Radio Aids and Flight Planning 1

Question 1

The slaved gyro magnetic compass (gyrosyn) minimizes the oscillation and turning errors associated with P-type magnetic compasses through the utilization of a:

A) Magnetic compensator assembly.
B) Stabilized gyro to keep the flux valve in a horizontal position.
C) Directional gyro unit slaved to a remote compass transmitter.
D) Remote “sensing unit” equipped with a torque levelling actuator.

Answer 1

C) Directional gyro unit slaved to a remote compass transmitter.

Question 2

Frequency is:

A) A measure of the waves strength and decreases with distance from the transmitter.
B) The number of cycles per second.
C) The period of time to complete a full wave.
D) The number of waves per meter.

Answer 2

B) The number of cycles per second.

Question 3

The distance between the transmitting antenna and the point where the sky wave first returns to the surface of the earth is called the_____.

A) Skip Zone.
B) Skip wave Distance.
C) Skip Distance.
D) L/F Radio Wave Propagation Distance.

Answer 3

C) Skip Distance.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is true with reference to propagation of radio ground waves?

A) Reception of ground wave signals can only be accomplished at varying distances from the transmitter.
B) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation decreases to provide greater reception distance.
C) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation increases to provide less reception distance.
D) The distance from where the ground wave can no longer be received is dependent on the height and distance of the ionosphere, time of day, season and latitude

Answer 4

C) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation increases to provide less reception distance.

Question 5

When navigating by use of the ADF, pilots should be aware that coastal refraction error is most pronounced when the radio beam being received by the aircraft from the inland NDB crosses the shoreline at an angle of:

A) 90 degrees.
B) 60-90 degrees.
C) 30-60 degrees.
D) less than 30 degrees.

Answer 5

D) less than 30 degrees.

Question 6

How can a pilot determine if the ADF is still in reception range of the tuned NBD?

A) Check for the OFF flag, which will appear if the aircraft is out of range.
B) The ADF pointer will always point towards north once it is out of range.
C) Listen to the morse code ident for the tuned NDB to ensure positive tracking.
D) The ADF pointer will begin to spin if it out of range.

Answer 6

C) Listen to the morse code ident for the tuned NDB to ensure positive tracking.

Question 7

A pilot is flying IFR within controlled airspace. The aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers, Two DME’s and one ADF. The ADF malfunctions and is rendered unserviceable. The pilot should:

A) Depart controlled airspace.
B) Advise ATS of the failure immediately.
C) Request a change of flight plan to VFR.
D) Squawk 7600 on the transponder.

Answer 7

B) Advise ATS of the failure immediately.

Question 8

How do the operating limitations differ between an NDB and a VOR?

A) Use of a VOR is limited by line of sight, while use of an NDB is limited by signal attenuation.
B) Use of both VORs and NDBs is limited by line of sight.
C) Use of a VOR is limited by signal attenuation, while use of an NDB is limited by line of sight.
D) Use of both VORs and NDBs is limited by signal attenuation.

Answer 8

A) Use of a VOR is limited by line of sight, while use of an NDB is limited by signal attenuation.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the VOR is correct?

A) It depends upon a simultaneous comparison of several phased signals.
B) It depends upon a time difference between signals transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station.
C) It depends upon a phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a ground station.
D) It measures the frequency difference between two signals received from a ground station transmitter.

Answer 9

C) It depends upon a phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a ground station.

Question 10

What is the minimum reception distance and height for a VOR signal assuming no terrain interference?

A) 100NM at 7000 ft.
B) 60NM at 3000 ft.
C) 80NM at 3000 ft.
D) 40NM at 1000 ft.

Answer 10

D) 40NM at 1000 ft.

Question 11

When flying an aircraft equipped with dual VOR receivers, you may check the accuracy of the sets against each other on the ground or in the air. Which of the following tolerances are correct?

A) +/- 3 degrees ground, +/- 4 degrees air.
B) +/- 4 degrees ground, +/- 4 degrees air.
C) +/- 4 degrees ground, +/- 6 degrees air.
D) +/- 3 degrees ground, +/- 6 degrees air.

Answer 11

B) +/- 4 degrees ground, +/- 4 degrees air.

Question 12

You are passing abeam a VOR station and you note the CDI is fully deflected, and there is no TO/FROM indication. The reason for this indication is:

A) That the TO/FROM indicator is unserviceable.
B) That the VOR station is of the doppler type and does not provide valid TO/FROM indications unless the aircraft is actually established on the radial selected.
C) The aircraft is crossing a radial at 90 degrees to the one selected on the OBS.
D) That the aircraft VOR set is receiving erroneous signals that have been reflected from the ground or from a nearby object.

