Met Gen 6

Question 1

The formation of clear ice on an aircraft is due to:

A) The sublimation of water vapor onto a very cold airframe.
B) The slow freezing of a heavy concentration of small supercooled droplets intercepted by the airframe.
C) The melting and instant refreezing of ice pellets that impact the airframe.
D) Relatively large supercooled water droplets striking the airframe at a high catch rate which slowly freeze allowing the droplets to spread rearwards before freezing entirely.

Answer 1

D) Relatively large supercooled water droplets striking the airframe at a high catch rate which slowly freeze allowing the droplets to spread rearwards before freezing entirely.

Question 2

Can you take off with frost on the underside of the wing?

A) No, not under any circumstances.
B) Yes, as long as you complete a pre-takeoff icing procedure.
C) Yes, as long as it doesn’t exceed the aircraft manufacturers recommendation.
D) Yes, as long as the frost on the underside of the wing covers less than 50% of the area.

Answer 2

C) Yes, as long as it doesn’t exceed the aircraft manufacturers recommendation.

Question 3

Which of the following statements relating to the effects of aerodynamic heating of an airfoil in overall icing conditions is true?

A) An airspeed of 350 to 450 Kts is required to de-ice airfoil surfaces.
B) An airspeed of at least 500 Kts is required to ensure no ice will collect.
C) There will be an increased risk of leading edge icing if the wing temperature rises to just above 0 degrees C.
D) An airspeed of 500 to 600 Kts is required to remove any airfoil ice.

Answer 3

B) An airspeed of at least 500 Kts is required to ensure no ice will collect.

Question 4

As well as a lifting force or trigger action, the other conditions necessary for the formation of a well developed thunderstorm are:

A) A low relative humidity and conditionally stable air at the surface.
B) A copious amount of moisture and a stable atmosphere to great heights.
C) A steep lapse rate in the lower atmosphere and low relative humidity.
D) An abundant supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate.

Answer 4

D) An abundant supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate.

Question 5

The commencement of the dissipating stage of a storm cell is characterized by:

A) Intense rain showers at the surface.
B) The downdrafts encompassing the entire cell horizontally.
C) The appearance of accessory clouds at the cells trailing edge.
D) The domination of updrafts in the interior of the cell.

Answer 5

B) The downdrafts encompassing the entire cell horizontally.

Question 6

Flight beneath the anvil cloud of a thunderstorm cell should be avoided due to:

A) The serious hazard of encountering hail that has been thrown out of this overhanging cloud by the strong upper wind flow.
B) The possibility of entering a region of very large supercooled water droplets, even a temperatures less than -40 degrees C.
C) The fact that serious lightning strikes often occur in this region.
D) The possibility of large altimeter errors caused by the accelerated horizontal airflow that exists in this underlying area.

Answer 6

A) The serious hazard of encountering hail that has been thrown out of this overhanging cloud by the strong upper wind flow.

Question 7

At what stage of development of a thunderstorm cell would the most serious icing problem be present?

A) Midway through the mature stage.
B) At the beginning of the dissipating stage.
C) Just before the cell enters the mature stage.
D) Midway through the cumulus stage.

Answer 7

C) Just before the cell enters the mature stage.

Question 8

Mammatus clouds are frequently associated with:

A) Violent thunderstorms and tornadoes.
B) Low level nocturnal jetstream flow over the prairies.
C) Outflow winds from coastal inlets.
D) Frontogenesis of a stationary front.

Answer 8

A) Violent thunderstorms and tornadoes.

Question 9

What is the name given to low level, tube shaped, detached cloud that is frequently observed on the leading edge side along a line of strong CB clouds?

A) Nacreous cloud.
B) Shelf cloud.
C) Roll cloud.
D) Undulatus cloud

Answer 9

C) Roll cloud.

