Quiz Flashcards
1
Q
Half life LH
A
20 min
2
Q
Half life FSH
A
3-4 hours
3
Q
Half life mifepristone
A
25-30 hours
4
Q
Structure of GnRh
A
Decapeptide
5
Q
Structure of Heparin
A
Polysaccharide
6
Q
Homologous of bulbourethral glands in males
A
Bartholins Gland
7
Q
Appendix of testis derived from
A
paramesonephric duct
8
Q
Appendiceal artery is a branch of …
A
posterior ileocolic artery
9
Q
ligamentum arteriosum from which arch
A
6th arch
10
Q
Source of fetal cholesterol in term fetus
A
fetal liver
11
Q
most effective form of emergency contraception
A
IUD
12
Q
HMB not planning pregnancy
A
LNG (mirena)
13
Q
hormorne release from mirena coil in 24/hours
A
20micrograms/24 hours
14
Q
High FHS, LH, TSH
A
Premature ovarian failure
15
Q
cold intolerance raised TSH
A
hashimotos
16
Q
TVS range hz US
A
7-9hz
17
Q
MOA fluconazole
A
interruption of the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol via binding to fungal cytochrome P-450 and subsequent disruption of fungal membranes
18
Q
MOA labetalol
A
selective alpha, non selective B blocker
19
Q
MOA warfarin
A
Vit K antagonist
20
Q
Risk of endometrial ca with lynch syndrome
A
40-60%
21
Q
Type of ovarian ca assocaited with missmatch repair
A
Endometriod CA
22
Q
Function BRCA1
A
Tumor Supressor
23
Q
First Cells at inflammation
A
Neutrophils
24
Q
Pathological lichen planus subtype
A
erosive
25
Most common type of tumour in fallopian tube
Serous Adenocarcinoma
26
organisims causing bacterial vaginosis
gardenlla, mycoplasma
27
HPL similar structure to
Growth hormon
28
Affinty of deoxygenated blood increased for CO2
Haladine effect
29
paralytic ileus - what electrolyte
Hypokalaemia
30
weaknes and muscle spasms long QT
hypocalcaemia
31
Calcitonin produced
thyroid c cells
32
piezoelectic crystals
US
33
cells involved in innate and adaptive immunity
Lymphocytes
34
Complete molar
46xx
35
Structure of eostrogen (carbon atoms)
18
36
structure of progesterone (carbon atoms)
21
37
prostaglanin OH attached at what position
C15
38
Northern blotting
RNA
39
Southern blotting
DNA
40
Nerve damaged in sacrospinous fixation
pudendal
41
Warfarin Teratogenicity at what gestation
6-12 weeks
42
Risk of breast CA with HRT vs no HRT
x3
43
MOA dalteparine
Xa inhibition
44
nerve root value obturator nerve
L2,3,4,
45
Fetal hb is resistant to what
acid
46
Reminants of upper mesonephric duct
gartners cyst, epoophron, oophoron, paraoophoron
47
Most common cause of hyperprolactaemia
adenoma
48
compliment common to all pathways
C3
49
Vitamin supplimentation nause and vomiting
B1
50
Abx contraindicated in 3rd trimester
Nitro
51
Endometrial hyperplasia without atypia risk of Ca
5%
52
What does this results mean - syphilis +, TPPA -ve RPR -ve
biological false +Ve
53
Growth factor in granular tissue
VEGF
54
Specimen type for chalmydia
endocervical
55
heaviest malarial burden
P Falcialum
56
What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?
Perineal membrane
57
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Prochlorperazine?
Dopamine D2 Receptor antagonist
58
The lumbar plexus is derived from which spinal segments?
T12-L4
59
Which is the most important ion for generating resting membrane potential (in non excitable cells)
Potassium
60
Intracellular ANION
Phosphate
61
Intracellular CATION
Potassium
62
Extracellular ANION
Chloride
63
Extracellular CATION
Sodium
64
Plasma ANION
chloride
65
Plasma CATION
Sodium
66
Cortisol is produced where?
zona fasciculata (adrenal)
67
When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?
