Flight Operations 3

Question 1

Wingtip vortices of MINIMUM strength would be developed by an aircraft:

A) Flying at a low speed, having a short wing span, and a clean configuration.
B) Flying at a high speed, having a long wingspan, and with clean configuration.
C) Flying at a low speed, having a long wingspan, and with a landing configuration.
D) Flying at a high speed, having a short wingspan, and with a clean configuration.

Answer 1

B) Flying at a high speed, having a long wingspan, and with clean configuration.

Question 2

With respect to departing aircraft, it is known that vortex generation is most severe:

A) In that airspace immediately following the point of rotation.
B) During the initial acceleration period following the application of takeoff thrust.
C) At that moment when the aircraft climbs through an altitude equal to three times its wingspan.
D) During the third segment of the aircrafts takeoff flight path profile.

Answer 2

A) In that airspace immediately following the point of rotation.

Question 3

Wake turbulence research has disclosed that wingtip vortices of maximum strength are generated by aircraft operating under conditions of:

A) High gross weight, clean configuration and high speed.
B) Low gross weight, landing configuration and low speed.
C) High gross weight, clean configuration and low speed.
D) Low gross weight, landing configuration and high speed.

Answer 3

C) High gross weight, clean configuration and low speed.

Question 4

Consider flight in turbulent conditions at a given airspeed, what will the effect of a decrease in aircraft gross weight be?

A) Acceleration forces will be higher.
B) Positive acceleration forces will be higher while negative acceleration forces will be lower.
C) Acceleration forces will be lower.
D) Acceleration forces will show no appreciable variation.

Answer 4

A) Acceleration forces will be higher.

Question 5

The speed of sound in the atmosphere is dependent on:

A) Air temperature.
B) True altitude.
C) Pressure altitude.
D) The number of ionized particles present in a given volume of air.

Answer 5

A) Air temperature.

Question 6

Within which of the following Mach ranges does the TRANSONIC flight regime usually occur?

A) 1.2M to 2.25M
B) 0.85M to 1.50M
C) 0.75M to 1.20M
D) 0.5M to 1.15M

Answer 6

C) 0.75M to 1.20M

Question 7

The type of airflow normally present within the transonic regime of flight is:

A) Subsonic and hypersonic.
B) Transonic and supersonic.
C) Supersonic and hypersonic.
D) Subsonic and supersonic.

Answer 7

D) Subsonic and supersonic.

Question 8

As airflow passes through a shock wave, pressure, temperature and velocity are affected. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Pressure increases, temperature decreases, velocity decreases.
B) Pressure decreases, temperature increases, velocity increases.
C) Pressure decreases, temperature decreases, velocity increases.
D) Pressure increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases.

Answer 8

D) Pressure increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases.

Question 9

How does Critical Mach Number (MCRIT) change with temperature?

A) As air temperature increases MCRIT increases.
B) As air temperature decreases MCRIT decreases.
C) Air temperature has no effect on MCRIT.
D) MCRIT will increase only when temperatures are below ISA.

Answer 9

C) Air temperature has no effect on MCRIT.

Question 10

Critical Mach Number may be defined as:

A) The VMO structural limit of an aircraft at high altitudes.
B) The speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of the aircraft.
C) The speed at which compressibility effects begin.
D) The highest airspeed at which airflow over any part of the aircraft first reaches (but does not exceed) Mach 1.0.

Answer 10

D) The highest airspeed at which airflow over any part of the aircraft first reaches (but does not exceed) Mach 1.0.

Question 11

Limiting Mach Number may be defined as:

A) The speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of an aircraft.
B) The Mach speed at which a shock wave first appears on the aircraft.
C) The maximum operation speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound.
D) The speed at which the boundary layer separation first occurs.

Answer 11

C) The maximum operation speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the Mach Meter?

A) The instrument contains an airspeed capsule and an altitude capsule.
B) Temperature and density errors occur and must be corrected by using a flight computer.
C) This instrument calculates the ratio between the aircrafts TAS and the local speed of sound.
D) The same Mach number can occur at markedly different indicated air speeds.

Answer 12

B) Temperature and density errors occur and must be corrected by using a flight computer.

Question 13

In high speed aircraft, SWEEPBACK design is utilized to:

A) Prevent wingtip stalling at approach speeds.
B) Increase MCRIT.
C) Prevent aileron control reversal during transonic flight.
D) Prevent Mach Tuck.

Answer 13

B) Increase MCRIT.

Question 14

An undesired effect of sweepback design in a jet is:

A) A tendency to enter “Jet Upset” when flying in turbulence at high altitudes.
B) The formation of leading edge vortices at maneuvering speeds.
C) “Dutch Roll” tendency.
D) Longitudinal instability during operation at subsonic speeds.

Answer 14

C) “Dutch Roll” tendency.

Question 15

How is high and low speed buffet (also known as coffins corner) affected in a level turn?

A) The high speed buffet boundary will decrease and the low speed buffet will increase.
B) The high speed buffet will increase and the low speed buffet will increase.
C) The low speed buffet will increase, but the high speed buffet will not change.
D) The low speed buffet will increase and the high speed buffet will decrease.

Answer 15

D) The low speed buffet will increase and the high speed buffet will decrease.

Question 16

When jet transport aircraft are flown at high altitudes, which of the following factors should be considered in preventing the onset of Mach Buffet?

