CARs Commercial Ops

Question 1

Which of the items or statements listed below are regulatory requirements for the operation of a single-engine aircraft in an Air Taxi VFR night flight carrying passengers?

1) The aircraft must be factory built and turbine powered.
2) Two ATPL-Licensed pilots on board.
3) A radar altimeter.
4) The aircraft must operate at least 1,500 ft above all obstacles within 5NM of the aircraft.
5) Two independent power generating sources.
6) A maximum of 12 passengers may be carried.
7) This type of operation must be authorized in the Air Operators Certificate of the operator.
8) A functioning landing light.

A) 1, 2, 5, 6, 8.
B) 2, 3, 4, 7, 8.
C) 1, 3, 4, 6, 7.
D) 1, 3, 5, 7, 8

Answer 1

D) 1, 3, 5, 7, 8

Question 2

The maximum number of duty hours that a flight crew member can be assigned in 28 consecutive days is:

A) 215 hours.
B) 192 hours.
C) 112 hours.
D) 60 hours.

Answer 2

B) 192 hours.

Question 3

The flight time of a flight crew member shall not exceed_____hours in any 28 consecutive days,_____hours in any 90 consecutive days, and_____hours in any 365 days.

A) 112, 300, 1000.
B) 120, 300, 1200.
C) 150, 400, 1000.
D) 90, 250, 1000.

Answer 3

A) 112, 300, 1000.

Question 4

“Flight Duty Period” is defined as when:

A) The flight crew member reports for the first flight if there are multiple flights in the flight duty period.
B) The flight crew member carries out any duties assigned by an air operator before reporting for a flight.
C) The flight crew member reports for standby or a positioning flight.
D) At the earliest of the above statements and ends at engines off at the end of the final flight.

Answer 4

D) At the earliest of the above statements and ends at engines off at the end of the final flight.

Question 5

With respect to Flight Duty Periods, which of the following is true?

A) Depending on the start time and number of flights, flight duty periods can be between 9 and 14 hours.
B) Flight duty periods are dependent solely on the start time and can be between 9 and 13 hours.
C) Depending on the start time, the number of flights and the flight duration, flight duty time can be between 9 and 13 hours.
D) Flight duty time can be between 9 and 13 hours for daytime operations, and between 8 and 11 hours for nighttime operations.

Answer 5

C) Depending on the start time, the number of flights and the flight duration, flight duty time can be between 9 and 13 hours.

Question 6

With respect to flight duty time extensions, who is permitted to extend the flight duty period beyond the normal hour maximum?

A) The operations Manager after consulting with the operating flight crew.
B) The Pilot-In-Command if, after consulting with the other flight crew members, they consider it safe.
C) The chief pilot, consulting with the operating flight crew.
D) The duty dispatcher.

Answer 6

B) The Pilot-In-Command if, after consulting with the other flight crew members, they consider it safe.

Question 7

A flight crew in a 705 airline operation may, due to unforeseen operational circumstances:

A) Extend their flight duty time by 1 hour if the flight is augmented by one crew member occupying the flight deck observers seat.
B) Extend their duty period by 3 hours provided the crew is augmented by an additional member and the number of flight legs does not exceed 3.
C) Extend their flight duty period by 2 hours in a 2 crew operation provided the unforeseen circumstances occurred within 60 minutes of the start of the flight duty period.
D) Exceed the 40 hour in 7 day flight time restriction by up to 3 hours.

Answer 7

C) Extend their flight duty period by 2 hours in a 2 crew operation provided the unforeseen circumstances occurred within 60 minutes of the start of the flight duty period.

Question 8

If the flight duty period includes a break of at least 60 consecutive minutes, the flight duty period may be extended beyond the maximum duty period by_____, if the break is scheduled between 2400 and 0559.

A) The total break duration minus 45 minutes.
B) The length of the break minus 45 minutes, multiplied by 50%.
C) The length of the break to a maximum of 2 hours.
D) A maximum of 3 hours.

Answer 8

A) The total break duration minus 45 minutes.

Question 9

The maximum number of hours of work that a flight crew member may be assigned, or may accept, in commercial operations is:

A) 2,200 hours in and 365 consecutive days.
B) 60 hours in 7 consecutive days provided the crew member is given 1 single day free from duty in any 168 consecutive hours (7 days) and 4 single days free from duty in 672 hours (28 days).
C) 192 hours in 28 consecutive days.
D) All of the above.

Answer 9

D) All of the above.

Question 10

A type C operational control system is required in commuter operations operating under which of the following conditions?

A) IFR.
B) VFR at night using aircraft seating 10 to 19 passengers.
C) VFR at night using turbojet aircraft seating 19 or less passengers.
D) All of the above.

Answer 10

D) All of the above.

Question 11

What are the minimum IFR fuel requirements for a propeller driven aircraft in a commuter operation?

A) Fuel to fly to the destination and land, plus 45 minutes.
B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct and approach and missed approach, fly to an alternate and land, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
C) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 30 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
D) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions.

Answer 11

B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct and approach and missed approach, fly to an alternate and land, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.

