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Human Form and Funciton > Quiz 12 > Flashcards

Quiz 12 Flashcards

1
Q

____ temperatures will stimulate thyroid hormone production to increase

A

Cold

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2
Q

Describe the hypothalamic pituitary thyroid negative feedback loop. What is stimulatory what is inhibitory?

A

Hypothalamus secretes TRH which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH which then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which then go to the target tissues. TSH will inhibit the hypothalamus from producing TRH. Thyroid hormones (T3/T4) will inhibit both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

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3
Q

True or false… the thymus is the largest gland in the body

A

False. The thyroid gland is the largest gland in the body

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4
Q

True or false… the thyroid gland is poorly vascularized

A

False, it is extremely well vascularized

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5
Q

What is the difference between inactive and active thyroid glands in regards to…
Colloid
Follicle size
Cells lining the follicles

A

Colloid in the inactive gland is more abundant

Follicles are larger in the inactive gland

Cells lining the follicles of inactive glands are flat (cuboid in active)

The edges of follicles of active glands are scalloped with many small resorption gaps resulting form the uptake of colloid

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6
Q

The follicular cells of the thyroid secrete ____ and ____. The parafollicular cells secrete ____

A

Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)

Calcitonin

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7
Q

Thyroid hormones stimulate enzymes involved with ____ thus increasing _____ rates and _____ production

A

Glucose oxidation

Basal metabolic

Heat

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8
Q

Calcitonin is released in response to..

A

High blood calcium levels

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9
Q

How does calcitonin lower blood calcium levels?

A

By inhibiting the resorption of bone by osteoclasts

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10
Q

Name the three key hormones in regulation of blood calcium levels and their effect on calcium levels

A

1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol - formed from vitamin D and increases calcium levels

Parathyroid hormone - secreted by chief cells of parathyroid glands - increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts

Calcitonin - decreases blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclasts - secreted from parafollicular cells of the thyroid

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11
Q

Thyroid hormones are synthesized from ____ and ____

A

Iodine and tyrosine

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12
Q

The thyroid gland produces small amounts of ____ but primarily secretes _____

A

T3

T4

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13
Q

T4 is converted to T3 in what extrathyroidal organs? What percent does each organ convert?

A

Liver - 60%
Intestines - 20%

The other 20% is inactivated by converting T3 to rT3 (most of this occurs in the liver)

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14
Q

What is rT3?

A

The inactive form of T3. It is an isomer of T3

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15
Q

Which is more potent, T3 or T4?

A

T3 (4x more potent)

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16
Q

What enzyme converts T4 to T3?

A

5’ de-iodinase enzyme

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17
Q

How many iodine groups are on T4? How about T3? How about rT3?

A

4

3

3

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18
Q

True or false… feedback inhibition at the level of the hypothalamus is the most efficient way to inhibit TRH secretion

A

False… feedback inhibiton at the level of the ANTERIOR PITUITARY is the most efficient way to inhibit TRH secretion

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19
Q

Are thyroid hormones lipophillic or hydrophilic? This means that they target ____ receptors

A

Lipophilic.

Nuclear

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20
Q

Under stress or fasting, the body converts (more/less) T4 to T3 and more T4 to ____ to conserve energy

A

Less

RT3

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21
Q

Explain how insufficient iodine levels can result in a goiter

A

Without sufficient iodine levels, thyroid hormones are not released/produced and TSH builds up. The increased levels of TSH will cause the thyroid to experience oxidative stress

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22
Q

True or false… thyroid hormone precursors can be stored in vesicles

A

True. Although the hormones are lipophilic, the precursers can be stored in vesicles

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23
Q

Are the half lives of thyroid hormones long or short?

A

Long

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24
Q

What is thyroglobulin? Explain its role in hormone production

A

It is stored in the follicle cavities of thyroid glands. They contain four to eight molecules of T3, T4, or both. Thyroglobulin serves as a reservoir for receiving the dietary iodine. Thyroglobulin is endocysosed by follicular cells and digested by lysosomes to release the thyroid hormones

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25
Q

Thyroid hormones are moved through the blood by attaching to ____

A

Thyroid-binding globulins

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26
Q

What is the best stimulus for increasing the production of TSH by the anterior pituitary?

