epithelium

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113
Q

what is GORD?

A

when stomach acid passes up into the oesophagus

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114
Q

what is chrons disease?

A

inflammation of lining of GIT and granulomas form

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115
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Inflammation if the colon and rectum only

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116
Q

What happens in ulcerative colitis?

A

Ulcers break the epithelium leading to diahorrea and pain

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117
Q

What does Barrett’s oesophagus increase the risk of?

A

Dysplasia then cancer

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118
Q

What causes Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Reflux of stomach acid

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119
Q

What is the epithelium change at the gastro-oesophageal junction?

A

Stratified squamous to simple columnar

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120
Q

In small intestine by how much do microvilli increase SA?

A

30x

121
Q

What does mucous secreted in LI do?

A

Protects the epithelia
Absorbs vitamins

122
Q

In a H&E stained cell what colours would be present?

A

Nucleus stained blue
Cytoplasm and extracellular matrix pink

123
Q

What is the broad function of each part of SI?

A

Duodenum = digestion
Jejunum = both
Ileum= absorption

124
Q

What happens in coeliac disease?

A

Immune system attacks own tissue when eating gluten

125
Q

What happens to villi in chrome disease? What does this cause?

A

Villus atrophy
Decreased SA
decreased absorption

126
Q

What happens if crypts in the SI become hyper plastic?

A

They stretch apart
Decreased absorption and digestion

127
Q

What is sialolithiasis and where is it most common?

A

Salivary gland stones
Submandibular gland

128
Q

What is sialoadentitis?

A

Inflammation if the salivary glands

129
Q

What does the nasocriminal duct carry and where?

A

Tears from lacriminal sac to nasal cavity

130
Q

What would allow potential communication between the mouth and nose?

A

Dysfunction of the soft palate and uvula

131
Q

Where are the tubal tonsils found (roof of nasopharynx?

A

Around estachian tube

132
Q

What is the estachian tube responsible for?

A

Communication between the middle and external ear

133
Q

What makes up the pharyngeal plexus?

A

Vagus nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve

134
Q

How would you tell if there was dysfunction of the pharyngeal plexus?

A

Ask patient to say Arghh and if the uvula moves to one side then there’s problem

135
Q

What do paranasal sinuses do?

A

Lighten the skull

136
Q

What is the piriform fossa involved in?

A

Speach

137
Q

What bone is fractured during strangulation?

A

Hyoid

138
Q

What is the general nerve supply to the pharynx?

A

Pharyngeal plexus

139
Q

What is Otis media?

A

Middle ear infection

140
Q

What muscle type is the upper oesophageal spincter?

A

Skeletal

141
Q

What makes the lower oesophageal spincter act as a spincter?

A

Enters stomach at angle

142
Q

What are the muscle types in the muscularis mucosae of the oesophagus?

A

Upper 1/3 skeletal
Middle 1/3 mixed
Loved 1/3 smooth

143
Q

What happens in the oral phase of deglutition?

A

Food moves posteriorly
Liquid stays in mouth infront of pillars

144
Q

What happens in the pharyngeal stage of deglutition?

A

Soft palate rises
Depression of epiglottis
Vocal cords (pharyngeal constrictors) contract
Upper oesophageal spincter relaxes

145
Q

What happens in the oesophageal phase of deglutition?

A

Involuntary contraction of oesophageal spincters
Peristalsis moves bolus
Lower oesophageal spincter relaxes
Bolus moves to stomach

146
Q

What is the abdomen wall?

A

Multilayered musculoaponeurotic wall w adipose tissue

147
Q

Where does the greater omentum attach?

A

Greater curvature of stomach

148
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomiting with no bile

149
Q

Why is there no bile produced in pyloric stenosis?

A

As it affects the pyloric spincter before the duodenum

150
Q

What are Rugae?

A

Folds in stomach that increase surface area

151
Q

Which layer of stomach helps with contraction for churning of chyme?

