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TERM 2 BIOL2192 PATHO 1 > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered “apoptosis at a tissue level?”

A

Inflammation

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2
Q

Name 4 purposes of inflammation

A
  1. Restrict
  2. Isolate
  3. Destroy
  4. Clean up
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3
Q

Name 4 ways inflammation removes offenders

A
  1. Dilute
  2. Destroy
  3. Neutralize
  4. Phagocytosis
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4
Q

What is another term for scarring?

A

Fibrosis

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5
Q

Name 4 different stages that may follow acute inflammation

A
  1. Regeneration
  2. Chronic inflammation
  3. Fibrosis
  4. Abscess
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6
Q

Name 4 hallmark signs of acute inflammation

A
  1. Redness
  2. Swelling
  3. Heat
  4. Pain
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7
Q

What are 2 series of events that happen with acute inflammation?

A

Vascular response
Cellular response

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8
Q

What are 2 goals of the vascular response of inflammation?

A
  1. Restrict area
  2. Dilute and slow down offenders
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9
Q

What is the first step of the vascular inflammatory response?

A

Transient vasoconstriction

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10
Q

Name 7 things vascular endothelial cells secrete in the inflammatory response

A
  1. anticoagulants
  2. vasodilators
  3. vasoconstrictors
  4. cell adhesion molecules
  5. histamine
  6. nitric oxide
  7. growth factors
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11
Q

What are 3 things exudate is composed of?

A
  1. Fluid
  2. Plasma proteins, including antibodies
  3. Immune mediating molecules
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12
Q

What term describes the decreased blood velocity in the vascular inflammatory response?

A

Vascular stasis

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13
Q

Name 3 granular leukocytes

A

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

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14
Q

What term describes the structure of neutrophils?

A

Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

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15
Q

What 4 things activate neutrophils?

A
  1. Antibodies
  2. Cytokines
  3. Complement
  4. Pathogens
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16
Q

What happens to neutrophils after they serve their purpose?

A

Apoptosis, then secretion in pus

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17
Q

Which leukocytes help terminate the inflammatory response?

A

Eosinophils

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18
Q

Which leukocytes secrete the chemical mediators heparin and histamine during the inflammatory response?

A

Basophils

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19
Q

Name 2 non-granular leukocytes

A

Monocytes, lymphocytes

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20
Q

What two types of cells do monocytes differentiate into?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells

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21
Q

Which leukocytes are antigen presenting cells?

A

Monocytes (dendritic cells)

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22
Q

What 4 chemical mediators do monocytes secrete?

A
  1. prostaglandins
  2. leukotrienes
  3. platelet activating factor
  4. cytokines
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23
Q

What leukocytes are part of cell mediated immunity?

A

Lymphocytes

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24
Q

What cellular adhesion molecule do endothelial cells secrete in cellular recruitment?

A

Selectin

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25
Q

What terms describe the initial loose adhesion and slowing down of leukocytes?

A

Margination and rolling

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26
Q

During adhesion, _______ on leukocytes bind with _______ on endothelial cells

A

Integrins, ligands

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27
Q

Name 3 synonyms for the extravasation of leukocytes

A

Emigration, diapedesis, transmigration

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28
Q

What particles attract leukocytes and aid in the formation of pseudopodia in chemotaxis?

A

Chemoattractants (type of cytokine)

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29
Q

Name 2 opsonins

A

Antibodies, complement

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30
Q

Name 3 steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. Binding
  2. Phagosome formation
  3. Phagolysosome formation
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31
Q

Name 4 manifestations of acute inflammation

A
  1. Serous inflammation
  2. Purulent inflammation
  3. Hemorrhagic inflammation
  4. Transudate
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32
Q

Name the term for a localized purulent inflammation

A

Abscess

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33
Q

Name the term for a diffuse purulent inflammation

A

Cellulitis

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34
Q

Name 3 plasma-derived inflammatory mediators

A
  1. Complement system
  2. Coagulation system
  3. Kinin system
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35
Q

Where are complement proteins synthesized?

A

Liver

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36
Q

What are 3 things complement proteins do in inflammation?

A
  1. Activate leukocytes
  2. Opsonize pathogens
  3. Increase vascular permeability
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37
Q

Name 2 ways clotting factors are activated

A
  1. Extrinsic: damage to blood vessels
  2. Intrinsic: when platelets bind to exposed collagen
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38
Q

Clotting factors convert the protein __________ into the enzyme __________

A

Prothrombin, thrombin

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39
Q

How is the complement system activated?

A

When a complement protein, an antibody, and a pathogen bind to form a complex

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40
Q

How is the kinin system activated?

A

Clotting factor XII

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41
Q

What are 3 cells that store histamine?

A

Mast cells, platelets, basophils

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42
Q

Where is serotonin stored?

A

Platelets

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43
Q

When is serotonin released?

A

Platelet aggregation

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44
Q

What substance do phopholipases convert phospholipids into?

A

Arachidonic acid

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45
Q

What eicosanoids are produced when cyclooxygenases act on arachidonic acid?