A

Exposure to cold

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27
Q

Thyroid hormones are calorigenic. Explain what this means

A

Thyroid hormones cause cells to consume more energy and produce heat as a byproduct

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28
Q

True or false.. thyroid hormones are lipophilic and can freely cross the cell membrane and form complexes which act as transcription factors for certain genes

A

Dis is twue

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29
Q

____ deiodination of T4 results in T3

_____ deiodination of T4 results in rT3

A

5’

5

(Yes, the ‘ matters)

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30
Q

True or false… thyroid cells are the only cells in the body that can absorb iodine

A

True

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31
Q

What enzyme converts T4 to rT3?

A

5 de-iodinase enzyme

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32
Q

Goiters can result from chronic exposure to increased amounts of _____ and/or ____. Goiters can also result from ____ deficiency

A

TSH and/or HCG

Iodine

Goiters can also occur during pregnancy or the autoimmune hashimoto’s disease

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33
Q

Describe some of the symptoms of iodine deficiency disorder

A

Goiter

Hoarseness, shortness of breath, cough, dysphasia

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34
Q

If the mother is deficient in iodine during pregnancy, the child may have ____. Its symptoms are….

A

Cretinism.

Growth retardation (dwarfism)

Delayed puberty
Dry brittle hair
Courseness of skin

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35
Q

How can hasimoto’s disease result in hypothyroidism and production of a goiter?

A

Damages the thyroid and reduces thyroid hormone production

Reduced T4 and T3 causes anterior pituitary to overproduce TSH, causing the thyroid to enlarge

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36
Q

Explain how graves disease can result in hyperthyroidism and a goiter

A

Autoimmune disease that attacks the thyroid. Thyroid defensively overproduces thyroid hormones leading to a goiter

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37
Q

Hormones like CCK can act as ____, _____, and ____ hormones

A

Endocrine
Paracrine
Neurocrine

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38
Q

True or false… the GI system functions as a result of the balance between stimulatory and inhibitory hormonal events

A

True

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39
Q

Gastrin is released from ___ cells. And is released due to _____. It functions to____ (4 things)

A

G cells

Stimuli from consumption (stomach distention) and peptides in gastric lumen.

Stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl, and chief cells to secrete zymogens. Also controls pyloric region and increases motility for digestion.

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40
Q

CCK is released from ____ cells due to _____ and functions to _____

A

I cells

Presence of fats

Contract gall bladder to release bile

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41
Q

Secretin is released by ___ cells due to _____ and functions to _____

A

S cells

Acidic pH in lumen of small intestine stimulates secretin release

Stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate and water to neutralize the pH

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42
Q

Gastric inhibitory peptide is released from the ____ due to _____ and functions to ____

A

Mucosa of upper small intestine

Presence of fatty acids > amino acids> carbohydrates

Inhibits gastric secretions and motility as well as induce the pancreas to produce insulin

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43
Q

Glucagon is released from ____ and functions to_____. It is released due to ____ and inhibited by _____

A

Pancreatic alpha cells

Release glucose from cells to increase blood sugar. It is a counter regulatory assistance for insulin

Released due to low blood sugar and inhibited by high blood sugar

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44
Q

Insulin is released from ____ and functions to _____. It is released due to ____ and inhibited by _____

A

Pancreatic beta cells

Functions to increase cell adsorption of glucose to lower blood sugar (acts on liver cells, adipose cells, and muscle cells)

Released due to high blood sugar and inhibited by low blood sugar

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45
Q

Somatostatin is released by ____ and functions to ____. It is regulated by _____

A

Released by the pancreas

Functions to regulate GI hormones in pancreas and GI tract. It slows production of insulin, glucagon, gastrin, and other hormones

It is regulated by hormones

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46
Q

Name the five classes of pathogens

A 
Bacteria 
Viruses
Fungi
Protozoa
Parasites
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47
Q

What are the five roles of the immune system?