A

Muscularis propria

152
Q

What is the exception to limited absorption in the stomach?

A

Alcohol

153
Q

What secretions happen in gastric pits in stomach?

A

Endocrine cells produce gastin
Which causes parietal cells to produce HCL
which breaks down pepsinogen from chief cells to pepsin

154
Q

As you descend into gastric pits which secretory cells would you find?

A

Top
Mucous secreting cells
Parietal cells
Chief cells
Endocrine cells

155
Q

Where does the left gastric artery supply?

A

Lesser curvature of stomach

156
Q

What are the 2 branches of the hepatic artery that supply the stomach?

A

Right gastric
Right gastroomental (gastroepiploic)

157
Q

What does the right gastric artery supply?

A

Lesser curvature of stomach

158
Q

What does the right gastric artery anastomose with in the lesser curvature of stomach?

A

Left gastric artery

159
Q

What does the right gastroomental (gastroepiploic) artery supply?

A

Greater curvature of stomach

160
Q

What are the 2 branches of the splenic artery that supply the stomach?

A

Left gastroomental (gastroepiploic)
Short gastric

161
Q

Where does the left gastroomental (gastroepiploic) artery supply?

A

Greater curvature

162
Q

Where does the short gastric artery supply?

A

Greater curvature

163
Q

What are the 3 branches of the coeliac trunk?

A

Splenic artery
Common hepatic artery
Left gastric

164
Q

At which vertebrae does the coeliac trunk leave abdominal aorta?

A

T12

165
Q

At which vertebrae does the superior mesenteric artery leave the abdominal aorta?

A

L1

166
Q

At which vertebrae does the inferior mesenteric artery leave the abdominal aorta?

A

L3

167
Q

What are the 3 branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the abdominal organs?

A

Coeliac trunk
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric

168
Q

What drains from stomach to portal veins?

A

Left and right gastric arteries

169
Q

What do the short gastric and left gastroepiploic veins drain into?

A

Splenic then superior mesenteric vein

170
Q

Where does the right gastroepiploic vein drain?

A

Superior mesenteric

171
Q

What are the layers of the peritoneum?

A

Mesothelium = serous membrane 2 layers
- parietal peritoneum
- visceral peritoneum

172
Q

Which layer of the peritoneum is sensitive to pressure pain and temp?

A

Parietal peritoneum

173
Q

What is pain in the visceral peritoneum called and why?

A

Dermatomes
Because it’s areas of skin supplied by 1 spinal nerve

174
Q

What does intraperitoneal mean?

A

Inside the visceral peritoneum

175
Q

What is the mesentery?

A

Double layer of visceral peritoneum

176
Q

What does the mesentery do?

A

Connects structures to the posterior abdominal wall

177
Q

What is the omentum?

A

Sheets of visceral peritoneum that extend from stomach and duodenum to abdominal organs

178
Q

Where are brunners glands found?

A

Duodenum

179
Q

What do brunners glands secrete?

A

Alkaline to protect from acidity of chyme

180
Q

Where are brunners glands found in duodenum?

A

Above spincter of oddi

181
Q

What is the spincter of oddi?

A

Valve at exit if bile duct and pancreatic duct that controls flow of bile and pancreatic juices

182
Q

What controls the flow of bike and pancreatic secretions to the duodenum?

A

Spincter of oddi

183
Q

Where is the major duodenal papilla?

A

Beginning of common bile and pancreatic ducts

184
Q

What does the spincter of oddi surround?

A

Major duodenal papilla

185
Q

What % of people have minor duodenal papilla?

A

10

186
Q

If present where is the minor duodenal papilla?

A

Opening of accessory pancreatic duct

187
Q

Where is CCK secreted ?

A

Duodenum

188
Q

What does CCK do in SI? General

A

AIDS fat and protein digestion

189
Q

How does CCK aid fat digestion in SI?

