Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List the types of bonds from strongest to weakest

A

Ionic
Covalent
Metallic

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2
Q

List the intermolecular forces from strongest to weakest

A
Ion-dipole
H bond
Dipole-dipole
Ion-induced dipole
Dipole induced dipole
Dispersion forces
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3
Q

Water has a high specific heat due to…

A

Hydrogen bonds

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4
Q

Delta G = delta H - TdeltaS

A

Understand how this works

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5
Q

Describe why lipids coaggregate in an aqueous solution in terms of entropy

A

The water forms a highly organized bonding pattern around lipids. When the lipids coaggregate, this organized bonding pattern is disrupted, thus increasing entropy

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6
Q

Release of ordered water ____ the formation of enzyme substrate complex

A

Favors

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7
Q

Adding solute (salt) to water, will increase or decrease the boiling point?

A

Decrease

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8
Q

What is the pH of a solution with [H+] = 0.01?

A

2

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9
Q

What is henderson hasslebach’s equation?

A

PH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]

This means that when you have equal concentration of conjugate base and acid, pH = pKa

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10
Q

The pH of the body is controlled by what three systems?

A

Chemical acid-base buffering (phosphate in cells, bicarbonate in blood)

Respiratory center

Kidneys

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11
Q

Name the five nonessential amino acids

A
Aspartate 
Asparagine 
Alanine
Glutamate
Serine
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12
Q

Carbohydrates are mostly ___ enantiomer whereas amino acids are mostly ___

A

D

L

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13
Q

Name the non-polar amino acids

A
Glycine
Alanine 
Proline 
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Methionine
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14
Q

Name the aromatic amino acids

A

Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Tryptophan

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15
Q

Name the five polar-uncharged amino acids

A
Serine
Threonine
Cysteine 
Asparagine
Glutamine
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16
Q

Name the three positively charged amino acids

A

Lysine
Arginine
Histidine

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17
Q

Name the two negatively charged amino acids

A

Aspartate

Glutamate

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18
Q

The aromatic amino acids can absorb UV light. Which is the best?

A

Tryptophan

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19
Q

What is the difference between cysteine and cystine?

A

Cysteine is an amino acid

Cystine are two cysteines put together by a DISULFIDE bond

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20
Q

Some amino acids are used in the body but are not incorporated into protein. Name two examples

A

Ornithine

Citrulline

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21
Q

What is a zwitterion?

A

A molecule that has opposite charges on it to make it neutral

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22
Q

The zwitterion exists at the isoelectric point called the pI. This is between…

A

.pK1 and pK2 (Or pK2 and pK3, there may be multiple possible zwitterions for an amino acid)

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23
Q

Amino acids are joined by ___ bonds which are formed by ____ reactions

A

Peptide

Condensation

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24
Q

The production of most plasma proteins occurs in the ____. What is the fetal counterpart of serum albumin?

A

Liver

Alpha-fetoprotein

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25
Q

Secondary structures of proteins can form…

A

Alpha helices or Beta sheets

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26
Q

In sickle cell anemia, what mutation occurs?

A

A glutamate is swapped out for a valine in hemoglobin. This will cause the red blood cells to change shape

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27
Q

True or false.. once a protein is denatured, it is permantely denatured

A

False… they may form back, but sometimes they comeback together the wrong way

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28
Q

The main neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system is ___, the main NT in the parasympathetic is ___

A

Norepinephrine

Acetylcholine

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29
Q

Describe. What an axon hillock is

A

The final site where membrane potentials are propagated from synaptic inputs and summated before being transmitted to the axon for an AP

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30
Q

True or false… most neurons have just one axon

A

True

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31
Q

What are the functions of an astrocyte?

A

Regulates interstitial fluid composition

Replicates to occupy space of dying neurons

Helps form the blood brain barrier

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32
Q

What are some of the functions of the ependymal cells?

A

Lines the ventricles

Produces CSF

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33
Q

What are the functions of microglial cells?

A

These are like immune cells of the CNS

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34
Q

What are the functions of oligodendrocytes?

A

Myelinated and insulate CNS axons

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35
Q

True or false.. microglia cells are motile

A

True

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36
Q

What is another name for neurolemmocytes? Where are they found and what do they do?