A 
Kill or control pathogens
Control disease
Repair tissue damage
Organ development 
Maintain organ integrity and function
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48
Q

What is variolation?

A

First practice to provide immunity. Involves inhaling pathogen or scratching skin and placing pathogen in wound

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49
Q

Describe herd immunity

A

If enough people in a population are vaccinated, these people will in a sense protect the nonvaccinated people from getting sick

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50
Q

Name three endogenous antimicrobial properties

A

Sebum (has antimicrobial products in it)

Low pH

Commensalism organisms

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51
Q

The immune system responds when ____ are compromised

A

Barriers

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52
Q

True or false… inflammation is always due to infection

A

False.. it may be due to dysfunctional body tissue or damaged body tissue

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53
Q

When a break of barrier occurs and bacteria is introduced, what is the first response?

A

The presence of bacteria activates resident effector cells to secrete cytokines

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54
Q

Name three common effector mechanisms that the immune system uses to destroy pathogens

A

Phagocytosis
Granule release
Targeted cell death

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55
Q

Typically, how long is the response for the innate immune system? What about the adaptive immune system?

A

Innate - hours

Adaptive - days to weeks

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56
Q

Which is worse, an ineffective innate immune system or an ineffective adaptive immune system?

A

Ineffective innate immune system because the adaptive system relies on the innate immune system

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57
Q

Complement is produced by ____

A

The liver

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58
Q

Immune cells function through direct and indirect interactions to eliminate pathogens. Describe the two types of direct interaction

A

Phagocytosis - pathogen internalization and destruction

Immune synapse - T Cell - mediated killing

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59
Q

Describe the four indirect methods in which immune cells can eliminate pathogens

A

Cytokines
Chemokinesis
Cytotoxins
Antibodies

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60
Q

Define cytokines. Which are inflammatory and which are anti-inflammatory? (3 each)

A

Molecules that activate and innactivate immune function through cell surface receptors

Inflammatory: IL1, IL8, TNF-a

Anti-inflammatory: IL4, IL10, TGF-b

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61
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Molecules that attract immune cells to a region in the body

62
Q

What are cytotoxins? Name three examples

A

Molecules that interact with cells and pathogens to kill them.

Perforin
Granzyme
TNF-a (can act as a cytotoxin if the cells possess the proper receptors)

63
Q

T cells are produced in the ____ but mature in the ____

A

Bone marrow

Thymus

64
Q

Describe the 5 leukocyte distribution and their percentages

A 
Neutrophils ~75%
Eosinophil ~ 6%
Basophil ~ >1%
Monocyte ~ 10%
Lymphocyte ~ 30%
65
Q

True or false… natural killer cells kind of fall under both categories, innate and adaptive immune system

A

True

66
Q

The common precursor cell for all immune cells and blood cells are ____ cells

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

67
Q

The precursor for all innate immune system cells as well as red blood cells and platelets are ____

A

Common myeloid precursors

68
Q

The common precursor cell for all of the adaptive immune system cells is the ___

A

Common lymphoid precursor

69
Q

Name the common cell cell that gives rise to all innate immune cells but not red blood cells and platelets

A

Granulocytes macrophage progenitor cell

70
Q

After birth all blood cell production (not maturation) takes place in the bone marrow. However in early fetal development, blood cell production occurs in the ____, mid fetal development it occurs in the ____, and late fetal development in occurs in the ____

A

Yolk sac

Liver and spleen

Bone marrow

71
Q

What are the innate immune cell first responders?

A

Neutrophils

72
Q

Large reserves of neutrophils are stored in the_____ and are released when needed to fight infection

A

Bone marrow

73
Q

Monocytes give rise to the two antigen presenting cells which are the ___ cells and _____. Which is better at activating the adaptive immune system?