15+0
Amniocentesis before 14 (14+0) weeks of gestation (early amniocentesis) has a higher fetal loss rate and increased incidence of fetal talipes and respiratory morbidity compared with other procedures.
68
Which of the following are cell adhesion molecules that bind leucocytes?
Selectins
69
What is the incidence of obstetric cholestasis in England?
0.7%
70
Antigen presenting cells
Macrophages
71
What is the risk of chlamydia infection following intercourse with an asymptomatic chlamydia positive partner
65%
72
Reduced AFP (alpha fetoprotein), reduced beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (bHCG) and reduced unconjugated estriol(uE3)
EDWARDS
73
Reduced AFP (alpha fetoprotein), RAISED beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (bHCG), reduced unconjugated estriol(uE3), RAISED inhibin A
DOWNS
74
What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?
T12 and L1
75
Which factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?
Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left
Decreased temperature
Decreased [H+] (alkolosis)
Decreased 2,3 DPG
76
Which factors shift o2 dissociation curve to the RIGHT
Increased temperature
Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis)
Increased 2,3 DPG
Increased pCO2
77
With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle do Chromatids form?
S phase (DNA replication)
78
What is the causative organism of gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
79
most common causative organism in necrotizing fasciitis.
Group A streptococcus (streptococcus pyogenes)
80
Which of the following is a single stranded DNA virus?
Parovirus B19
81
What is the appropriate response to increased calcitonin production
Calcitonin is released from the thyroid C-cells in response to a raised serum calcium. Its actions are mostly antagonistic to PTH
Inhibits calcium absorption by the intestines
Inhibits osteoclast resorption of bone
Stimulates osteoblast activity in bone to sequester calcium
Inhibits renal tubule resorption of calcium. Increases urinary calcium excretion
82
What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?
12 per 100,000 or 1 per 10,000.
83
Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with liver abscess formation?
group F
84
In the male urethra what type of epithelium would you expect to find close to the external urethral orifice?
The epithelium changes to stratified columnar and then to stratified squamous near the urethral orifice.
85
The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?
MEDIAN umbilical ligament = remnant of urachus
Median Umbilical Ligament
Also used as a surgical landmark
Extends from apex of the bladder to the umbilicus on the deep surface of the abdominal wall
Embryological remnant of the urachus
86
The MEDIAL umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structures
MEDIAL umbilical ligament = remnant fetal umbilical arteries
87
In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
4+3
88
Calculation for confidence intervals
To Calculate Confidence Intervals:
Calculation of 95% CI for mean = (mean - 1.96xSEM) to (mean + 1.96xSEM)
89
A patient is to undergo radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma. What is the typical daily dose (fraction) of radiotherapy?
2grey
90
What biochemical process utilises pyruvate to form ATP?
Krebs
91
Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?
Congenital CMV infection effects 0.2-2.2% (1 in 50 to 1 in 500) of pregnancies
92
What percentage of women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?
15%
93
what inhibits prolactin
Dopamine
94
What is the incubation period of Scarlet Fever (in days)?
1-7 (normally 2-5) days
95
With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic flux?
weber
95
What is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy implantation?
ampullar tubal
96
Mifepristone (RU 486) when used to for management of abortion works via what mechanism?
Mifepristone (RU 486) is an anti-progestogen
97
What activates the intrinsic pathway?
damaged endothelium (Intrinsic pathway)
98
mechanism of action of Ondansetron?
Ondansetron is a Serotonin (5-HT3) receptor antagonist
99
what abx is a DNA Gyrase inhibitor
Ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
100
Glucagon Inhibitors
Somatostatin
Insulin
Uraemia
Increased free fatty acids and keto acids into the blood
101
What is the risk of the infant developing hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy with VBAC?
8 in 10,000 infant developing hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
102
Diagnostic criteria for miscarriage on scan
If the mean gestational sac diameter >/= 25.0 mm using a transvaginal ultrasound scan and there is no visible fetal pole OR if there is a fetal pole and CRL >/= 7mm:
103
From which germ layer does the anterior pituitary develop?
