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Human Form and Funciton > Quiz 10 > Flashcards

Quiz 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the essential amino acids

A 
Histidine 
Isoleucine 
Leucine 
Lysine 
Methionine 
Phenylalanine 
Threonine 
Tyrosine 
Valine
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2
Q

What are the four fates of dietary amino acids?

A

Protein synthesis
Energy production (citric acid cycle)
Biosynthesis
Urea excretion

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3
Q

Name the three drivers for protein oxidation

A

Protein rich diet

Normal synthesis and degradation

Diabetes

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4
Q

Dietary protein in the stomach leads to the release of what hormone?

A

Gastrin

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5
Q

What polypeptide bonds does pepsin hydrolyze?

A

Phe
Trp
Tyr

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6
Q

What does secretin do?

A

Stimulates the release of bicarbonate from the pancreas

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7
Q

What does cholecystokinin do?

A

Stimulates zymogen release from the pancreas and causes gall bladder contractions

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8
Q

What is the active form of the zymogen procarboxypeptidase a and b?

A

Carboxypeptidase a and b

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9
Q

Where does most catabolism of amino acids occur? What is the main strategy?

A

In the liver. Cleaves off the amine group and recycles the carbons

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10
Q

Name four amine group carriers

A

Glutamate
Glutamine
Alanine
Aspartate

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11
Q

The carbons fro amino acids will be turned into ____ once the amino group is removed. Then, what is it converted to?

A

Alpha keto acids (alpha ketogluterate)

Will then be turned into pyruvate

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12
Q

Amine groups are toxic in the body. How are they stabilized?

A

Converted to urea or Uric acid for excretion

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13
Q

How is ammonia toxic?

A

It disrupts sodium potassium ATPase on astrocytes to prevent their K uptake. This will get rid of the concentration gradient so GABA cant work to inhibit signals. Leads to seizures, loss of consciences and death

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14
Q

What are the two common amino acid catabolism reactions?

A

Transaminase reactions

One carbon transfers

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15
Q

In a transaminase reaction, the amine group from an amino acid will be put on _____ to make it _____. The amino acid is thus converted to a _____.

A

Alpha ketogluterate

Glutamate

Alpha keto acid

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16
Q

What enzyme aids in transaminase reactions?

A

Amino-transferases. They are specific to each amino acid transfer

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17
Q

What is a common coenzyme for amino-transferases?

A

PLP (pyridoxal phosphate)

This is also better known as vitamin B6

It is the carrier of amino groups and help stabilize the amino groups in the transfer

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18
Q

What carriers the amino groups through the blood to the liver?

A

Glutamine and glutamate

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19
Q

Intracellular ammonia is buffered by converting ____ to _____

A

Glutamate to glutamine

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20
Q

What enzyme is necessary for converting glutamate into glutamine?

A

Glutamine synthetase

It is an ATP dependent enzyme and adds another amino group to the molecule to make it glutamine

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21
Q

True or false… almost all cells in the body have glutamine synthetase

A

True

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22
Q

Other than amine groups getting to the liver by glutamine, what is another way it gets to the liver?

A

Glucose alanine cycle

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23
Q

Describe the glucose alanine cycle

A

Amino groups from amino acids are transferred to make glutamate. Glutamate transfers the amino group to pyruvate to form alanine. Alanine is transported throughout the blood and to the liver where it is converted back to pyruvate to undergo gluconeogenesis

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24
Q

True or false… the glucose alanine cycle occurs in aerobic states

A

False… it occurs in anaerobic states and coincides with the cori cycle

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25
Q

What amino acid is absolutly essential for the urea cycle to work?

A

Ornithine

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26
Q

The urea cycle involves enzymes from within what organelle?

A

Mitochondria

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27
Q

In the urea cycle, what enzyme takes the amine group off of glutamine to form a free ammonium and glutamate?

A

Glutaminase

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28
Q

The amine group on glutamate in the urea cycle is removed by what enzyme? Once the amine group is removed, the molecule is called ____ and will enter the _____ ____ _____

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

Alpha keto gluterate

Citric acid cycle

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29
Q

The free ammoniums in the mitochondria of the urea cycle will be added to _____ (which involves ___ _____) to form ______. What enzyme facilitates this reaction?