A

Schwann cells
Found in PNS only
Wrap axons with myelin

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37
Q

The bonds found in the cell membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes are ____, whereas in archaea, its ___

A

Ester

Ether

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38
Q

True or false… anchored proteins are covalently bound to the membrane

A

True

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39
Q

True or false… associated membrane proteins do not directly attach to the cell membrane

A

True

40
Q

True or false… different organelles in the cell has different lipid membrane compositions

A

True

41
Q

True or false… you are likely to see more cholesterol in the golgi membrane than the plasma membrane

A

False.. the opposite

42
Q

What enzyme in erythrocytes will convert CO2 to HCO3?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

43
Q

Since cartilage is avascular, nutrients must diffuse through the ____ to feed the chondrocytes

A

Periochondrium

44
Q

The perichondrium is composed of type ___ collagen.

A

1

45
Q

What type of collagen is found in hyaline cartilage? What about fiibrocartilage?
What about elastic?

A
Hyaline = type 2 collagen 
Fibrocartilage = type 1 and 2

Elastic = type 2 and elastic

46
Q

What is the role of chondroitin sulfate in cartilage?

A

Part of proteoglycans in ground substance. It has a negative charge and repels eachtohter, giving cartilage its squidgy-ness and resist compression

47
Q

What is the weakest type of cartilage? Describe this cartilage

A

Hyaline cartilage (yet the most abundant)

Has a perichondrium
Spherical chondrocytes

48
Q

What type of cartilage are fetal skeletons composed of?

A

Hyaline cartilage

49
Q

Which type of cartilage forms rows of chondrocytes? Describe this type of cartilage

A

Fibrocartilage

Both 1 and 2 colleges
Strongest
**only type that lacks a perichondium
Highly compressible

Found in the knee and intervertebral discs
And pubic symphysis

50
Q

Name 5 functions of bone

A
Support
Protection
Assisting movement
Mineral homeostasis
Blood cell production
51
Q

Define apposition in reference to bone

A

Bone growth is accomplished by apposition by depositing bone on preexisting surfaces

52
Q

What is the most abundant type of collagen found in bone?

A

Type one

53
Q

True or false… osteoclasts are multinucleate

A

True

54
Q

How doe osteoclasts absorb bone?

A

Attach via integrins to bone in locations called sealing zones

Osteoclasts pumps hydrogen ions against bone to dissolve the hydroxyapatite from collagen

55
Q

PTH and vitamin D will stimulate osteoclasts to express their protein ___ ranks receptor to activate the osteoclasts

A

RANK

56
Q

True or false calcium is stored in two forms in bone, the exchangeable form and stable form

A

True

57
Q

PTH is secured by the ___ cells of the ____ and functions to ….

A

Chief
Parathyroid gland

Mobilizes calcium form bone to increase blood calcium levels

58
Q

1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol is formed from ____ and functions to ____

A

Vitamin D and the sun

Increases calcium absorption from the intestine

Increases calcium in bone

59
Q

Calcitonin is secured by ___ of the ___ and functions to…

A

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland

Inhibits osteoclast activity, thus inhibiting bone resorption, and “toning down” blood calcium levels

60
Q

Name three things that PTH will do when calcium levels are low

A

Calcium release from bone into blood

Calcium retention in the kidneys

Activation of vitamin D which increases calcium uptake in the gut

61
Q

What is the name of the active form of vitamin D called?

A

Calcitrol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalcitrol)

62
Q

What feedback inhibits PTH release?

A

Calcitrol

63
Q

Name some things that calcitonin does

A

Inhibits calciu aborption in the intestines

Inhibits osteoclasts activity

Stimulates osteoblasts activity in bones indirectly

Inhibits renal absorption of calcium

64
Q

Name four other hormones that have an impact on calcium regulation

A

Glucocorticoids
Growth hormone
Estrogens
Insulin

65
Q

Defective bone matrix calcification due to vitamin D deficiencies is called ___

A

Osteomalacia (Rickets)

66
Q

What is the difference between osteopetrosis and osteoporosis.

A

Osteopetrosis - osteoclasts dont work so bone density increases and becomes distorted

Osteoporosis - excess osteoclasts function resulting in loss of bone

67
Q

What pump maintains electrochemical gradients?

A

Sodium potassium pump

68
Q

What is the difference between the nernst equation and the goldman equation?