Specifically the anterior pituitary is derived from oral ectoderm, Rathke's pouch. The posterior pituitary has its embryological origins in nervous tissue and is formed from the diencephalon.
104
Which of the following hormones stimulate ductal morphogenesis during pregnancy
Ductal Morphogenesis is stimulated by Oestrogen and Growth Hormone.
105
Which of the following plays an important role in the adaptive immune system?
B and T cell lymphocytes that have immune memory.
Remember there are 3 types of lymphocytes:
B cell
T cell
Natural Killer Cells
106
Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?
Delayed puberty in girls is defined as the absence of breast development beyond 13 years of age
107
The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?
0.2/1000.
108
The incidence of bowel injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?
0.4/1000
109
What percentage of infants with congenital CMV infection are symptomatic?
10-15% are symptomatic at birth.
110
Risk bladder injury in total abdominal hysterectomy for benign condition
The RCOG states injury to bladder and/or ureter at 0.7%
111
Causes of prolonged Prothrombin time (PT) and also INR (INR is a ratio of PT)
Factor V deficiency
Warfarin therapy
Liver Failure
DIC
112
Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?
LH receptors
113
The pelvic outlet is bounded posteriorly by what?
coccyx
114
On TVS what size is the gestational sac when the embryonic pole should become visible?
Once the gestational sac diameter is greater than or equal to 16mm the embryonic pole should become visible.
115
Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?§
thrombin
116
What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
70%
116
a major biochemical buffer in intracellular fluid (ICF)?
protein
117
What is the fetal case mortality rate associated with listeria infection during pregnancy?
25%
118
What is the average oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet according to the RCOG?
12cm
119
risk of uterine rupture with Vaginal Birth After C-section (VBAC)
22-74 per 10,000
120
Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?
IgG
121
branches of pudendal nerve
Inferior rectal nerves
Perineal nerve
Dorsal nerve of the clitoris
122
Which HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) genes is produced at high levels in the maternal interface and is thought to play an important role in suppressing maternal immune function and preventing immune attack against the fetus?
HLA-G
123
The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment
T10
124
acrocentric chromosomes
13, 14, 15. 21 22
125
Which one is not a typical feature in males affected by myotonic dystrophy (AD)?
deafness
126
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency inhertiance
Autosomal recessive
associated with juvenile cirrhosis and emphysema
127
How many genes are encoded in mitochondrial DNA?
37
128
The name of the chromosome rearrangement involving the transfer of genetic material between two non-homologous chromosomes with the total number of chromosomes remaining at 46
Reciprocal translocation
129
Which fetal tissue is not typically used for karyotyping?
fetal red blood cells
130
amniocentesis results take how long to come back
2-3 weeks
131
how does Mosaicism occur
Results from non-dysjunction during mitosis
132
Fluorescent in-situ hybridization can test for how many chromosomes at once
3
133
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can be diagnoses antinatal HOW
Can be diagnosed pre-natally from amniotic fluid concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone
134
Sickle cell disease is caused by what
mutation in the beta globin gene
135
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterized by
Inguinal hernias and a blind-ending vagina
136
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency inheritance
X linked recessive
137
Dietary phytate has been shown to reduce the absorption of which mineral
calcium
138
Nitric oxide is produced from which amino acid
Arginine
139
Vitamin that acts as a cofactor in amino acid metabolism
B6
140
What role does the synthesis of messenger RNA play in protein synthesis
Transcription
141
Deficiency of this vitamin associated with osteomalacia
Vit D
142
Fat-soluble vitamin with anti-oxidant effects
Vit E
143
Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency associated with raised serum alkaline phosphatase
Vit D
144
structure Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Is monocistronic
145
Transcription is catalyzed by
RNA polymerase
146
Transcription is the
conversion of information in DNA to mRNA
147
The polymerase chain reaction results in
DNA products of a specific size
148
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that
One amino acid can be recognised by more than one codon
149
During translation Amino acids have to be bound to...