A

Bicarbonate

2 ATP

Carbamoyl phosphate

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 carries this out

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30
Q

Alanine loses its amine group to become _____. The amine group is transferred to ______, which then becomes ______.

A

Pyruvate

Alpha ketogluterate

Glutamate

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31
Q

The amine group from carbamoyl phosphate is transferred to _____ to become ______

A

Ornithine

Citrulline

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32
Q

In the last step of the urea cycle, arginine is converted to _____ and forms _____ in the process

A

Ornithine

Urea

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33
Q

In the urea cycle, citruline + aspartate form ______

A

Argininosuccinate

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34
Q

Argininosuccinate is converted to _____ and releases _____ in the process

A

Arginine

Fumerate

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35
Q

How many amine groups are on urea. Where do they come from?

A

Two amine groups

One from citrulline and one from aspartate… basically

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36
Q

75% of urea is moved to the ____ while 25% is moved to the_____

A

Kidneys to be excreted as urine

Gall bladder to be released as bile

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37
Q

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 is allosterically regulated by ____

A

ATP. More ATP = more urea

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38
Q

some other things that upregulate the urea cycle are increased synthesis of….

A

Ornithine transcarbomoylase

Arinosuccinate synthetase

Arginosuccinase

Arginase

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39
Q

How are the citric acid cycle and the urea cycle linked?

A

Argininosuccinate

It releases fumerate which is part of the citric acid cycle

(Aspartate-argininosuccinate shunt of citric acid cycle)

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40
Q

What is the difference between glucogenic and ketogenic?

A

Glucogenic = amino acids that can be converted to glucose

Ketogenic - amino acids that can be converted to ketone bodies

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41
Q

Amino acid catabolism produces enzyme substrates that fuel __ to ___ % of cellular energy production

A

10-15%

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42
Q

What are the nonessential amino acids?

A 
Alanine 
Asparagine
Aspartate
Glutamate 
Serine
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43
Q

Aspartate and asparagine can give rise to _____

A

Oxaloacetate

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44
Q

Alanine, cysteine, glycine, serine, threonine, tryptophan, can give rise to ____ which in turn can give rise to ____

A

Pyruvate

Oxaloacetate

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45
Q

Isoleucine, leucine, threonine, tryptophan, can all give rise to _____

A

Acetyl coA

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46
Q

Leucine, lysine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine can all give rise to _____

A

Acetoacetyl-coA

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47
Q

Glutamate can give rise to _____

A

Alpha ketogluterate

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48
Q

Arginine, glutamine, histidine, and proline can all give rise to _____ which can in turn give rise to _____

A

Glutamate

Alpha ketogluterate

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49
Q

Isoleucine, methionine, threonine, and valine can all give rise to _____

A

Succinyl coA

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50
Q

Phenylalanine and tyrosine can all give rise to ____

A

Fumerate

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51
Q

Name three important one-carbon transfer reaction cofactors

A

S-adenosylmethionine
Biotin
Tetrahydrofolate

(These are one carbon group donors, often methyl groups, vitamins)

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52
Q

There is some overlap in what amino acids can be converted into. For example tyrosine can be converted to ____ or _____

A

Fumerate or acetyl coA

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53
Q

What amino acid is also a neurotransmitter?

A

Glutamate

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54
Q

The two amino acids ____ and ____ that feed into oxaloacetate, dont result in much energy because it enters late in the citric acid cycle

A

Asparagine and aspartate

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55
Q

What amino acids give rise to Pyruvate?

A 
Serine
Alanine
Glycine 
Threonine 
Tryptophan
Cysteine
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56
Q

What amino acids give rise to acetyl coA?

A 
Tyrosine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Lysine
Threonine
Phenylalanine 
Tryptophan
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57
Q

What amino acids give rise to alpha keto gluterate?

A 
Glutamate
Glutamine
Proline
Arginine
Histidine
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58
Q

What amino acids give rise to succinyl coA?

A

Isoleucine
Methionine
Valine
Threonine

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59
Q

What two amino acids give rise to oxaloacetate?

A

Asparagine

Aspartate

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60
Q

What are the borders of the infratemporal fossa?