Question 10

Funnel clouds can form as cone-shaped columns or protuberances extending downwards from the main cloud base of a towering cumulus or CB cloud. From the statements that follow relating to funnel clouds, select the one that is false:

A) A funnel cloud is a vortex of condensed water vapor and air spinning at high velocity.
B) If a funnel cloud is in contact with the ground, then it becomes a tornado.
C) Conditions of very low humidity and the absence of vorticity in the air favor the formation of funnel clouds.
D) If a debris swirl is present on the ground underneath a funnel cloud, then meteorologists classify it as a tornado.

Answer 10

C) Conditions of very low humidity and the absence of vorticity in the air favor the formation of funnel clouds.

Question 11

Meteorologists involved with the forecasting of severe weather phenomena would agree that one of the identifiable features associated with tornado development would be:

A) The frequency of upper trough movement over a given area.
B) Satellite measurement of heat balance in the upper atmosphere.
C) Mesocyclonic movement detected by high resolution doppler radars.
D) The continued presence of an omega high over an area which has very low relative humidity.

Answer 11

C) Mesocyclonic movement detected by high resolution doppler radars.

Question 12

The recommended technique following the inadvertent penetration of a thunderstorm cell is:

A) Slow to turbulence penetration speed and execute an immediate 180 degree turn.
B) Slow to endurance speed and turn 90 degrees to you present track to escape.
C) Slow to minimum cruise speed and descend to smoother conditions.
D) Slow to turbulence penetration speed, do not attempt to maintain a rigid altitude or airspeed and maintain present heading.

Answer 12

D) Slow to turbulence penetration speed, do not attempt to maintain a rigid altitude or airspeed and maintain present heading.

Question 13

An echo that has a distinct hook depicted on an aircrafts weather radar could be a sign of what?

A) Tornado.
B) CB cell.
C) Severe Icing.
D) Radar malfunction.

Answer 13

A) Tornado.

Question 14

What distance should thunderstorms be avoided by?

A) 5nm when below the freezing level.
B) 10nm when above the freezing level.
C) 20nm when reported as severe.
D) All of the above.

Answer 14

D) All of the above.

Question 15

Where should you scan a thunderstorm with your weather radar?

A) Start in the mid levels and then below.
B) Start in the mid levels and then above.
C) Start in the high levels and then below.
D) Scan the upper and lower levels and compare intensities.

Answer 15

A) Start in the mid levels and then below.

Question 16

The amount of energy that is returned to the weather radar antenna is dependent on three factors:

1. The type of precipitation.
2. The concentration of precipitation.
3. The water droplets size.

Which one is the most important?

A) The type of precipitation.
B) The concentration of precipitation.
C) The water droplets size.
D) They are all equally important.

Answer 16

C) The water droplets size.

Question 17

What is the advantage of a stormscope over a weather radar set?

A) Not subject to the same amount of attenuation.
B) At lower altitudes, it will detect possible thunderstorms around higher terrain.
C) It tends to be a lower cost item.
D) All of the above.

Answer 17

D) All of the above.

Question 18

What is attenuation with respect to an aircrafts weather radar?

A) A radar signal degrades with distance.
B) A radar signal doesn’t reflect well off of solid precipitation.
C) One area of heavy rain blocks out other areas of rain in behind the first.
D) Both (A) and (C) are correct.

Answer 18

D) Both (A) and (C) are correct.

Question 19

Pick the answers that best describe the characteristics of a downburst:

1) Downbursts can be described in terms of size as being micro or macro.
2) Air within the downbursts tend to be warmer than the surrounding air due to the electrical discharges heating up the air before it descends and strikes the ground.
3) Downbursts are colder than the surrounding air due to the cooling process as the rain droplets partially evaporate as the descend to the ground.
4) Due to the warmer air within the downburst, the speed of the descending air tends to be decreased.
5) Due to the evaporational cooling effect, the air accelerates downwards increasing the severity of the downburst.
6) A downburst can create both an increased performance shear and/or a decreased performance shear situation for an aircraft on approach or during takeoff.

