Performance and Weight and Balance. Flashcards
V1 is the speed at which it must be possible:
A) To stop an aircraft on the remaining runway plus clearway.
B) To take-off and attain V2 climb speed at 35 feet above the runway surface.
C) To apply full power braking and whatever lift dump devices, bring the aircraft to a full stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 400 feet AGL.
D) To abort the takeoff and bring the aircraft to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 35 feet above the departure end of the runway.
D) To abort the takeoff and bring the aircraft to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 35 feet above the departure end of the runway.
Which of the following would cause V1 speed to increase?
A) An increase in gross takeoff weight.
B) Reverse thrust capability.
C) Snow or slush on the runway.
D) An increase in tailwind component.
A) An increase in gross takeoff weight.
The symbol VSI represents:
A) The stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable.
B) The stall speed above which shock induced buffet will cause airflow separation to occur.
C) The stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration.
D) The stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
D) The stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
The definitions for VR, V3, VB would be respectively:
A) Rotation speed, flap retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed.
B) Rotation speed, gear retraction speed and rough air speed.
C) Rough air speed, critical engine failure speed and maneuvering speed.
D) Rotation speed, gear retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed.
A) Rotation speed, flap retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed.
Which of the following “V” speeds represents the maximum speed at which full deflection of the primary flight controls will not cause overstressing of the aircraft?
A) VR
B) VA
C) VREF
D) VMC
B) VA
VMCA Air Minimum Control Speed is defined as the lowest calibrated airspeed at which control of an aircraft can be maintained following the failure of the critical engine with the remaining engine(s) operating at takeoff power. VMCA is determined at gross weight with the C of G at the aft limit, the flaps in takeoff position, the_____and the:
A) Landing Gear extended, Propeller Windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed.
B) Landing Gear extended, Propeller feather if no auto feathering system is installed.
C) Landing Gear retracted, Propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed.
D) Landing Gear retracted, aircraft banked to a maximum of 5 degrees towards the inoperative propeller.
C) Landing Gear retracted, Propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed.
Which of the following symbols represents the take off safety speed of a multi engine aircraft?
A) VX.
B) V2.
C) VS.
D) V1.
B) V2.
A reference airspeed obtained after the airplane lifts off and at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved is designated as:
A) VENR.
B) VMCA.
C) V2.
D) VREF.
C) V2.
Which of the following takeoff and landing distances published in the Canada Air Pilot aerodrome charts includes the length of the clearway?
A) LDA.
B) TORA.
C) ASDA.
D) TODA.
D) TODA.
A runway is 8800 ft in length. It has a published clearway of 1000 ft and also includes a stopway of 1500 ft. Therefore TORA and TODA would be repectively:
A) 8800 ft and 9,800 ft.
B) 8800 ft and 10,800 ft.
C) 10,300 ft and 9,800 ft.
D) 10,300 ft and 10,800 ft.
A) 8800 ft and 9,800 ft.
The computed landing approach speed is:
A) VENR.
B) VLO.
C) VRA.
D) VREF.
D) VREF.
A CRITICAL FIELD LENGTH or BALANCED FIELD LENGTH means the length of runway:
A) Required to accommodate the takeoff of a heavy aircraft when the runway maximum weight bearing capacity is reached.
B) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to computed rotation speed (VR), experience an engine failure and to come to a complete stop on the runway remaining.
C) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the takeoff or reject it.
D) Required to stop an aircraft following the failure of its critical engine at its takeoff safety speed.
C) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the takeoff or reject it.
The 3 takeoff distances that must be calculated prior to departure are:
A) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Stop and 1 Engine Out Takeoff distance.
B) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Stop and Accelerate Go Distances.
C) 3 Takeoff distances are only required if the Accelerate Do distance exceeds runway length.
D) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Go and 1 Engine Out climb distances.
B) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Stop and Accelerate Go Distances.
A slush covered runway will have what effect on V1 and VR speeds?
A) V1 will increase while VR will decrease, however VR must never be below V1.
B) V1 will decrease and VR will decrease.
C) V1 will decrease and VR will remain the same.
D) V1 will decrease and VR will increase.
C) V1 will decrease and VR will remain the same.
An upslope runway will have what effect of V1 and VR speeds?
A) V1 will increase and VR will remain the same, however V1 must never exceed VR.
B) V1 will decrease and VR will decrease.
C) V1 will increase and VR will remain the same.
D) V1 will decrease and VR will increase.
A) V1 will increase and VR will remain the same, however V1 must never exceed VR.