A 
Zygomatic arch 
Maxilla
Mastoid process/TMJ
Lateral pterygoid plate
Temporal sphenoid bones
Pterygomaxillary fissure
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61
Q

What nerve goes through foramen ovale?

A

V3

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62
Q

What goes through the spinosum foramen? Nerve and vessel

A

Meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve

Middle meningeal artery and vein

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63
Q

What is the fissure that separates the infratemporal fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Pterygomaxillary fissure

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64
Q

What is the structure that separates the pterygopalatine fossa and the nasal cavity?

A

Sphenopalatine foramen

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65
Q

What nerve goes through the petrotympanic fissure?

A

Chorda tympani nerve

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66
Q

The temporomandibular joint is located in what fossa?

A

Mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

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67
Q

What makes up the posterior border of the Infratemporal fossa?

A

TMJ

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68
Q

True or false, the temporalis posterior fibers assist in retraction of the mandible

A

True

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69
Q

during depression of the mandible, contraction of what muscle pulls both the consular head and articular disc anterioinferiorly?

A

Lateral pterygoid muscle

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70
Q

What are the four muscles of mastication?

A

Temporalis
Masseter
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

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71
Q

The muscles of mastication are innervated by ____

A

V3

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72
Q

What portions of the maxillary artery are within the infratemporal fossa?

A

First and second portions.. give or take

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73
Q

What veins are seen in the infratemporal fossa?

A

Pterygoid plexus

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74
Q

Blood flows out of the ITF into the ____ and ____ veins and can go via ____ and _____ ____

A

Facial
Maxillary
Ophthalmic
Cavernous sinus

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75
Q

What are the boundaries of the pterygopalatine fossa?

A 
Maxilla 
Pterygoid plate
Pterygomaxillary fissure
Sphenopalatine foramen
Orbit
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76
Q

What structures are located within the pterygopalatine fossa?

A 
Maxillary artery (3rd part) 
Maxillary nerve (V2)
Pterygopalatine ganglion
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77
Q

What portion of the maxillary artery branches and runs anteriorly? What structure does it run through?

A

Infraorbital artery

Runs through the inferior orbital fissure

78
Q

What artery branches off of the maxillary artery in the pterygopalatine fossa to run medically? What structure does it run through?

A

Sphenopalatine artery

Runs through the sphenopalatine foramen

79
Q

V2 runs into the pterygopalatine fossa via ____ _____

A

Foramen rotundum

80
Q

Why dont synapses occur in the trigeminal ganglion?

A

These are all sensory, no synapses because they are pseudounipolar neurons

81
Q

The greater and lesser palatine nerves exit the pterygopalatine fossa through the _____

A

Greater palatine canal (inferior)

82
Q

True or false.. you can see the posterior superior alveolar nerve in the pterygopalatine fossa

A

True.. the others you cannot however because they branch off later

83
Q

You can see the zygomatic nerve in the pterygopalatine fossa. This nerve will then split into what two nerves?

A

Zygomaticotemporal

Zygomaticofacial

84
Q

The infraorbital nerve will give rise to what two nerves?

A

Middle superior alveolar nerve

Anterior superior alveolar nerve

85
Q

Vidian’s nerve is made up of what two nerves?

A

Greater petrosal and deep petrosal

86
Q

What types of neurons are in the deep petrosal nerve?

A

Sympathetics

87
Q

What cranial nerve is the greater petrosal nerve from?

A

Facial (7)

88
Q

Vidian’s nerve goes through what canal to enter the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Vidian’s canal (pterygoid canal)

89
Q

Where would you find the palatovaginal canal?

A

In between the vomer and pterygoid

90
Q

What two things run through the palatovaginal canal?

A

Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary nerve and the pharyngeal artery (ascending pharyngeal)

91
Q

Name all of the branches of V2 that are from the pterygopalatine fossa

A 
Zygomatic
Nasopalatine 
Posterior superior alveolar 
Greater/lesser palatine
Pharyngeal
92
Q

Name the four parasympathetic ganglia in the head

A

Ciliary
Pterygopalatine
Optic
Submandibular

93
Q

What branch of trigeminal gives rise to the ciliary ganglion?
What about submandibular?
What about otic?