A) 1, 2, 4, 6.
B) 1, 3, 5, 6.
C) 2, 4, 5, 6.
D) 1, 3, 6.

Answer 19

B) 1, 3, 5, 6.

Question 20

What could the term virga imply in a METAR?

A) That term is reserved for SIGMETs only.
B) Snow is falling from the cloud but sublimates before reaching the ground.
C) Very Intense Radar Ground Attenuation.
D) Microburst.

Answer 20

D) Microburst.

Question 21

The shaft of a microburst at the surface is normally about_____wide?

A) 15NM or less.
B) 2.2NM or less.
C) 5NM.
D) 20NM

Answer 21

B) 2.2NM or less.

Question 22

A large change in wind speed or direction over a short distance is known as:

A) Zonal wind flow.
B) Vorticity.
C) Wind Shear.
D) Free convection.

Answer 22

C) Wind Shear.

Question 23

A condition or phenomenon associated with potentially dangerous wind shear, especially during takeoff and landing, would be:

A) A low level temperature inversion (with strong winds above the inversion).
B) A quasi-stationary front that is undergoing frontolysis.
C) A warm high with a mid-level isothermal layer.
D) The presence of an anticyclone that has undergone considerable elongation.

Answer 23

A) A low level temperature inversion (with strong winds above the inversion.

Question 24

With respect to low level nocturnal jetstreams, which of the following statements are true:

1) They occur mostly in winter.
2) They are always associated with a surface occlusion.
3) They occur mostly in summer.
4) They generally form over flat terrain during the presence of southwest winds.
5) They are usually associated with temperature inversions.
6) They require unstable air up to high altitudes for their formation.

A) 2, 3, 6.
B) 4, 5, 2.
C) 1, 4, 3.
D) 3, 4, 5.

Answer 24

D) 3, 4, 5.

Question 25

Where is a low level frontal jet stream (LLJ) located?

A) Parallel to the warm front located about 50-100NM in front of it.
B) Perpendicular to the warm front causing it to rise up along the frontal surface.
C) Perpendicular to the cold front causing it to rise up along the frontal surface.
D) Parallel to the cold front in the warm air sector of the frontal wave.

Answer 25

D) Parallel to the cold front in the warm air sector of the frontal wave.

Question 26

Where is the CAT associated with the LLJ located?

A) About 1-3 hours prior to the passage of the cold front.
B) Along the cold front.
C) About 1-3 hours prior to the passage of the warm front.
D) Along the warm front.

Answer 26

A) About 1-3 hours prior to the passage of the cold front.

Question 27

When are LLJ depicted in a GFA?

A) When the core speed is expected to be 50 Kts or more.
B) When the jet core is located within 6,000 feet ASL, except as required over higher terrain.
C) The height of the jet is not indicated.
D) All of the above.

Answer 27

D) All of the above.

Question 28

A pilot taxiing an aircraft for takeoff notes that rain is falling from the base of a convective cloud that is located relatively high above the ground but is evaporating before it reaches the ground. He/she should be aware that this occurrence could signal the presence of:

A) A low level temperature inversion.
B) A dry microburst.
C) A warm occlusion at the 700 hPa level.
D) An air mass within which the environment lapse rate is considerably less steep than both the DALR and the SALR.

Answer 28

B) A dry microburst.

Question 29

Which of the following is false with reference to “dry” microbursts?

A) They usually occur in areas where the air is very humid.
B) They can often be identified by the presence of virga.
C) They are linked with high-based cumulus and altocumulus type clouds.
D) With this type of microburst, evaporative cooling intensifies the downdrafts.

Answer 29

A) They usually occur in areas where the air is very humid.

Question 30

Downdrafts associated with a microburst could be as strong as:

A) 2500 ft/min.
B) 4000 ft/min.
C) 6000 ft/min.
D) 7500 ft/min.

Answer 30

C) 6000 ft/min.