1) Aircraft Weight.
2) Angle of Bank.
3) Temperature.
4) Mach Crit Speed.
5) Fuel Loading.
6) Upper Level Winds.
7) Turbulence Gust Loads.
8) Altitude.

A) 1, 2, 6, 7.
B) 1, 3, 6, 8.
C) 2, 3, 5, 7.
D) 3, 4, 5, 8.

Answer 16

B) 1, 3, 6, 8.

Question 17

Wing VORTEX GENERATORS are employed on jet aircraft to:

A) Increase lateral stability during high speed cruise.
B) Improve control response while in approach configuration.
C) Delay boundary layer separation.
D) Prevent “Mach Tuck” and “Roll off” at transonic speeds.

Answer 17

C) Delay boundary layer separation.

Question 18

On a large transport aircraft, what is the purpose of leading edge flaps?

A) To increase the angle of attack at low airspeeds.
B) To increase the coefficient of lift by changing the camber of the wing.
C) To increase the aspect ratio of the wing.
D) To prevent boundary layer separation,

Answer 18

B) To increase the coefficient of lift by changing the camber of the wing.

Question 19

Slotted trailing edge flaps have what advantage over plain flaps?

A) A slot within the flap allows for easier locating of mechanical links.
B) Since slotted flaps are smaller in size, they help to reduce aircraft weight.
C) The slot helps postpone boundary layer separation creating more lift at high flap settings.
D) Slotted flaps do not have an advantage over plain flaps.

Answer 19

C) The slot helps postpone boundary layer separation creating more lift at high flap settings.

Question 20

High performance wings often incorporate a mechanism whose function is to direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge through a slot and along the top of the wing at high angles of attack. This mechanism is known as a:

A) Slat.
B) Spoileron.
C) Krueger flap.
D) Boundary layer energizer.

Answer 20

A) Slat.

Question 21

_____are installed on the upper wing surfaces directly forward of the flaps and consist of panels that assist the ailerons in obtaining maximum roll rates.

A) High speed ailerons.
B) Load alleviation devices.
C) Roll spoilers.
D) Aileron trim tabs.

Answer 21

C) Roll spoilers.

Question 22

Why do aircraft with inboard and outboard ailerons restrict the movement of the outboard ailerons at high speeds?

A) Outboard ailerons are too small to have a significant effect on roll control at high speeds.
B) Outboard ailerons have a greater effect on Coffins Corner, particularly low speed buffet.
C) In addition to reducing stresses on the wing, the inboard aileron is sufficient to provide roll control.
D) Restricting aileron movement helps to increase MCRIT.

Answer 22

C) In addition to reducing stresses on the wing, the inboard aileron is sufficient to provide roll control.

Question 23

On large transport aircraft ground spoilers provide which of the following aerodynamic characteristics?

A) Reduce lift and increase drag.
B) Increase lift and decrease drag.
C) Increase lift and drag.
D) Increase the camber of the wing to produce more lift.

Answer 23

A) Reduce lift and increase drag.

Question 24

Which of the following is true with respect to winglets?

A) They reduce profile drag but increase induced drag.
B) They reduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag.
C) They increase profile drag and induced drag.
D) They increase induced drag but reduce parasite drag.

Answer 24

B) They reduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag.

Question 25

An automatic system on large transport category aircraft which utilize inputs from air data computers to provide yaw damping and turn coordination is known as a:

A) Rudder Trim Actuator.
B) Yaw Damper.
C) Auto Flight Control System.
D) Digital Flight Rudder Controller.

Answer 25

B) Yaw Damper.

Question 26

One of the main advantages of a CANARD design is:

A) A reduction of “Dutch Roll” tendency.
B) A delay of boundary layer separation.
C) A reduced stall speeds.
D) An increase in MCRIT.

Answer 26

C) A reduced stall speeds.

Question 27

The calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for a certain altitude is known as:

A) True airspeed.
B) Rectified Airspeed.
C) Absolute airspeed.
D) Equivalent airspeed.

Answer 27

D) Equivalent airspeed.

Question 28

Which of the following air conditions would provide the highest Indicated airspeed?

A) Cold, moist.
B) Hot, humid.
C) Cold, dry.
D) Hot, dry

Answer 28

C) Cold, dry.

Question 29

Hydroplaning is a phenomenon that occurs when a tires loses contact with the runway surface due to a buildup of water between the tire and the runway. Hydroplaning is a function of:

A) The square root of the tire pressure.
B) The gross weight of the aircraft.
C) The number and size of the aircraft tires.
D) The speed of the aircraft, tire pressure and water depth.

Answer 29

D) The speed of the aircraft, tire pressure and water depth.

Question 30

Which of the following is true with reference to dynamic hydroplaning?

A) It may occur when a runway is contaminated by a thin film of water.
B) It normally occurs with a thin film of water on smooth runways or where rubber deposits are present causing the tire to lose partial contact with the runway.
C) The tire lifts off the pavement and rides on a wedge of water which cases wheel rotation to stop. It normally does not occur unless a unless a severe rainstorm is in progress.
D) It occurs when heat is generated during a locked wheel condition, which causes the tire to revert back to its chemical properties.

Answer 30

C) The tire lifts off the pavement and rides on a wedge of water which cases wheel rotation to stop. It normally does not occur unless a unless a severe rainstorm is in progress.