A

Ciliary - opthalmic
Submandibular - mandibular

Otic - mandibular

94
Q

how does the pharyngeal nerve enter the pterygopalatine fossa
?

A

Palatovaginal canal

95
Q

____ provides carbon backbone for amino acid synthesis

A

Glucose

96
Q

DNA is primarily in the _____ form

A

Nucleosome

Not chromosomes!!! Thats for division

97
Q

Which, introns or exons are spliced out?

A

Introns. “Exons are expressed”

98
Q

Roughly what percent of mammalian DNA codes for proteins?

A

1.5%

99
Q

Approximately how many genes do humans have?

A

25,000

100
Q

What are the two components of the regulatory region of DNA?

A

Enhancer/silencer - binding of proteins that promote or inhibit transcription

Promoter region - transcription factor and RNA polymerase binding

101
Q

Describe the UTR

A

Untranslated region located at the 5’ and 3’ end of the open reading frame necessary for RNA processing

102
Q

What do each of the following synthesize?
RNA pol. 1
RNA pol. 2
RNA pol. 3

A

RNA pol. 1 - rRNA
RNA pol. 2 - mRNA
RNA pol. 3 - tRNA

103
Q

DNA is read in what direction? What direction is RNA synthesized as?

A

Read 3’ - 5’

Synthesized as 5’ to 3’

104
Q

Negative regulation of transcription involves ____ whereas positive regulation of transcription involves. _____

A

Represses

Activators

105
Q

What are the three RNA processing steps? List them in chronological order

A

Addition of a 5’ cap
Intron splicing
Adding of a 3’ poly A tail

106
Q

What are the three functions of the 5’ cap?

A

Protects mRNA in the cytoplasm
Bound by ribosomes to initiate translation
Cap-binding complex tethers the mRNA until transcription is complete

107
Q

Where does a ribosome bind to mRNA

A

On the 5’ cap

108
Q

There are four classes of introns. Describe these classes

A

Two are self spliced

The other two involve splicesomes (most common)

109
Q

True or false…. splicing variance creates different mRNAs and products

A

True true true

110
Q

The AAUAAA is the upstream signal for _____.

A

Cleavage

It sits about 20-15 nucleotides before actal cleaveage occurs

111
Q

The actual cleavage site (where RNA pol. Is removed from the DNA) is rich in what two nucleotides?

A

G and U

112
Q

What enzyme adds the poly A tail to the end of the mRNA

A

Polyadenylate

113
Q

What functions does the poly A tail serve?

A

Protects mRNA tail in cytoplasm

Anchors mRNA during translation

114
Q

True or false… in order for mRNa to be exported into the cytoplasm via nuclear pore complexes, proteins must be bound to the mRNA

A

True

115
Q

What is the first step of translation?

A

Activation of amino acids (charging the tRNAs with amino acids)

116
Q

Which ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA first the small or large?

A

Small subunit

117
Q

True or false… ATP/GTP is not needed for the inition phase of translation

A

False!

118
Q

In translation, the mRNA is read in what direction? Which end of the polypeptide is produced first N or C?

A

5’ to 3’

N to C

119
Q

True or false, in elongation, making the bond for new amino acids requires GTP/ATP

A

False

120
Q

True or false… the stop codon codes for a final amino acid

A

False.. instead, eukaryotic releasing factor is put in and causes everything to disintegrate

121
Q

What is the role of the signal recognition particle?

A

It is like a flag that tells the protein where to complete translateion

122
Q

Where are the two locations where translation may occur?

A

ER

Cytoplasmic space

123
Q

Proteins that are produced in the ER will be what kind of proteins?

A

Integral membrane proteins

Intravesicular proteins

Secreted proteins

124
Q

Where do most post-translational modifications occur? What are some of these post-translational modifications?

A

In the ER.

Protein folding
Proteolytic cleavage

Glycosylation 
Acetylation
Phosphorylation
Methylation
Acyl action
125
Q

Where is a likely site where glycoproteins are formed?

A

In the ER

126
Q

What kind of proteins are produced from those translated in the cytoplasmic space?

A

Nuclear proteins
Structurally associated proteins (like tubulin)
Membrane associated proteins

127
Q

What post-translational modification signals the protein for destruction?