A

Relaxes spincter of oddi
to Releases pancreatic enzymes and bile
Concentrates the gallbladder

190
Q

What is the arterial blood supply to SI before the major duodenal papilla?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

191
Q

What is the arterial blood supply to the SI after the major duodenal papilla?

A

Superior mesenteric artery
And it’s branch
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

192
Q

What is the venous drainage of the SI?

A

Splenic or superior mesenteric vein to the portal vein

193
Q

What are the 4 parts of duodenum?

A

Ascending inferior descending superior

194
Q

Where is a duodenal ulcer most common?

A

Posterior wall of the superior part of duodenum

195
Q

How is pain relieved and worsened in duodenal ulcers?

A

Worse at night
Better when eating

196
Q

What is the rule surrounding meckels diverticulum?

A

Rule of 2
If symptomatic they show before 2
2 feet from ileocaecal valve
2% of population
2 inches ling

197
Q

describe the structure of the jejunum?
(intestinal wall, vasa recta, arcades)

A

thick intestinal wall
long vasa recta
less arcades

198
Q

describe the structure of the ileum?
(intestinal wall, vasa recta, arcades)

A

thin intestinal wall
short vasa recta
more arcades

199
Q

what happens at the ileocaecal junction?

A

vitB 12 and bile acid absorption

200
Q

where are enterocytes found in the SI?

A

on the mucosa layer

201
Q

what is the submucous plexus? (meissners)

A

sensory innervation from PNS

202
Q

what is the myenteric plexus? (auchbachs)

A

motor innervation from PNS and SNS

203
Q

where is the meissners (submucosal plexus) found?

A

between the submucosa and the inner circular layer of muscular externa in SI

204
Q

where is the meinteric (auchbachs) plexus found?

A

between the inner circular and outer longitudinal layers of the muscular externa in SI

205
Q

what is a lacteal and what does it store?

A

lymphatic vessel that stores fat

206
Q

what are enterocytes epithelium and function?

A

columnar epithelium with absorption function

207
Q

what are plicae circularis?

A

permanent circular folds in the latter duodenum and upper jejunum that increase the surface area

208
Q

what increases surface area in the small intestine?

A

microvilli and plicae circularis

209
Q

what are the 6 parts if the large intestine?

A

caecum
ascending
transverse
descending
sigmoid
rectum

210
Q

what does the ileocaecal valve prevent?

A

prevents back flow of LI contents to the SI during peristalsis

211
Q

what does the caecum do?

A

receives chyme and stores it

212
Q

which parts of the LI are retroperitoneal?

A

ascending and descending colon

213
Q

what parts of the LI are intraperitoneal?

A

transverse

214
Q

what is the general function of the colon?

A

absorb fluid and electrolytes from chyme

215
Q

what is the least fixed part of the colon?

A

transvrse

216
Q

where does the sigmoid colon run?

A

left ileac fossa to the S3 vertebrae

217
Q

what is the right colonic flexure? what is it between?

A

hepatic flexture
between ascending and transverse

218
Q

what is the left colonic flexure? what is it between?

A

splenic flexture
between transverse and descending

219
Q

what are Taenia coli and where are they found?

A

3 layers of longitudinal muscle on outside of A T D colon

220
Q

what are haustra?

A

small pouches that give LI its bubbly appearance

221
Q

what are appendices epiploicae? where are they found?

A

pouches in the peritoneal filled with fat
- on the T and S colon

222
Q

what is the function of the rectum?

A

temporarily store faeces

223
Q

what does the rectum not contain? 3

A

taenia coli, haustra, appendices epiploicae

224
Q

what is the function of rectal valves?

A

support the weight of faeces

225
Q

what is the internal haemorrhoidal plexus?

A

network of veins in the rectum that communicate portal to systemic venous system

226
Q

why are drugs taken rectally more fast asking?

A

as they bypass metabolism by the internal hemorrhoidal plexus

227
Q

what happens when the rectum is distended if daeficating is not the desired outcome?