tRNA before they can be added to the protein chain
150
During glycogenolysis what occurs to skeletal muscle glycogen
Skeletal muscle glycogen is converted to glucose-6-phosphate which is used for glycolysis
151
How many molecules of ATP are generated per glucose molecule during glycolysis
2
152
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with hyperhomocystienaemia
B12
153
where in the cell does Glycolysis occur
the cytoplasm
154
Amphipathic means
Having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts
155
what chemical inhibits iron absorption
tanins
156
Prostaglandins are predominantly metabolised by
lungs
157
The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase plays a role in th
production of NADPH in red blood cells
158
Which enzyme catalyses the rate-limiting step in the urea cycle
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
159
Which vitamin is a co-enzyme in the rate-limiting step in haemoglobin synthesis
B6
160
Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell prepared for DNA synthesis
G1
161
The active form of vitamin A is
retinoic acid
162
Absorption of this vitamin requires the presence of intrinsic facto
B12
163
Water-soluble vitamin with anti-oxidant effects
Vit C
164
Tumour characterised by Schiller-Duval bodies
Endodermal sinus tumour
165
A 72 year old woman has TAH + BSO because of a 7cm complex ovarian cyst. Histology shows malignant ovarian epithelial and cartilagenous elements. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Malignant mixed mullerian tumour
166
structure of a granuloma
Clusters of epitheloid cells are surrounded by a cuff of lymphocytes
167
During acute inflammatory response where do white blood cells emigrate
White blood cells emigrate through the vascular basement membrane into the extra-vascular space
168
Potent inflammatory mediator which is not sensitive to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Bradykinin
169
40-year-old woman had bilateral silicone breast implants two years ago. Since then, she has noted increased firmness with slight deformity of the breast on the left. The implants are removed, and there is evidence for leakage of the implant contents on the left. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be characteristic of the inflammatory response in this situation?
Giant Cells
170
name 4 types ovarian germ cell tumours?
Dysgerminoma
Endodermal sinus tumour
Teratoma
Choriocarcinoma
171
The Arias-Stella reaction is typically associated with
tubal ectopic pregnancy
172
The Arias-Stella reaction occurs where in uterus
endometrium
173
The most common non-epithelial ovarian tumour
Mature cystic terratoma
174
Which one is the most common non-epithelial vaginal cancer?
Rhabdomyosarcoma
175
Ataxia telangetasia is associated with what
breast Ca, Leukaemia
176
Light microscopic features typical of cell death will be observed in the myocardium after
10-12 hours
177
Metastatic calcification typically occurs
In patients with hyperparathyroidism
178
how does Extra-genital lichen sclerosus look
Is usually described as having a cigarette-paper-like appearance
179
Wickham’s striae are associated with
Vulval lichen planus
180
Paget’s disease of the vulva is WHAT
Is adenocarcinoma in-situ
181
Clear cell carcinoma of the vagina is what type of cancer
adenocarcinoma
182
In women using the Cu intra-uterine contraceptive device, the endometrium is characterized by
A mononuclear cell infiltrate
183
The Arias-Stella reaction is due to the effects of
Progesterone
184
Acute endometritis is associated with an infiltration of what
Polymorphonuclear cell infiltration of the endometrial glands and stroma
185
Ovarian endodermal sinus tumours typically occur in who
Typically occur in women in young women
186
Immature ovarian terratomas contain what
Typically contain immature neural tissue
187
Serum inhibin is a marker for which ovarian tumour?
Granulosa cell tumour
188
In women with the BRCA 1 mutation, the life-time risk of ovarian cancer is
40%
189
women with BRCA 2 life time risk of ovarian cancer
15%
190
Carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker for these tumours
Adenocarcinoma of the colon
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Breast cancer
Stomach cancer
191
Granulosa cell tumours are
non hormone dependant
192
A 65-year-old women presents with post-menopausal bleeding. A hysterectomy is performed, and histological examination reveals heterologous components of a malignant tumor of the endometrial glands and metaplastic cartilage. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Endometrial Sarcoma
193
Which ovarian tumour is associated with Meigs syndrome?
Fibroma
Meigs - (pelvic mass, ascites and pleural effusion - usually left sided)
194
what is commonly used to determine hormone receptor expression or receptor status of the breast cancer?
Immunohistochemistry