A

Ubiquitin

128
Q

What are the two primary organelles responsible for molecular degradation?

A

Proteosomes and lysosomes

129
Q

Proteosomes degrade ___ while lysosomes degrade ____

A

Cytoplasmic proteins

Vesicular and membrane proteins

130
Q

True or false… in order for translation to occur, the 5’ and 3’ ends must be bound

A

True

131
Q

The majority of fluid in the body is ______

A

Inside cells

132
Q

How many liters = total body fluid?

how many in blood?

how many in plasma?

how many in RBCs?

A

42

5

3

2

133
Q

In general, waste products are ____ filtered and _____ reabsorbed

A

highly

Poorly

134
Q

True or false… the kidneys can deal with nonvolatile acids

A

True

135
Q

Kidneys regulate pH by regulating their secretion/reabsorption of what?

A

HCO3. Although they can also deal with H+, HCO3 is more important

136
Q

If the blood was too alkaline, what would the kidneys do?

A

Retain H+ and get rid of HCO3

137
Q

The kidneys also can increase HCO3 by metabolising glutamine. What other product results form this?

A

NH4

138
Q

What are some other renal functions? 3

A

Production of erythropoietin (increase RBCs)

Gluconeogenesis

Adrenal glands

139
Q

Nephrons are located in the ____ ____ wich is located within the ____ of the kidney

A

Renal pyramids

Medulla

140
Q

Where does filtration occur?

A

In the glomerular capillaries into the nephron. This whole structure is called bowmans capsule

141
Q

The efferent arterioles will give rise to the ___ ____ in which ____ and _____ occurs

A

Peritubular capillaries

Reabsorption and secretion

142
Q

Plasma containing salutes passes out of the glomerulus into the nephron and enters the ____ ______, then passes through the _____, then the _____ _____, then finally the ______. This is deposited into the ____ ____ and then _____

A 
Proximal tubule
Loop of henlie
Distal tubule
Collecting duct
Renal pelvis
Ureter
143
Q

What are the only portions of the nephron that can be regulated?

A

Distal tubule and collecting duct

144
Q

Which runs deeper into the medulla, the cortical or juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

Juxtamedullary

145
Q

Which are more abundant, cortical or juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

Corical (70%)

Juxtamedullary (30%)

146
Q

In the juxtamedullary nephron, the ______ extend part of the way down the loop of henlie and form specialized peritubular capillaries called the ______

A

Efferent arterioles

Vasa recta

147
Q

Around what percent of the blood plasma presented to the glomerulus enters the proximal tubule via bowman’s capsule?

A

20%

148
Q

True or false… the filtration rate is equal to rate of urine formation

A

False

149
Q

What is the urinary excretion rate formula?

A

Filtration rate - reabsorbtion + secretion

150
Q

A normal GFR is about how many liters per day?

A

180

151
Q

The membranes of the glomerular capillaries is slightly specialized. It is selective and only will allow what things to pass through

A

Small and/or positively charged molecules

152
Q

What are the three layers of the glomerular capillary membrane (have one extra)

A

Endothelium (fenestrated, negatively charged)

Basement membrane (collagen/proteoglycan mesh, negatively charged)

Podocytes (specialized epithelial cells)

153
Q

What is the effect of the negatively charged endothelium and basement membrane?

A

Repelled negatively charged molecules and large molecules like albumin

154
Q

What do podocytes do?

A

Form slit pores which size and charge restrict filtrate

155
Q

Describe the pressure seen in the glomerulus

A

High hydrostatic pressure
High osmotic pressure (pulling water back in)
Bowmans capsule has a much lower hydrostatic pressure
Bowmans capsule should not have any osmotic pressure because there shouldn’t be any proteins in there

156
Q

Constriction of the afferents arteriole will ____ GFR whereas constriction of the efferent arteriole will _____ GFR

A

Decrease

Increase

157
Q

How can major constrion of the efferent arteriole cause a decrease of GFR?

A

It will build up to conc. Of proteins, increasing the osmotic pressure thus decreasing GFR.