A

rectospincteric relex initiated
internal anal spincter relaxed
voluntary contraction of the external anal spincter

228
Q

what happens when the rectum is distended if daeficating is the desired outcome?

A

rectospincteric relex initiated
internal anal spincter relaxed
external anal spincter relaxed
contact the abdominal walls
relaxation of the pelvic wall muscles
peristaltic waves
faeces moves through the anal canal

229
Q

what controls the internal anal spincter?

A

parasympathetic nerves

230
Q

what controls the external anal spincter?

A

somatic nerves S2, 3 and 4

231
Q

where is the vermiform appendix?

A

worm like structure that leads off of the caecum

232
Q

what are 3 differences between the SI and LI?
(villi, longitudinal muscle, circular muscle)

A

LI hasn’t got villi
Li has incomplete layer of longitudinal muscle = Taenia coli
LI has ring like arrangement of circular muscle = haustra

233
Q

what are 3 similarities between SI and Li?
structure

A

simple columnar epithelium wit goblet cells
intestinal crypts of leiberkuhn
mucosal glands for mucous

234
Q

in the intestinal crypts of leiberkuhn what are the crypts and villi covered in?

A

goblet cells that secrete mucous
enterocytes that secrete water and electrolytes

235
Q

what part of the LI is exztraperitoneal?

A

rectoanal junction

236
Q

where is faeces contained until daefication?

A

rectoanal junction

237
Q

what are the 4 zones of the rectoanal junction ? and what type of epithelium in each?

A

colorectal = simple columnar
transitional zone = simple columnar and stratified squamous
anoderm = stratified squamous non keratinised
cutaneous = stratified squamous keratinised

238
Q

what is the blood supply and drainage to the rectum?

A

superior and inferior rectal arteries and veins

239
Q

what is the role of Li bacterial flora? 3

A
  • ferment dietary fibre and lipids
  • gases produced ‘flatus’
  • synthesise vitmanins
240
Q

how does the squeezing action on chyme happen in the LI?

A

contraction of inner circular muscle

241
Q

what is the function of peristalsis?

A

propel semisolid faecal matter to the rectum

242
Q

what controls the gastocolonic reflex?

A

after meals

243
Q

what is daefication?

A

ejection of faecal matter from the rectum via the anal canal

244
Q

what type of muscle is the rectum?

A

smooth muscle

245
Q

what type of muscle is the internal anal spincter?

A

smooth muscle

246
Q

what type of muscle is the external anal spincter?

A

striated skeletal muscle

247
Q

what is an ileostomy?

A

small bowel diverted through an opening on the RHS

248
Q

what is a colostomy?

A

large bowel diverted through opening on LHS

249
Q

what type of faecal matter are you likely to find in a colostomy bag and an ileostomy bag?

A

colostomy = harder faecal matter
ileostomy = softer faecal matter

250
Q

what causes diaeorrea?

A

GIT infection causing a failure in fluid absorption

251
Q

what does diaeorrea lead to?

A

dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

252
Q

what is the characteristic of diaeorrea?

A

3 or more loose stools a day

253
Q

what is the characteristic of constipation?

A

3 or less stools a week that are difficult to pass

254
Q

what causes constipation?

A

GIT spasm causing an increase in fluid absorption

255
Q

what external factor can cause constipation?

A

drugs such as opioids

256
Q

what are the 2 purposes of the pancreas gland?

A

exocrine digestive 99%
endocrine hormonal 1%

257
Q

what are the 5 parts of the pancreas?

A

head
uncinate process
neck
body
tail

258
Q

what is secreted in the endocrine portion of the pancreas?

A

islets of langerhans
hormones

259
Q

what is secreted in the exocrine portion of the pancreas?

A

digestive enzymes and bicarbonate

260
Q

what does amylase secreted in the pancreas do?