A

Prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes

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46
Q

What is the difference between prostacyclins and thromboxanes?

A

Prostacyclins inhibit clotting through vasodilation, and thromboxanes promote clotting by activating platelets

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47
Q

What eicosanoids are produced when lipoxygenases act on arachidonic acid?

A

leukotrienes, 5-HETE

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48
Q

What do leukotrienes cause?

A

Vasoconstriction, vascular permeability

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49
Q

What does 5-HETE aid in?

A

Chemotaxis

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50
Q

Name 5 kinds of cells that produce cytokines

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Endothelial cells
  3. Macrophages
  4. Granular cells
  5. Lymphocytes
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51
Q

Name 4 sites stimulated by cytokines

A
  1. Endothelium
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Liver
  4. Fibroblasts
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52
Q

What are 2 functions of fever?

A

Increase metabolism, promote WBC activity

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53
Q

What 3 factors do macrophages produce in chronic inflammation?

A
  1. Proteolytic enzymes
  2. Thromboplastin
  3. Angiogenesis factors
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54
Q

What is the term for an accumulation of macrophages/toxins, surrounded by leukocytes, and collagen?

A

Granuloma

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55
Q

What is the term for the stage of scarring when the tissue pulls the wound margins together?

A

Contraction

56
Q

What is the term for the stage of scarring when the scar tissue matures and loses vascularity?

A

Cicatrization

57
Q

What kind of wound healing involves gauze packing?

A

Healing by second intention

58
Q

What kind of wound healing is also called delayed/secondary closure?

A

Healing by third intention

59
Q

What is the term for scar tissue forming around a blood vessel?

A

Stenosis

60
Q

What is the term for a wound rupturing due to insufficient collagen production?

A

Dehiscence

61
Q

Are phagocytes part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?

A

Innate immunity

62
Q

Which cells live in every organ and carry out regular low level removal of foreign material?

A

Histiocytes

63
Q

Where do T cells live?

A

Lymphoid tissue, blood

64
Q

Which T cells are responsible for antigen recognition and destruction?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

65
Q

Which T cells recognize antigens and release cytokines to promote lymphocyte activity?

A

Helper T cells

66
Q

Which T cells help regulate the immune system, and prevent tissue graft rejection and autoimmunity?

A

Suppressor T cells

67
Q

Which lymphocytes secrete antibodies and bind antigens?

A

B cells

68
Q

What two kinds of cells do B cells turn into?

A

Plasma cells and memory B cells

69
Q

What component of antibodies allow them to bind almost any antigen?

A

Variable fragments

70
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the largest and first antibody produced?

A

IgM (Macroglobulin)

71
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the strongest and most common antibody?

A

IgG (Gammaglobulin)

72
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in body fluids like sweat, saliva, mucus, tears, and breast milk?

A

IgA

73
Q

Which immunoglobulin is mostly found in the upper respiratory tract?

A

IgD

74
Q

Which immunoglobulin is normally bound to mast cells, and activated in allergic reactions or parasitic infections?

A

IgE

75
Q

What are the 3 phases of the complement system?

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Complement fixation (cascade)
  3. Complex attack formation (lysis)
76
Q

What are 3 other functions of complement?

A
  1. Chemoattractant
  2. Opsonins
  3. Stimulate histamine release
77
Q

What does immunization do to B cells?

A

Converts them to memory cells

78
Q

What is the purpose of white pulp in the spleen?

A

Stores white blood cells and plasma

79
Q

What is the purpose of red pulp in the spleen?

A

Stores blood reserve

80
Q

Name 3 functions of the spleen

A
  1. Blood reserve
  2. Breaks down old RBCs
  3. Stores monocytes to be mobilized
81
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary immune deficiencies?

A

Primary deficiencies are congenital, secondary deficiencies are due to exogenous factors

82
Q

What kind of treatment is used for HIV/AIDS?

A

Antiretroviral therapy

83
Q

What happens after an HIV virus binds to a cell?

A

Releases RNA

84
Q

What happens to HIV RNA after it is released into a cell?

A

Converted to HIV DNA

85
Q

What happens to HIV DNA once it is converted?

A

Integrates into cell nucleus

86
Q

What happens after the HIV DNA is integrated into the cell nucleus?

A

Transcription of HIV proteins

87
Q

What happens to HIV proteins after they are produced?

A

Packaged and released as a new virus

88
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is also called an allergic reaction?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

89
Q

What is the term for a histaminic local allergic reaction?

A

Atopy

90
Q

What causes a delayed, severe allergic reaction?

A

Eicosanoids, smooth muscle

91
Q

What medications can treat anaphylaxis?

A

Corticosteroids, beta 2 adrenergic agonists

92
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is also called autoimmune disorder?

A

Type II hypersensitivity

93
Q

What causes autoimmune disorder? (the mechanism)

A

IgG or IgM bind to connective tissue cells, leading cytotoxic T cells to destroy self tissues

94
Q

What is the term for masses of antibodies and antigens bound together?

