Quiz 5 prep Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of tissue is blood? Where does it derived from?

A
  • Fluid Connective tissue
  • derived from mesenchyme cells of mesoderm.
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2
Q

Where are the elements of blood produced?

A

Production in Red bone marrow by hemopoiesis. RBCs,WBCs, and platelets are formed.

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3
Q

What is another name for Red blood cell?

A

Erythrocyte

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4
Q

In comparison of RBC, PLT and WBC, how do they differ concerning structure?

A
  • Red blood cells and Platelets do not have nucleus
  • RBC’s lack mitochondria (they are anaerobic)
  • RBC’s are amitotic
  • WBC are “complete cell types”
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5
Q

List physical characteristics of an erythrocyte at maturity

A
  • amitotic(incomplete)
  • biconcave disc
  • very flexible
  • large surface area
  • Anaerobic
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6
Q

What are 3 types of granulocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophil (banded/unbanded)
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Basophil

(all are White blood cells)

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7
Q

What is another name for platelets? WHat is there function?

A

Thrombocytes. Promote blood clotting.

(are fragments derived from megakaryocyte )

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8
Q

What are Functions of blood?

A
  1. Transport
  2. Regulation
  3. Protection
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9
Q

What does blood transport?

(what and where?)

A
  1. oxygen from lungs to cells throughout the body and carbon dioxide from the cells to the lungs
  2. nutrients from GI tract to body cells
  3. heat and waste products away from cells
  4. hormones from endocrine glands to other body cells.

Recall: Carbon dioxide is a waste product of cellular respiration

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10
Q

What does Blood regulate?

A

OA**T **Wheat, BAD PH.”

  1. pH of body fluids
  2. Dissolving rate in plasma of Albumin proteins & bicarbonate ions
  3. Temperature
  4. Osmotic Pressure
    • by Albumin proteins
  5. Water content of cells
    • by blood osmotic pressure
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11
Q

How does blood regulate temperature?

A
  1. cooling of water in blood plasma
  2. variable rate of flow through the skin
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12
Q

What are two types of agranulocytes?

A
  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Monocyte
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13
Q

How does the blood protect the body?

A
  1. Blood clotting in respose to injury (prevents excessve loss of blood)
  2. WBC
    • Phagocytosis
    • Antibody production
  3. Interferons and Complement
    • interferons are proteins released by host cells in response to FB
    • Complement system is the innate immune system that we are born with.
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14
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

The percentage of total blood volume occupied by red blood cells.

(RBCs make up about 99% of formed elements in blood. Formed elements make up about 45% of blood)

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15
Q

What is Blood Plasma?

A
  • When formed elements are removed from blood, plasma remains.
  • Makes up about 55% of blood
  • Contains plasma proteins synthesized by liver & other components
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16
Q

What are the plasma proteins?

A

Plasma Proteins & solutes other than proteins.

  1. Albumin
    • 54% of plasma protein
    • help maintain proper blood osmotic pressure
  2. Globulin
    • 38% of pp
    • (include) Antibodies
      • defensive proteins produced during certain immune responses
  3. Fibrinogen
    • ​​7%
    • key for formation of blood clots

O

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17
Q

What are other solutes in plasma?

A

electrolytes, nutrients, gases, regulatory substances such as enzymes and hormones, vitamins, and waste products

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18
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

A pigment which gives whole blood its red color. HGB also transports some carbon dioxide in blood.

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19
Q

What cell are all other blood cells derived from?

A

Pluripotent Stem Cell

  • stimulated by specific hormones.
  • generate myeloid stem cells
    • begin development in red bone marrow and differentiate into other cells
      • RBC, PLT, & granular leukocytes + monocytes
  • generate lymphoid stem cells
    • lymphocytes
    • NK cells
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20
Q

What is the RBC life span? Why?

A

Longevity= 120 days

Because of wear and tear on their plasma membraines as they squeeze through blood capillaries.

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21
Q

What is the process of the RBC life cycle?

