Flight Operations 4 Flashcards
A small executive jet aircraft has a main wheel pressure of 135PSI, and a nosewheel pressure of 45PSI. Which of the following statements about hydroplaning would be correct?
A) The main wheels would hydroplane at a lower speed than the nosewheel.
B) The nosewheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheels.
C) Both the nosewheel and mainwheels will hydroplane at the same speed.
D) The main wheels will only hydroplane in a crosswind situation and the nosewheel will only hydroplane in a turn.
B) The nosewheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheels.
An aircraft that is flying an ILS approach initially in a headwind situation encounters an abrupt wind shear zone which involves a headwind to a calm wind shear. Which of the following represents the power management required to track the 3 degree glide slope at a constant airspeed during the condition given:
A) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power increase as the shear is encountered; then a reduction in power to stabilize on glide slope.
B) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by a further power decrease as the shear zone is encountered; then an increase in power to stabilize on glide slope.
C) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a decrease at the shear zone; then an increase when on glide slope.
D) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by an increase at the shear zone; no further power change required.
A) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power increase as the shear is encountered; then a reduction in power to stabilize on glide slope.
Aircraft are not certified to successfully complete a go-around without ground contact once it has entered the low energy landing regime. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the low energy landing regime?
A) Aircraft flaps and landing gear are in the landing configuration.
B) Airspeed is stable at VREF+ wind additive.
C) Aircraft height is at 50 ft or less above the runway elevation.
D) Aircraft is in a descent.
B) Airspeed is stable at VREF+ wind additive.
When a constant headwind component shears to a calm wind, the INITIAL cockpit indications to a pilot would be:
A) Aircraft pitches up, altitude and indicated airspeed increase.
B) Aircraft pitches down, altitude and indicated airspeed decrease.
C) Aircraft pitches up, indicated airspeed decreases, altitude increases.
D) Aircraft pitches down, altitude decreases, indicated airspeed increases.
B) Aircraft pitches down, altitude and indicated airspeed decrease.
On a takeoff you encounter vertical wind shear. What actions should be taken with the aircraft with respect to angle of attack and airspeed?
A) Increase the angle of attack to 10 degrees nose up.
B) Ease the nose forward to increase the airspeed.
C) Set full power and increase angle of attack to achieve an airspeed just above the stick shaker.
D) Set the power and angle of attack to achieve turbulent penetration speed.
C) Set full power and increase angle of attack to achieve an airspeed just above the stick shaker.
An aircraft flying at a given altitude experiences a complete blockage of its static source. If the aircraft were to depart from that altitude, the ASI would:
A) Over read during either descent or climb.
B) Show no change during any change of altitude.
C) Under read during either descent or climb.
D) Under read during a climb and over read during a descent.
D) Under read during a climb and over read during a descent.
The pendulous unit and the vanes of a pressure driven attitude indicator are responsible for the acceleration errors noticeable during the take off phase of flight. The false indications presented are:
A) A false left bank.
B) A false right bank.
C) A false climb.
D) A false descent.
C) A false climb.
In transport category aircraft the importance recognizing a stall in flight is paramount to flight safety. Which of the following will always occur in an aerodynamic stall?
1) Buffeting.
2) High G loads.
3) Slow Speed.
4) Lots of aerodynamic noise.
5) Stall warning system will always activate.
6) The aircraft will always descend.
7) Stall warnings can sometimes be mistaken for high speed warnings.
A) 1, 4, 6.
B) 4, 5, 6.
C) 1, 3, 5.
D) All six answers are correct.
A) 1, 4, 6.
Your approach is such that you arrive over the landing threshold with a higher than normal airspeed. Which technique should you use to achieve the shortest landing ground roll?
A) Set the aircraft down normally and use aerodynamic braking.
B) Let the aircraft float until the normal touchdown speed is achieved then use medium braking.
C) Set the aircraft down as soon as possible and use maximum braking.
D) Flare the aircraft slightly lower than normal and apply the brakes before touchdown.
C) Set the aircraft down as soon as possible and use maximum braking.
What are the minimum PAPI Approach Slope Indicator System Safe Obstruction Clearance Area Dimensions?
A) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centerline out to 4NM from the threshold.
B) 4 degrees on either side of the extended runway centerline out to 4NM from the threshold.
C) 4 degrees on with side of the extended runway centerline out to 6NM from the threshold.
D) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centerline out to 6NM from the threshold.
A) 6 degrees on either side of the extended runway centerline out to 4NM from the threshold.
Which of the following is a Low Intensity Approach Lighting System?
A) MALSF.
B) LIAL.
C) MALSR.
D) SSALS.
B) LIAL.
The Clean Aircraft Concept refers to:
A) The in-flight use of aircraft de-icing and anti-icing equipment.
B) De-icing and anti-icing fluids application principals.
C) Takeoff being prohibited when frost, snow or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft.
D) An air carriers operating philosophy with regards to passenger public relations.
C) Takeoff being prohibited when frost, snow or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft.
What is the definition of critical surface contamination?
A) Ice or snow adhering to the aircrafts wings or tail.
B) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircrafts engines, wings, tail or landing gear.
C) Frost, ice or snow adhering to any part of the aircraft.
D) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircrafts lifting and control surfaces, wings, tail or upper fuselage surface of aircraft with rear mounted engines.
D) Frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircrafts lifting and control surfaces, wings, tail or upper fuselage surface of aircraft with rear mounted engines.
Frost, ice or snow formations having the thickness and surface roughness similar to medium/coarse sand paper on the leading edge and the upper surface of a wing can:
A) Decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%.
B) Decrease lift by 10% and increase drag by 20%.
C) Decrease lift by 40%.
D) Increase drag by 20%.
A) Decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%.
Following the application of Type I and Type IV fluid, the crew observe snow on top of the applied fluids. Which of the following is true?
A) Takeoff is permitted when the aircrafts rotate speed is over 100KT.
B) Takeoff is not permitted.
C) Takeoff is permitted provided the appropriate maximum holdover time is not exceeded.
D) Takeoff is permitted if the aircraft is de-iced first and then later anti-iced.
B) Takeoff is not permitted.