A

Dendritic cells and macrophages

Dendritic cells are best at activating the adaptive immune system

These both function to activate and inhibit inflammation as well as eat up pathogens and dead neutrophils

74
Q

What three immune cells are involved in fighting off parasites?

A

Mast cells
Basophils
Eosinophils

75
Q

True or false… mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils are all granulocytes

A

True

76
Q

What are the two main types of T cells that we need to know?

A

T helper cells

T cytotixic cells

77
Q

True or false… natural killer cells have a short half life

A

False. They have a very long half life

78
Q

_____ drives B cell and T cell pathogen specificity

A

Colonial expansion

79
Q

___ receptors bind antibodies

A

Fc

80
Q

MHC class 1 and class 2 stimulate ____

A

T cell receptors

81
Q

Name the five classes of antibodies

A 
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
82
Q

Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?

A

IgG

83
Q

Which is the first antibody produced and released?

A

IgM. This antibody can also make pentomeric structures to coaggregate the pathogen

84
Q

which antibody is secreted from mucosal glands?

A

IgA

85
Q

Which antibody is a B cell surface antibody?

A

IgD

86
Q

Which antibody is a basophil and mast cell surface antibody?

A

IgE - these are released to defend against multicellular pathogens

87
Q

True or false… all of the different classes of antibodies will differ in their Fc fragment

A

True. This will result in different responses with different cells for each antibody family. However the Fc fragment within a family of antibodies are all the same

88
Q

Name the two things antibodies can do as part of an immune response

A

Neutralization or opsonization

89
Q

Describe the two types of T cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) - Kill altered self cells

Helper T cells (CD40 - support the functions of the immune system and other organ systems
Several subtypes
Regulatory function for innate immune system

90
Q

CD8 cells bind to MHC class ____ whereas CD4 cells bind to MHC class ____

A

1

2

91
Q

Define primary lymphoid organs. What are the two primary lymphoid organs?

A

These are the organs in which immune cells develop

Bone marrow
Thymus

92
Q

Define secondary lymphoid organs. Name the three secondary lymphoid organs.

A

This is where the adaptive immune system initiates.

Lymphoid system
Spleen
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) (tonsils, peyer’s patches, etc.)

93
Q

What is the difference between negative and positive selection?

A

Negative selection - selection against binding to self antigens

Positive selection - selection for binding to the pathogen

94
Q

True or false… swollen lymph nodes in the neck means that the infection could have occurred anywhere in the body

A

Most likely false. Because lymph nodes are mostly useful for that particular region of the body. This allows the immune response to stay more local

95
Q

_____ are like immune sentry points where as the _____ filter blood borne antigens. _____ are points of pathogen susceptibility, kind of function in a reverse fashion compared to lymph nodes

A

Lymph nodes

The spleen

Mucosal tissues

96
Q

Describe the 9 steps of the basic process of pathogen resolution

A

1) Injury/pathogen infiltration
2) REsident immune cells respond
3) inflammatory response
4) innate pathogen targeting
5) pathogenic antigens presented in the lymph nodes
6) adaptive immune system initiated
7) ongoing immune response
8) pathogen destroyed or sequestered
9) Memory cells formed

97
Q

Name the three extranasal muscles. What are they innervated by? What is their blood supply?

A

Procerus
Nasalis (2 parts)
Levator labii superioris alaeque Nash

Innervated by facial nerve (CN7)

Blood supply from facial artery and opthalmic artery

98
Q

Name the 6 different bone or cartilage structures that make up the nose

A 
Nasal bone
Lateral cartilage 
Septal cartilage 
Alar cartilage 
Fibroareolar tissue 
External nares
99
Q

What is the difference between the nasal conchae and nasal meatuses?