A
  1. RBCs phagocytized by macrophages in spleen, liver and red bone marrow. HGB split into heme and globin
  2. globin broken into amino acids, which can be used by body to synthesize other proteins.
  3. Iron removed from heme associates with plasma protein transferrin (a transporter)
  4. Iron-transferrin complex carried to red bone marrow and used in HGB synthesis.
  5. Erythropoiesis in red bone marrow, RBCs enter circulation
  6. When iron is removed from heme, the rest is converted to biliverdin then to bilirubin. Bilirubin enters blood and is transported to the liver, sevreted by liver cells into bile, passes into small intestine, then passed to large intestine.
  7. In the large intestine, bacteria convert biliruben into uro-bilinogen. Some is absorbed back into blood and converted to urobilin and excreted in urine. Most is eliminated in feces as stercobilin.
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22
Q

What are components used in Hemoglobin synthesis in red bone marrow?

A
  • Iron needed for heme of HGB molecule. Recieved from iron-transferrin complex.
  • Amino acids needed for globin portion of HGB
  • Vitamin B12 needed for HGB synthesis (absorbed dietarily by an intrinsic factor protein in the stomach)
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23
Q

What is biliverdin?

A

When iron is removed from heme, the portion that remains is converted to biliverdin, a green pigment.

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24
Q

What is biliruben?

A

A yellow-orange pigmentthat is converted from biliverdin. Bilirubin enters blood and is transported to the liver then secreted by liver cells into bile. Bile passes to small intestine and then to large intestine.

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25
Q

What is urobilinogen?

A
  • converted from bilirubin
  • in the large intestine.
  • Some is absorbed into blood and converted to a yelow pigment called urobilin and eventually secreted in urine.
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26
Q

What is Urobilin?

A
  • Converted from urobilinogen
  • In blood
  • yellow pigment
  • excreted in urine.
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27
Q

What is Stercobilin?

A
  • Eliminates uribilin in feces.
  • brown pigment
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28
Q

What is transferrin?

A
  • Acts as a protective protein escort during transport if iron ions.
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29
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Formation of Red Blood Cells.

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30
Q

How does a RBC get it’s biconcave shape?

A

Near end of erythropoeises, RBC precursor ejects its nucleus and becomes a reticulocyte. Loss of nucleus causes center of cell to indent

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31
Q

How do WBCs combat invading microbes?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. production of antibodies.
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32
Q

What are the roles of neutrophils?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. releasing enzymes such as lyzozyme to destroy certain bacteria
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33
Q

What are the roles of Monocytes?

A
  1. phagocytosis in larger numbers that neutrophils (but have a slower response)
  2. clean up cellular debris following infection
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34
Q

What aree the roles of Eosinophils?

A

leave capillaries and enter interstitial fluid

  1. release enzymes that combat inflammation in allergic reaction
  2. phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes
  3. effective against certain parasitic worms

(high eosinophil count reflects allergic reaction or parasitic infection)

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35
Q

What are the roles of basophils?

A
  1. inflammatory and allergic reactions
  2. Can liberate heparin, histamine, and serotonin after leaving capillaries and entering tissue.
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36
Q

What are three tupes of lymphocytes (responsible for major immune responses)?

A
  1. B cells
  2. T cells
  3. NK cells (natural killer)
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37
Q

What is Hemostasis?

A
  • A sequence of respinses that stops bleeding when blood vessels are injured.
    1. vascular spasm
    2. platelet plug formation
    3. blood clotting (coagulation)
  • quick
  • localized
  • controlled
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38
Q

WHat is vascular spasm?

A
  • Mechanism of Hemostasis
  • smooth mucsle in blod vessel wall contracts
  • reduces blood loss (for minutes-hours)
  • As platelets accumulate at damaged site, they release chemicals to enhance casoconstruction which maintains vascular spasm.
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39
Q

What is Platelet Plug formation?

A
  • A mechanism of hemostasis
  • When platelets come into contact with damaged blood vessel (where collagen fibers are exposed), they change charachteristic and adhere and stick together to form a platelet plug
    • helps fill gap in injured blood vessel wall
    • secrete chemicals to make other PLTs sticky and sustain vasxular spasm to decrease blood flow through and injured vessel
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40
Q

What are serum and fibrin?

A
  • Serum= plasma minus clotting proteins
  • fibrin= formed elements of blood trapped within a gel clot. Insoluble protein fibers
41
Q

What is clotting?

A
  • AKA: coagulation.
  • A series of chemical reactions that culminates in the formation of fibrin threads.
  • Fibrin forms a mesh that traps RBC and PLT-> forms a clot
42
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Clotting in an unbroken blood vessel. Occurs when blood clots too easily.