Question 12

What are the minimum IFR fuel requirements for a turbojet in commuter operations?

A) Fuel to fly to the destination and land, plus 45 minutes.
B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 30 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
C) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 20 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
D) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct and approach and missed approach, fly to an alternate and conduct a missed approach, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions

Answer 12

B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 30 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for any foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.

Question 13

Which of the following is true with regards to “Briefing of Passengers” in a commuter operation?

A) Safety briefings consist of a demonstration of all doors and emergency exits and the location of the safety features card.
B) Safety briefings are only required in the event of an emergency, time and circumstances permitting.
C) The PIC or his/her designate shall ensure that passengers with physical, sensory or comprehension limitations are given individual safety briefings.
D) Safety briefings consist of fastening of seatbelts, stowage of carry-on baggage and the location of emergency exits.

Answer 13

C) The PIC or his/her designate shall ensure that passengers with physical, sensory or comprehension limitations are given individual safety briefings.

Question 14

In a Commuter Operation, an aircraft that has more than 9 passengers is prohibited from taking off when the weather conditions are at or above takeoff minima but below landing minima for the runway to be used except:

A) When the weather for another suitable runway at the airport is at or above landing minima.
B) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 90 minutes at one engine inoperative speed.
C) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 120 minutes at one engine inoperative speed.
D) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 60 minutes at the normal cruise speed.

Answer 14

A) When the weather for another suitable runway at the airport is at or above landing minima.

Question 15

Which of the following statements listed below are regulatory requirements to conduct an RVR 1200 ft (1/4 mile) visibility takeoff in a turbine powered twin engine aircraft flown in a Commuter operation with more than 9 passengers?

1. The captain and the first officers attitude instruments on the aircraft shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below zero pitch reference lines to at least 15 degrees.
2. The captain and first officer must have received initial and recurrent RVR 1200 ft (1/4 mile) training if the captain and first officer are authorized to conduct lower than standard visibility takeoffs.
3. The runway is equipped with all of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights, runway center line lights and center line markings that are plainly visible to the captain throughout the takeoff run.
4. The runway has at least 2 runway visual range sensors, one situated at the approach end and one situated at the mid point reading not less than 1200 RVR.
5. The runway is equipped with at least one of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights or runway center line lights or with runway centerline markings that are plainly visible to the captain throughout the takeoff run.
6. The captain shall have at least 200 hours of pilot in command on the aircraft type.
7. A takeoff alternate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at normal cruise speed.
8. A takeoff alternate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at one engine inop cruise speed.

A) 1, 2, 4, 6.
B) 1, 2, 5, 8.
C) 1, 3, 6, 7.
D) 2, 4, 6, 8.

Answer 15

B) 1, 2, 5, 8.

Question 16

A flight crew in a 704 Commuter operation with 10 or more passenger seats may operate an aircraft without a functioning Class A TAWS with a terrain display under which of the following?

A) The aircraft is operated in day VFR only.
B) The aircraft is operated within 3 days after the failure occurs if the aircraft does not have an MEL.
C) For safety reasons, it is necessary to deactivate the TAWS or any of its modes provided it is done in accordance with the Flight Crew Operation Manual and the MEL.
D) All of the above.

Answer 16

D) All of the above.

Question 17

Which of the following statements listed below are regulatory requirements for a person to continue to act as a flight crew member in a 704 Operation.

1. The pilot in command must complete the air operators flight training program semi annually.
2. Each crew member must complete a Pilot Proficiency check (PPC) annually.
3. Each pilot must complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) semi annually.
4. In the preceding 90 days each pilot must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings.
5. Each pilot must complete the air operators ground and flight program annually.
6. The pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers in VFR at night is required to have at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC.
7. The pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers in IFR flight is required to have at least 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot.
8. Each pilot must have completed three takeoffs and landing plus one sector in the preceding 90 days.

A) 2, 4, 5, 7.
B) 1, 2, 5, 8.
C) 1, 3, 6, 7.
D) 2, 3, 6, 8.

Answer 17

A) 2, 4, 5, 7.

Question 18

Which if the following statements are true with regard to Line Indoctrination Training for pilots initial training on to a turbo-prop aircraft in a Commuter operation?

A) Training shall be conducted over parts of the operators route structure.
B) Each pilot shall complete 20 hours of flying and 4 sectors, 2 as pilot flying and 2 as pilot monitoring.
C) A sector is considered a flight with a takeoff, departure, arrival and landing with an enroute segment of at least 50NM.
D) All of the above.

Answer 18

D) All of the above.

Question 19

In an airline operation what does “co-authority dispatch” mean?

A) The equal authority between the PIC and dispatcher for decisions regarding takeoff profiles.
B) The shared authority between the PIC and dispatcher for decisions regarding the operational flight plan prior to acceptance by the PIC.
C) The shared authority between the PIC and SIC for decisions regarding the dispatch of a flight.
D) The shared authority between the PIC and the flight attendants regarding the decision for a flight to dispatch.

Answer 19

B) The shared authority between the PIC and dispatcher for decisions regarding the operational flight plan prior to acceptance by the PIC.