A

The superior middle and inferior conchae are the bony structures that are like shelves in the nasal cavity

The nasal meatuses are the spaces between the shelves

100
Q

Name the major sources of blood to the lateral nasal cavity

A

ICA - opthalmic - ethmoidal arteries (anterior and posterior )

ECA - maxillary - sphenopalatine (lateral posterior nasal arteries)

101
Q

Describe the major sources of blood for the nasal septum

A

ICA - opthalmic - ethmoidal arteries (anterior septal branch only)

ECA - maxillary - sphenopalatine (posterior septal branches only)
- Facial - septal branch of superior labial artery

102
Q

What gives general sensory innervation to the nasal cavity and septum? What about special sensation?

A

V1 - anterior nasal septum and cavity (anterior ethmoidal nerve)

V2 - rest of nasal septum and cavity. (Sphenopalatine branch of V2 via the sphenopalatine foramen)

CN1 gives olfaction sensation to the nasal cavity

103
Q

Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain?

A

In the nasal cavity

104
Q

Name the four paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal sinus
Ethmoid sinus (air cels)
Maxillary sinus
Sphenoid sinus

105
Q

The sphenoid sinus doesn’t drain into the middle meatus, it drains into the ____

A

Sphenoidal recess, which then goes to the superior meatus

106
Q

What sinuses drain into the middle meatus of the nasal cavity?

A

Frontal, maxillary, ethmoidal air cells

107
Q

The hole in the middle meatus in which the sinuses drain through is called the ____

A

Semilunar hiatus

108
Q

Name the five sites of drainage in the nasal cavity. What do they drain?

A

Semilunar hiatus
Maxillary hiatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess

(All those drain sinuses)

Lacrimal duct (drains the eye)

Pharyngeal orifice of eustacian tube (drains the ear)

109
Q

The lacrimal duct drains into what meatus?

A

Inferior meatus

110
Q

Why is it that children get more ear infections that adults?

A

Their eustacian tube is more horizontal whereas adults have a steeper eustacian tube

111
Q

What is the tragus?

A

Triangular flap over the external auditory meatus on the auricle

112
Q

The external ear sensory innervation is kinda scrambled. But describe the basic generalizations of what nerves innervate what portions of the ear. Helix, lobule, tragus

A

Helix - lesser occipital (C2)

Lobule - greater auricular (C2, C3)

Tragus/anterior portion of ear - V3 (Ariculotemporal branch)

113
Q

What nerves do motor innervation in the ear?

A

Vagus and facial.

Vagus innervates closer to the external auditory meatus

114
Q

What gives sensory innervation to the outer portion of the tympanic membrane? What about inner portion?

A

V3 and vagus

Glossopharyngeal does inner

115
Q

What sinus connects with the middle ear?

A

Mastoid air cells

116
Q

What muscles do you use to pop your ears?

A

Tensor veli palatini and levator veil palatini and salpingopharyngeous

117
Q

What artery will supply the middle ear?

A

Branches of maxillary artery

118
Q

What nerves are involved with the middle ear?

A

Glossopharyngeal

Facial

119
Q

Name the three external ear muscles. What are they innervated by? What artery supplies them?

A

Auricularis anterior
Auricularis superior
Auricularis posterior

Facial nerve

Posterior auricular artery
Superficial temporal artery

120
Q

What muscle causes your eyelid to close? What nerve innervates this muscle?

A

Orbicularis oculi

Innervated by facial nerve

121
Q

What muscle is involved in keeping the eyelid elevated? What nerve innervates this muscle?
there is a second muscle that does the same thing but under the flight or fight response, what muscle is this, what is it innervated by?

A

Levator palpebrae supeiroris muscle innervated by oculomotor nerve (CN3)

Superior tarsal muscle innervated by sympathetics from t1 in the spinal cord

122
Q

The sympathetics that arise from T1 to innervate the superior tarsal muscle synapses in the ____ and then follows the _____ to reach the muscle

A

Superior cervical ganglion

ICA ad opthalmic artery

123
Q

The lacrimal gland is innervated by ___

A

Greater petrosal

124
Q

True or false…. parasympathetic innervation input is what causes the lacrimal gland to tear

A

True

125
Q

Describe the pathway of tears from the lacrimal gland to the nasal cavity

A

Lacrimal gland to eye to superior/inferior puncta to lacrimal caniculi to lacrimal sac to nasolacrimal duct to nasal cavity

126
Q

What is the name for the white part of the eye?