Answer 12

C) The aircraft is crossing a radial at 90 degrees to the one selected on the OBS.

Question 13

Which of the following is true with reference to a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?

A) The RMI bearing indicators always points to the navigation facility and therefore can display magnetic bearing to ADF, VOR of localizer transmitters.
B) The VOR/RMI needle head always displays the radial that the aircraft is tracking.
C) If the RMI compass card fails the ADF/RMI will function as a fixed card ADF, but the VOR/RMI will continue to function normally.
D) The RMI is an instrument which can provide heading and magnetic bearing information to LF/MF and VHF omnidirectional range facilities.

Answer 13

D) The RMI is an instrument which can provide heading and magnetic bearing information to LF/MF and VHF omnidirectional range facilities.

Question 14

Identify from the statements which follow, the one that correctly describes the operating principle of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME):

A) The measurement of time between the transmission of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ground station (The 2 signals having different frequencies).
B) Pulse width measurement of coded signals that are transmitted every 37.5 seconds from a DME station.
C) Measurement of the time that elapses between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from a particular DME station.
D) The airborne set measures the exact phase of the DME stations interrogation signal, the value of which undergoes electronic translation into a DME slant range readout

Answer 14

A) The measurement of time between the transmission of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ground station (The 2 signals having different frequencies).

Question 15

An ILS localizer provides valid and reliable signal coverage of_____degrees either side of the front course out to a distance of 10NM.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 35
D) 3-6

Answer 15

C) 35

Question 16

An ILS localizer signal is considered to be reliable to approximately 10 degree splay between_____ and _____.

A) 0 and 10NM.
B) 17 and 35NM.
C) 10 and 18NM.
D) 10 and 35NM.

Answer 16

C) 10 and 18NM.

Question 17

The CDI Needle indications from centre to “Full scale” for VOR and ILS/LOC are respectively:

A) 12 degrees and 3 degrees.
B) 10 degrees and 2.5 degrees.
C) 4.0 NM per side and 35 degrees.
D) There is no minimum tolerance.

Answer 17

B) 10 degrees and 2.5 degrees.

Question 18

What is the total depth of an ILS glide path beam?

A) 0.7 degrees.
B) 1.4 degrees.
C) 0.5 degrees.
D) 2.5 degrees.

Answer 18

B) 1.4 degrees.

Question 19

Which of the following statements is true with reference to Single Sideband (SSB) HF radios?

A) SSB radios incorporate a sideband carrier wave circuit which is used to obtain better reception of unmodulated AM carrier wave transmissions.
B) SSB radios having long range, high quality and good propagation qualities, provide HF datalink capability.
C) SSB transmitters utilize high frequency ground wave signals which are least affected by attenuation and bending due to diffraction and allow for ranges of several thousand miles,.
D) SSB transmitters eliminate one sideband and all or most of the carrier wave in order to increase transmission power; the carrier is reinserted by the receiver to reproduce the original message.

Answer 19

D) SSB transmitters eliminate one sideband and all or most of the carrier wave in order to increase transmission power; the carrier is reinserted by the receiver to reproduce the original message.

Question 20

Is it possible to increase the reception range on an HF radio by changing frequencies?

A) No, it will have the same range on all frequencies.
B) Yes, by using higher frequencies at Night and lower frequencies during the Day.
C) Yes, by using lower frequencies at night, and higher frequencies during the day.
D) Yes, higher frequencies have a higher reception range.

Answer 20

C) Yes, by using lower frequencies at night, and higher frequencies during the day.

Question 21

SELCAL operates with a single selective call consisting of a combination of four preselected audio tones requiring approximately two seconds transmission time. The tones are generated:

A) In a ground station coder and are received by a decoder in the airborne receiver.
B) In the airborne transmitter and are received by the ground station decoder.
C) In one airborne transmitter and are received by a paired airborne receiver in another aircraft.
D) In the ground station coder and are transmitted on all co-located navigation aid frequencies.

Answer 21

A) In a ground station coder and are received by a decoder in the airborne receiver.

Question 22

Which of the following statements is false with respect to HF radio operation in North Atlantic Airspace (NAT)?