A

Nernst - equilibrium potential of an individual ion

Goldman - equilibrium potential for the entire plasma membrane

69
Q

Passive current flow in a neuron will decay over distance because…

A

The cytoplasm is resistant

This will occur in neuronal cell bodies

70
Q

The sodium potassium pump pumps ____ sodium out and ___ potassium in

A

3

2

71
Q

The resting membrane potential is at ___ mv

A

-62

72
Q

What occurs in the activation phase of an action potential?

A

Voltage gated sodium channels open to allow sodium to rush in. (At this same time, potassium channels are stimulated to open but do so much slower)

73
Q

What occurs during the peak and falling phase of an AP?

A

Voltage sodium channels close and voltage potassium channels open to bring the membrane potential back down

74
Q

What is the undershoot phase of an AP, shy is the refractory period significant?

A

It drops below its normal resting membrane potential. During this time, it cant do another AP. This ensures that the AP only goes one direction

75
Q

What transporter in the recovery phase will bring the membrane potential back to normal?

A

Sodium potassium pump

76
Q

True or false… the axon hillock is rich in voltage gated sodium channels and has a relatively low threshold

A

True

77
Q

In regards to neurotransmitters, small molecules such as amino acids are synthesized in the ___ whereas neuropeptides are synthesized in the ___

A

Presynaptic terminal

Cell body (these can be released both pre and post synaptically)

78
Q

The primary excitatory NT in the brain is…

A

Glutamate

79
Q

Synaptic vesicles reside in three distinct pools. What are they?

A

Readily releasable pool
Recycling pool
Reserve pool

80
Q

Explain the SNARE complex and how that allows vesicle release.

A

Synaptobrevin of the vesicle binds to syntaxin and SNAP25 of the membrane to dock. Then, calcium bind to synaptotagmin to cause the vesicle to exocytose

81
Q

Describe the ultrafast synaptic vesicle cycle.

A

This is a way to reuptake NT. It occurs within about 5 seconds from uptake to being released again. This is the most likely cycle that occurs

82
Q

What are the two NT receptor types? Describe them.

A

Ionotripic - Ligand binding will open ion channels to cause a direct depolarization (Na - excitatory) or hyperpolariztion (Cl or K - inhibitory)

metabotropic - G protein coupled intracellular signals, **relatively slow activation time, **prolonged signal duration

83
Q

The location of the synaptic input matters. Describe this relationship

A

The closer the synapse is to the axon hillock, the more likely they are to trigger an AP

84
Q

Postsynaptic potential summation depends on what two things

A

Location and frequency

85
Q

Define spinal reflex

A

Sensory and motor loops that function independent of descending brain control

86
Q

Describe long term potentiation

A

Occurs throughout adulthood (synapse pruning occurs during development)

The more you use a network, the greater the strength of connections, greater the number…. however if you dont use it, you lose it

87
Q

In the somatosensory circuit, the second ordered neurons decussate at the level of ____. Nociception, however, decussates at the level of the ____

A

The medulla

Spinal cord

88
Q

Somatosensory neurons are encapsulated by

A

Mechanoreceptor cells

89
Q

True or false… a single neuron can innervate multiple mechanoreceptor types

A

False

90
Q

Nociceptors and thermoreceptors have what kind of nerve endings?

A

Free nerve endings

91
Q

Thermal nociceptors are separate from thermorecptors. They have ___ fibers. Mechanical nociceptors have ___ fibers. Polymodal nocicpetors have ___ fibers. Silent nocicpeors have ___ fibers

A

Thermal - alpha delta
Mechanical - alpha delta
Polymodal - C fibers (much slower, sense the pain after the sharp pain, sense thermal, mechanical, and chemical*)
Silent nociceptors - Alpha delta (respond to visceral disorder)

92
Q

True or false… proinflammatory modulators such as thromboxanes and prostaglandins will sensitize nociceptors and directly activate nociceptors

A

True

93
Q

How do silent nociceptors refer pain?

A

They synapse onto the same second ordered neurons as peripheral nociceptors

94
Q

Explain how no descinding signaling must be involved in blocking pain?

A

Peripheral touch inhibits nociception. However, descending pathways do exist and are very effective (adrenaline)

95
Q

Explain how opioids work

A

Opiates interact with CENTRAL pain receptors to block the transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the somatosensory cortex