A

Sclera

127
Q

the cornea has sensory innervation from ___

A

V1

128
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

Refracts light

129
Q

When the ciliary muscles contract, do the suspensory ligaments tighten or loosen? What happens to the lens as a result?

A

Upon contraction, the suspensor ligaments loosen and the lens goes into a more spherical shape, allowing short distance focusing

130
Q

Light traveling from a distance needs more or less refraction to focus on the retina

A

Less

131
Q

The sphincter papillae muscle is innervated by ___ and functions to ____

A

Cranial nerve 3

Constrict the iris

132
Q

The parasympathetics of CN 3 will innervate what muscles in the eye? They arise from what nucleus? Where do the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse?

A

Ciliary muscle

Sphincter pupillae

Accessory oculomotor nucleus

Ciliary ganglion

133
Q

The sympathetics innervate what muscles in the eye?

A

Dilator pupillae muscle

Superior tarsal muscle

134
Q

What causes Horner’s syndrome? What are its symptoms?

A

Lack of sympathetic innervation to the head

Symptoms include ptosis (droopy eyelid), anhydrosis (decreased sweating), and miosis (constricted pupil)

135
Q

What is the fovea centralis?

A

An area of the retina that has the highest concentration of cones

136
Q

True or false… CN 2 has fibers that synapse in the ciliary ganglion.

A

False

137
Q

Describe how shining light in one eye will cause both eyes to constrict their irises

A

The signal coming from the optic nerve will synapse in the pretectal nucleus. An inter neuron bifurcated goes from the pretectal nucleus to both the ipsilateral and contralateral edinger-westphal nuclei. Then fibers stay ipsilateral from there and go to the sphincter papillae muscles to constrict both irises

138
Q

What direction does the inferior oblique muscle move the eye?

A

Superior laterally

139
Q

What direction does the superior oblique move the eye?

A

Inferior laterally

140
Q

What direction does the superior rectus move the eye?

A

Superior medially

141
Q

What direction does the inferior rectus muscle move the eye?

A

Inferior medially

142
Q

If you are looking down and to the right. Explain the muscle activity of each eye

A

Right eye is using the superior oblique

Left eye is using the inferior rectus

143
Q

What is a secondary action of the superior oblique? What about inferior oblique?

A

Superior oblique - medial rotation

Inferior oblique - lateral rotation

144
Q

What is a secondary action of the superior rectus? What about inferior rectus?

A

Superior rectus - Addiction and medial rotation

Inferior rectus - addiction and lateral rotation

145
Q

the opthalmic artery arises from ____ and enters the orbit via the ____. Which branch of the opthalmic artery runs through the optic nerve to reach the retina?

A

ICA
Optic foramen
Central artery of the retina

146
Q

Name the three superficial orbit muscles. What innervates these muscles? What arteries supply these muscles?

A

Orbicularis oculi
Corrugated supercilii
Depressor supercilii

Facial nerve

Facial artery
Opthalmic artery
Superficial temporal

147
Q

The pharyngotympanic tube opens up in the…

A

Nasopharynx

148
Q

What is the effect of the dose response curve if you add irreversible competitive inhibitor to the mix?

A

Lowers Emax, similar to a noncompetitive allosteric inhibitor

149
Q

The pentose phosphate pathway will convert glucose 6 phosphate into ____ which are precursors for _____. It forms ___ in the process

A

Ribose 5 phosphate

Nucleotides

NADPH

150
Q

What are three fates of acetyl coA?

A

Citric acid cycle

Ketone body formation

Conversion into cholesterol

151
Q

Beta oxidation of fatty acids will produce what two products?

A

NADH

Acetyl coA

Human Form and Funciton (15 decks)

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