Question 20

Unless otherwise authorized, when an aircraft in airline operations conducts an IFR flight, in addition to sufficient fuel for taxiing, and foreseeable delays that could delay landing, it must carry sufficient fuel to fly to:

A) Its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation.
B) Its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation.
C) Its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
D) Its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation and enroute fuel reserve of 5%.

Answer 20

A) Its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation.

Question 21

In an Airline operation, what is the standard maximum distance that a twin engine aircraft may be flown from an adequate aerodrome on an international flight?

A) 200NM or 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed, whichever is lesser.
B) 300NM or 45 minutes at normal cruise speed, whichever is lesser.
C) 30 minutes at single engine cruise speed.
D) 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed,

Answer 21

D) 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed,

Question 22

In an Airline Operation the consolidation period refers to:

A) Crew pairing restrictions applied with relation to the combined experience of the PIC and SIC new to an aircraft type.
B) The time required for crew members to complete line-indoctrination training after completing a PPC.
C) When a PPC, Line Check, or training is renewed within the last 90 days of its validity period.
D) The 90 day requirement for all annual training events flight crew members are required to complete,

Answer 22

A) Crew pairing restrictions applied with relation to the combined experience of the PIC and SIC new to an aircraft type.

Question 23

With regards to “Crew Member Briefings” select the statement below that is FALSE:

A) The PIC shall ensure prior to each flight or series of flights a pre-flight briefing is given to all crew members including flight attendants.
B) A pre-flight briefing shall cover anticipated weather and flying conditions, flight time, and altitudes.
C) The PIC is required to review selected communication, emergency, safety and security procedures.
D) A review of selected communication, emergency, safety and security procedures is also required along with any additional information necessary for the flight.

Answer 23

C) The PIC is required to review selected communication, emergency, safety and security procedures.

Question 24

An aircraft involved in an airline operation carrying passengers in IMC with weather reports for thunderstorms must be equipped with which of the following?

A) A stormscope.
B) A weather radar.
C) ADS-B in with weather service.
D) Datalink weather radar uploads.

Answer 24

B) A weather radar.

Question 25

Airline operations require flight crew members who are on flight deck duty to remain in their respective stations with their seatbelt and shoulder harnesses fastened below:

A) 18,000 ft ASL.
B) 12,500 ft ASL.
C) 10,000 ft ASL.
D) 3,500 ft ASL.

Answer 25

C) 10,000 ft ASL.

Question 26

For a person to continue to act as second in command in an airline operation they must:

1. Complete the air operators flight training program semi annually.
2. Complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) annually.
3. Complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) semi-annually,
4. Each crew member must complete the air operators ground program annually.
5. Must complete 3 takeoffs and landings plus one sector within the proceeding 90 days.
6. Each crew member must complete the air operators flight training program annually.
7. Must complete a route check semi-annually with an approved check pilot to maintain route/aerodrome qualification.
8. Complete a line check annually with an approved check pilot demonstrating their ability to operate the airplane over a typical route.

A) 1, 2, 5, 7.
B) 2, 4, 6, 7.
C) 1, 3, 5, 8.
D) 2, 3, 6, 8.

Answer 26

C) 1, 3, 5, 8.

Question 27

What are pilots currency requirements for carrying passengers at night?

A) 5 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 6 months.
B) 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
C) 3 night takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
D) 5 night takeoffs and landings within the preceding 6 months.

Answer 27

D) 5 night takeoffs and landings within the preceding 6 months.

Question 28

When and how often must pilots receive High Altitude Training?

A) When operating an aircraft above 13,000 ft ASL, annually.
B) When operating an aircraft above 10,000 ft ASL, before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.
C) When operating an aircraft above 13,000 ft ASL, before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.
D) When operating an aircraft above 10,000 ft ASL, annually.

Answer 28

C) When operating an aircraft above 13,000 ft ASL, before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.

Question 29

The subject areas that should be included in High Altitude Training for flight crew members are:

A) Respiration, Hypoxia, the duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental O2, gas expansion and gas bubble formation.
B) Hypoxia, Hyperventilation, Barotrauma, high altitude related vision problems and nutrition.
C) Oxygen deprivation, nitrogen bubble formation within body tissues, vision problems associated with reduced oxygen partial pressure, explosive decompression and high altitude aerodynamics.
D) Respiratory problems associated with the use of supplementary oxygen, daltons law of partial pressures, embolic events, barotrauma, the valsalva technique and nutrition.

Answer 29

A) Respiration, Hypoxia, the duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental O2, gas expansion and gas bubble formation.

Question 30

At the completion of each initial ground training phase provided by an air carrier, the proficiency of each pilot shall be determined by:

A) A flight test.
B) A similator test.
C) A written test.
D) An oral test.

Answer 30

C) A written test.

Question 31

The validity period for a Transportation of Dangerous Goods (TDG) Training Certificate, after its date of issuance, is:

A) 36 months.
B) 24 months.
C) 18 months.
D) 12 months.

Answer 31

B) 24 months.