158
Q

Describe the effect of sympathetic nervous system on GFR

A

Decreases GFR

Constricts afferents

159
Q

Describe the effect of catecholamines (norepinephrine) on GFR

A

Decreases GFR

Constricts afferents arteriole

160
Q

Describe the affects of angiotensin 2 on GFR

A

Prevents a decrease in GFR

161
Q

Describe the affect of prostaglandins/endothelial derived NO on GFR

A

Increases GFR

Dilates the afferents arteriole

162
Q

Describe tubuloglomerular feedback

A

Essential links the sodium chloride conc. Of the DISTAL TUBULE with the constriction state of the arterioles.

163
Q

What is the role of the macula densa

A

The macula densa is in the distal tubule and forms the juxtaglomerular complex

Detects NaCl levels in distal tubule to alter GFR

164
Q

What changes does the macula densa do to alter GFR?

A

Initiates dilation of the afferents arteries and increases release of renin and angiotensin 1 and 2 which causes constrictor of the efferent artiorle

165
Q

True or false… the scaring of kidneys due to poor control of blood pressure and/or blood glucose levels can permanently lower the GFR

A

True

166
Q

When the body osmolarity is high, the kidney will form _____ urine

A

Concentrated

167
Q

True or false… glucose is flirted through the glomerulus

A

True but it is quickly reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

168
Q

Where is most volume reabsorbed?

A

Proximal tubule

169
Q

How are hydrogen ions excreted into the filtrate?

A

Counter-transport with sodium

170
Q

In the distal end of the proximal tubule, what is mostly reabsorbed?

A

Chloride ions. Here, the glucose and amino acids should have already been depleted by reabsorption in the proximal end of the proximal tubule

171
Q

Sodium amount decreases as we proceed down the nephron but not concentration so much… why?

A

Because water is being pulled out proportionally

172
Q

What are the two functionality distinct regions in the loop of henlie?

A

Thin descending segment and thick ascending segment

173
Q

What are the thin descending and thick ascending portions of the loop of henlie responsible for?

A

Thin descending - highly permeable to water

Thick ascending - not permeable to water but lots of active transporters to reabsorbed sodium, chloride, and potassium

174
Q

In the thick ascending segment, what is the primary pump that pumps sodium out of filtrate

A

Sodium, chloride, potassium cotransporter

175
Q

The transporters in the thick ascending segment only have a capacity to maintain a _____ mOsm/L difference, but can overcome this by ____ ____

A

200

Counter current exchange

176
Q

Where would you find the macula densa (thus the juxtaglomerular apparatus)?

A

Distal tubule

177
Q

What are the two distinct cell types found in the distal half of the distal tubule?

A

Principal cells and intercalated cells

178
Q

What do principal cells do?

A

Reabsorb sodium and water from the lumen and secretes potassium into the filtrate. This favors an outward flow of sodium (out of filtrate)

179
Q

What do intercalated cells do?

A

Reabsorb potassium and bicarbonate and secrete hydrogen ions into the tubule and can therefore regulate pH

180
Q

The permeability of the late distal tubule is controlled by ___

A

ADH

181
Q

The collecting duct cells are regulated by ____ and are also very efficient at pumping ____ into the lumen

A

ADH

Hydrogen ions

Thus they can regulate pH

182
Q

True or false… the collecting duct is impermeable to urea

A

False. Some can be reabsorbed thus helping pull water out in the thick ascending segment

183
Q

What percent of osmotic force is due to urea?

A

~40%

184
Q

When ADH levels are high, is more or less urea reabsorbed in the collecting duct? Also… can urea be reabsorbed in the proximal tubule?

A

More

Yes

185
Q

What cycle links the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle?

A

Aspartate argininosuccinate shunt of citric acid cycle

186
Q

Name three pancreatic protease enzymes

A

Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase a and b

187
Q

What kinds of animals get rid of their ammonia by urea, uric acid, or ammonia?

A

Urea - mammals and sharks

Uric acid - birds and reptiles

Ammonia - fish and amphibians

188
Q

Describe the action of glutamine synthase.

A

Adds a phosphate group by ATP. The. Replaces it with ammonia group m

189
Q

What enzyme is responsible for converting pyruvate to alanine by converting glutamate to alpha ketogluterate?

A

Alanine aminotransferase

190
Q

True or false… the urea cycle is ATP dependent

A

True

Human Form and Funciton (15 decks)

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