43
Q

What are some clotting factors?

A
  • Chemicals that activate each other during clotting
  • Calcium ions
  • several enzymes that are made by liver cells
  • platelet associated molecules
  • molecules released by damaged tissues
44
Q

What are the stages of clotting ?

A
  1. Prothrombinase is formed.
  2. Prothrombinase converts to prothrombin into the enzyme thrombin.
  3. Thrombin converts soluble fibronogen into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin forms the threads of a clot.
45
Q

What blood type is the universal blood donor?

A

O

46
Q

What blood type is the universal recipient?

A

AB

47
Q

Function of Pericardium

A
  • peri=around
  • membrane that surrounds and protects the heart
  • holds heart in place
  • 2 parts: fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium
48
Q

Function of fibrous pericardium

A
  • Tough, inelastic, dense irregular connective tissue.
  • prevents overstretching of heart
  • provides protection
  • anchors heart in place
49
Q

Function of serous pericardium

A
  • Thinner, more delicate membrane
  • forms double layer around the heart
  • has two layers
    • parietal:fused to fibrous pericardium
    • visceral/epicardium: adheres tightly to the surface of the heart
50
Q

function of Pericardial fluid

A
  • found between the Parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium
  • thin film of fluid.
  • reduces friction between the membranes as the heart moves.
51
Q

Function of myocardium

A
  • cardiac muscle tissue
  • the bilk of the heart
  • responsible for pumping action of heart
    *
52
Q

Function of epicardium

A
  1. known as visceral layer of serous pericardium
  2. thin, outer layer of wall
  3. composed of mesothelium and connective tissue
53
Q

Function of left ventricle

A

Thickest walls

Pumps blood through systemic circulation

54
Q

Function of sinoatrial (SA) node

A

normal pacemaker of heart

55
Q

Sequence of cardiac action potential conduction system

A

“SAAV his RLBBP”

  1. SA node
  2. AV node
  3. Right and Left Bundle Branches
  4. Purkinje fibers
56
Q

What is the P wave of an ECG associated with?

A

represents atrial depolarization

57
Q

Order of EKG waves

A

PQRST (U)

58
Q

Which set of waves represensts the onset of ventricular depolarization?

A

QRS

59
Q

Which wave indicates ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

60
Q

What is a cardiac cycle?How long does it last?

A

all the events associated with one heartbeat. Each one lasts about 0.8 seconds

61
Q

What is a systole?

A

= contraction.

refers to phase of contraction

62
Q

What is diastole?

A

=dilation/expansion

refers to the phase of relaxation

63
Q

When does the last 25% of the blood that fills the ventricles enter (at nml HR)?

A

atrial systole

64
Q

What causes the Lubb sound?

A

AV valves closing after ventruclar systole begins

65
Q

What causes the dupp sound?

A

from semilunar valves closing at the end of ventrucular systole.

66
Q

What is the order of the cardiac cyce?

A

“RAV”

Relaxation period (all 4 chambers in diastole)

Atrial systole(contraction)

Ventricular systole (contraction

67
Q

What do heart murmurs usually mean for adults?

A

a valve disorder

68
Q

What is an arrhythmia/dysrhythmia?

A

an abnormal rhythm as a result of a defect in the conduction system of th hear.

69
Q

What is an ischemia?

A

and obstruction of blood

70
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

reduced oxygen supply which may weaken cells without killing them

71
Q

What is Angina pectoris?

A

severe pain usually accompanies an MI. tightness/squeezing sensation

72
Q

What marks the beginning of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

When a “fatty streak” in the vessel wall is formed from macrophages eating accumulated LDL particle

73
Q

What are the primary lymphatic organs?

A

Red Bone marrow, Thymus

74
Q

What are the secondary lymphatic organs and tissues?

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic nodules. (where most immune responses occur)

75
Q

What is the site of T cell orgin, maturation?

A

Immature t cells migrate from red bone marrow to the thymus where they mature. Only a few are actually matured, thymic macrophages clear out the rest.