A

breaksdown starch to sugar

261
Q

what does lipase secreted in the pancreas do?

A

breakdown fat to monoglycerides and fatty acids

262
Q

what does trypsin secreted in the pancreas do?

A

secreted as trypsinogen to breakdown or hydrolyse protein

263
Q

name the 3 islets of langerhans cells and what they secrete?

A

alpha - glycogen
beta - insulin
delta - somatostatin

264
Q

in the exocrine pancreas what are acini linked by?

A

intercalated ducts

265
Q

what do intercalated ducts in exocrine pancreas link to and what does this drain to?

A

intralobular ducts drain to pancreatic duct

266
Q

what are centroacinar cells?what do they secrete?

A

extensions of intercalated ducts into pancreatic duct that secrete mucin and bicarbonate

267
Q

what happens in cystic fibrosis? what does this cause?

A

abnormally thick secretions that decrease digestion and lead to malabsorption

268
Q

what does malabsorption in cystic fibrosis lead to?

A

steatorrhea which is fatty stools

269
Q

what can lead to pancreatic cancer?

A

billary obstruction and early metastasis

270
Q

what are 5 functions of the liver?

A

metabolism (stores glycogen and releases glucose)
protein synthesis
inactivates frugs and hormones
excretes waste
produces bile

271
Q

what are the 4 lobes of the liver?

A

left
right
quadrate and caudate

272
Q

what is ductus venosus?

A

directs blood to the foetus

273
Q

what is the falciform ligament?

A

embryological remnant of ventral mesentary

274
Q

what does the falciform ligament do?

A

attaches intestines to posterior abdominal wall

275
Q

what is the round ligament?

A

remnant of the umbilical vein

276
Q

what ligament is sometimes continuous with the ductus venosus?

A

round ligament

277
Q

what is the arterial blood supply % to the liver?

A

75% hepatic portal vein
25% hepatic artery

278
Q

what makes up the common hepatic duct? what do they do?

A

left and right hepatic ducts that carry bile to gallbladder

279
Q

what do intrahepatic ducts unite to form?

A

left and right extra hepatic ducts then the common hepatic duct

280
Q

where do sinusoids drain?

A

to hepatic portal vein then inferior vena cava

281
Q

what makes up the hepatic portal vein?

A

splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein

282
Q

where are kupffer cells?

A

in sinusoids in the liver

283
Q

what is the function of kupffer cells?

A

clear blood waste

284
Q

where is bile produced?

A

hepatocytes in liver

285
Q

after liver what passes bile to gallbladder?

A

bile canaliculi

286
Q

what does bile contain?

A

lipid emulsifiers (bile salts)
waste products including bile pigments

287
Q

what do lipid emulsifiers from bile useful for?

A

helps fat absorption and cholesterol

288
Q

what gives urine and faeces its colour?

A

RBCs metabolised to bilirubin

289
Q

how does bile get from bile canaliculi to duodenum?

A

hepatic bile duct then common hepatic duct

290
Q

what is each lobe of the liver made from?

A

lobules (hexagon)

291
Q

how does the liver help red blood cells?

A

stores and metabolises iron used by RBCs for transporting O2 via haemoglobin

292
Q

what is hepatomegaly? what does it indicate and what symptoms present?

A

enlarged liver
liver/ cardiac problems or cancer
(jaundice, vomiting, nausea, fatigue, pain)

293
Q

what is cirrhosis?

A

scarring or fibrosis of liver

294
Q

what causes cirrhosis?

A

inflammation due to eg alcoholism or hepatitis

295
Q

what is hepatic carcinoma?

A

liver cancer

296
Q

what effect does the SNS have on heart rate, breathing and gut motility?

A

decreases HR
decreases breathing
increases gut motility

297
Q

what effect does the PNS have on heart rate, breathing and gut motility?

A

increases HR
increases breathing
decreases gut motility

298
Q

where in GIT are hormones most active?

A

stomach