A) Fully functioning HF communication equipment is a requirement for unrestrictive operations.
B) On first voice contact with Oceanic Communication Centres (OCCs), flight crews are required to request a SELCAL check with OCCs to verify the operation of the SELCAL equipment.
C) When utilizing CPDLC and SATCOM for routine air/ground ATS communications, HF/SELCAL communications is not required.
D) Then tuning a HF frequency, a long sidetone tuning cycle could indicate a faulty HF radio.

Answer 22

C) When utilizing CPDLC and SATCOM for routine air/ground ATS communications, HF/SELCAL communications is not required.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the principle of operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)?

A) It depends upon a phase difference between two independently mounted gyroscopic platforms.
B) It requires external references in order to determine aircraft position and velocity.
C) It must utilize a radial and DME distance to determine its initial geographic position.
D) It measures acceleration against time to determine speed and position.

Answer 23

D) It measures acceleration against time to determine speed and position.

Question 24

An INS system is capable of providing:

1) Steering information to the autopilot.
2) Ground proximity sensing.
3) Runway alignment and glideslope information for precision approaches.
4) Aircraft attitude information for flight instruments.
5) Antenna stabilization for airborne weather radar.
6) Yaw dampening information to the autopilot.
7) Horizontal navigation data.
8) Control surface actuation.

A) 1, 2, 4, 7.
B) 1, 4, 5, 7.
C) 2, 4, 5, 7.
D) 2, 5, 6, 8.

Answer 24

B) 1, 4, 5, 7.

Question 25

Select a true statement with reference to an Inertial Navigation System (INS).

A) It utilizes highly stable cesium frequency transmission which are synchronized with up to eight ground stations to provide an accurate position fix.
B) It is a completely self contained unit which can provide accurate measurement of aircraft position by comparing transmitted and received radio beams utilizing doppler shift measurements.
C) It utilizes accelerometers, in a gimbal assembly, to sense all vertical and horizontal accelerations to provide position and steering information.
D) It calculates the elapsed time between the aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from the INS transmitter to provide a position readout.

Answer 25

C) It utilizes accelerometers, in a gimbal assembly, to sense all vertical and horizontal accelerations to provide position and steering information.

Question 26

Inertial Reference Systems:

A) Operate using a strap-down system with ring laser gyros which measure rate of rotation.
B) Use GPS to calculate the aircrafts position.
C) Use a gyro-stabilized platform to ensure that readings from the accelerometers are correct.
D) Rely on ground based navigation aids to compute the aircrafts position.

Answer 26

A) Operate using a strap-down system with ring laser gyros which measure rate of rotation.

Question 27

Select the correct statement with regards to IRS/FMS systems:

A) The sensor package and navigation solution are contained in a single unit.
B) INS systems are a more modern version of the IRS/FMS system.
C) The navigation solution is provided by the flight management system which is integrated with the IRS’s.
D) The sensor package uses 4 gyros and 4 accelerometers on a stable platform to calculate the aircrafts position

Answer 27

C) The navigation solution is provided by the flight management system which is integrated with the IRS’s.

Question 28

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the operation of GPS?

A) Position triangulation is provided by measuring distances from satellites by precise timing of radio signals.
B) It measures the phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a satellite.
C) It calculates the elapsed time between the aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from a particular satellite.
D) It computes the exact phase of the satellite radio signal, the value of which undergoes an electronic translation to provide a position readout.

Answer 28

A) Position triangulation is provided by measuring distances from satellites by precise timing of radio signals.

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true with reference to GNSS overlay approaches?

A) GPS overlay approaches may be used for either precision or non-precision type approaches.
B) Ground based navaids may be used in conjunction with GPS to establish way points that are not in the GPS database but depicted on the approach plate.
C) The appropriate Navaid(s) which define the published approach must be operational. The pilot must revert to the traditional means of navigation if there are any discrepancies between GPS and the traditional navaid(s).
D) Pilots are also allowed to fly a GPS overlay approach when the traditional underlying navigation aid is temporarily out of service.

Answer 29

D) Pilots are also allowed to fly a GPS overlay approach when the traditional underlying navigation aid is temporarily out of service.

Question 30

A pilot may take credit for a GPS based approach at an alternate airport when which of the following are met?

A) The destination and Alternate airports only have GNSS approaches, are separated by at least 100NM and one or both airports are not located in Nunavut, or north of 56 degrees N latitude in Quebec and Labrador.
B) Published LNAV minima are the lowest landing limits for which credit may be taken when determining alternate weather minima requirements.
C) For GPS units that do not have FDE (Fault detection and exclusion), the pilot must perform and RAIM prediction as least once before the mid point of the flight to the destination.
D) All of the above.

Answer 30

D) All of the above.