76
Q

Describe the junctional filter of the lymphatic system

A
  • Lymph Node
  • Lymph enters through afferent lymphatic vessels.
  • Foreign substances trapped by reticular fibers
  • Macrophages and lymphocytes destroy FBs
  • Filtered lumph leaves through efferent lymphati vessels.
  • All lymph flows through multiple lymph nodes and is filterd.
  • filteration is slow bc of many afferent vessels but few efferent vessels
77
Q

Describe the structure of the spleen

A
  • largest mass of lymphatic tissue
  • Has white pulp and red pulp
  • white pulp: lymphatic tissue, consists of lymphocytes and macrophages
  • red pulp: has blood-filled venous sinuses and cords of spletnic tissue consisting of RBCs, macrophages, lymphcytes, plasma cells, and granular leukocytes.
78
Q

What are functions of the spleen in immune response?

A
  1. removal of worn-out/defective blood cells and PLT by macrophages
  2. storage of platelets
  3. production of blood cells during fetal life
79
Q

Where do B cells originate, mature?

A

B cells both originate and mature in the Red bone marrow.

80
Q

What types of T cells are differentiated in the thymus?

A
  • helper T cells
  • cytotoxic T cells
81
Q

What is cell mediated immunity?

A
  • A type of Adaptive immunity
  • “cells attacking cells” (immune cells attack cells that have dangerous material inside)
  • triggered by antigens
  • cytotoxic t cells directly attack invading antigens
  • (helper t cells involved)
82
Q

What is abtibody-mediated immunity

A
  • A type of adaptive immunity
  • “cells attacking fluids”–>humoral immunity, AB bind to angitgens in body humors(fluids)
  • B cells transform into plasma cells which secrete antibodies ti inactivate a specific antigen.
  • (helper t-cells involved)
83
Q

What is clonal selection?

A
  • The process by which a lymphocyte proligerates and differentiates in response to a specific antigen.
  • all new cells are specifc to an antigen
  • occurs in secondary lymphatic organs and tissues.
84
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

Secrete cytokine chemicas that costimulate B cell differentiation into antibody secreteing plasma cells and memory cells. Signal for phagocyte cells.

85
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A
  • Cytotoxic t-cells attack host body cells that have already been infected.
  • “soldiers”
  • “killer t-cell”
  • specific to one particular type of microbe (NK cells are not specific)
86
Q

Describe the 1st and 2nd lines of defense of innate immunity

A
  • nonspecific
  • 1st line = physical barriers: skin & mucous
  • 2nd line = internal antimicrobial substances
    • interferons
    • complement system
    • iron-binding proteins
    • antimicrobial proteins
    • phacocytes(neutrophils and macrophages)
    • NK cells
    • inflammation
    • fever
87
Q

What is Adaptive immunity and the 3rd line of defense?

A
  • involves production of antibodies specific to foreign antigens
88
Q

What is th MHC?

A

Major histocompatibility complex

self-identifying proteins

89
Q

What are the immunoglobulin (antibody) classes and functions?

A

“GAMDE”

  1. IgG
    • most abundant
    • responsible for natural passive immunity from placenta to baby or breast milk to baby
  2. IgA
    • localized protection
  3. IgM
    • 1st antibody class secreted by plasma cells upon initial exposure to antigen
  4. IgD
    • activated B cells
  5. IgE
    • Least abundant
    • deals with allergies
90
Q

Why is there a significant correlation between a sedentary lifestyle anc caner incidence?

A

More Cytotoxic T cells are produced in an active lifestyle.

91
Q

What type of antibody responds the most during secondary response?

A

IgG

92
Q

List systems of the Chemical buffer system

A
  1. Chemical
    1. Bicarbonate
    2. Phosphate
    3. Protein
  2. Physical
    1. CO2 excretion from lungs
    2. H+ excretion from kidneys
93
Q

What is the cause of sicke cell?

A

When the 7th amino acid, glutamic acid, is replaced by valine which changes RBC structure and funtion.

94
Q

What does valine cause regarding sickle cell?

A

SInce valine is hydrophobic, it causes HGB to collapse in on itself sometimes. blood cells become sickle cell shaped

95
Q

What is normal pH of the body?

A

7.35-7.45

96
Q

What does acidosis cause?

A

depression of the CNS function

97
Q

What does alkalosis cause?

A

hypersensitivity of nerves

98
Q

LIst WBC in order of abundence

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. lymphocytes
  3. monocytes
  4. eosinophils
  5. basophils