A

Immune complexes

95
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity results from imbalanced antigens and antibodies?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

96
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity results from resistant intracellular bacteria, causing chronic phagocytosis of self tissues?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

97
Q

What are 5 causes of autoimmune disorders?

A
  1. Molecular mimicry
  2. Chemical alteration of self antigen
  3. Exposure to hidden self antigen
  4. Prior infection
  5. Congenital
98
Q

Why is type I diabetes mellitus considered an autoimmune disorder?

A

Results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic Islets of Langerhans

99
Q

Why is insulin needed in the body?

A
  1. Allow glucose uptake by muscles and liver
  2. Prevent glucose overload in kidneys
  3. Prevent hypoglycemia through storage of glucose
100
Q

What are the 2 components of an antigen?

A
  1. The cell’s major histocompatibility complex
  2. Protein fragment from pathogen
101
Q

What kind of cells are activated by the major histocompatibility complex?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

102
Q

What is the term for the system of glycoproteins bound to the cell membrane?

A

Major histocompatibility complex

103
Q

9What is the term for an abnormal protein that causes disease in animals and humans?

A

Prion

104
Q

What is the term for the ecological location an organism inhabits?

A

Ecological niche

105
Q

What are the most common sites for microbial colonization in the human body?

A

Skin and mucous membranes

106
Q

Name 5 factors that affect the type and number of microorganisms in habitats?

A
  1. pH
  2. Temperature
  3. Nutrients
  4. Toxins
  5. Other microbes
107
Q

Name 4 sterile compartments of the human body

A
  1. CNS
  2. Heart
  3. Kidneys
  4. Peritoneal cavity
108
Q

What is the term for microorganisms that cause disease in almost any individual they infect?

A

True pathogens

109
Q

What is the term for microorganisms that do not cause disease in healthy individuals?

A

Opportunistic pathogens

110
Q

What makes Clostridia bacteria pathogenic to humans?

A

Exotoxin release

111
Q

What do opportunistic bacteria release when they die?

A

Endotoxins

112
Q

Where is cholera contracted from?

A

Contaminated water

113
Q

Name 6 infections that are only found in human reservoirs

A
  1. STIs
  2. Measles
  3. Mumps
  4. Polio
  5. Streptococcal infection
  6. Smallpox
114
Q

What is the term for a living organism that carries an infecting particle during part of its life cycle?

A

Biological vector

115
Q

What is the term for anything that carries an infecting microorganism passively on its surface?

A

Mechanical vector

116
Q

With ingestion, where is the portal of entry?

A

Any part of the digestive tract

117
Q

What are fomites?

A

Objects that can act as reservoirs

118
Q

True or false: the portal of entry is always the same as the site of infection

A

False

119
Q

What are 2 terms for the capacity of an infectious particle to cause disease manifestations?

A
  1. Pathogenicity
  2. Virulence
120
Q

What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?

A

A particle is either pathogenic or not; virulence describes pathogenicity

121
Q

What is the term for molecular features of a particle that cause injury

(e.g. enzymes, toxins, adhesion proteins, motility structures, spikes, slime, capsules)

A

Virulence factors

122
Q

Define inoculin

A

Infectious material

123
Q

What is the term for the amount of infectious material required for infection to occur?

A

Infectious dose

124
Q

What kind of organisms are involved in non-communicable infections?

A

Organisms belonging to the individual’s own microflora

125
Q

What is the term for the state in which a microbe is harboured without obvious symptoms?

A

Carrier state

126
Q

What is the term for a carrier in whom the infection is at an early stage?

A

Incubation carrier

127
Q

What is the term for a carrier in whom residual microbes are present following treatment?

A

Convalescent carrier

128
Q

What is the term for a carrier that harbours a pathogen due to peculiarities of their physiology?

A

Chronic carrier

129
Q

What is the term for novel infectious diseases that are resistant to antibiotics?

A

Emerging infectious diseases (EIDs)

130
Q

Name 4 stages of sepsis

A
  1. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
  2. Sepsis
  3. Severe sepsis
  4. Septic shock
131
Q

What is the term for an abnormal physiologic, pathologic, and biochemical syndrome characterized by dysregulated compensatory responses?

A

Sepsis

132
Q

Name 4 criteria of SIRS

A
  1. Increased temperature
  2. Increased respiration
  3. Increased heart rate
  4. Increased WBC
  5. Decreased PCO2
133
Q

Name 2 criteria of sepsis

A
  1. 2 SIRS
  2. Confirmed or suspected infection
134
Q

Name 4 criteria of severe sepsis

A
  1. Confirmed sepsis
  2. Signs of end organ damage
  3. Hypotension
  4. Increased lactate
135
Q

Name 4 criteria of septic shock

A
  1. Severe sepsis, with persistent:
  2. Signs of end organ damage
  3. Hypotension
  4. Increased lactate
136
Q

What causes hypotension in severe sepsis and septic shock?

A

Systemic vascular permeability

137
Q

What is the most common condition to cause sepsis?

A

Pneumonia

TERM 2 BIOL2192 PATHO 1 (11 decks)

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