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1
Q

Half life LH

A

20 min

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2
Q

Half life FSH

A

3-4 hours

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3
Q

Half life mifepristone

A

25-30 hours

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4
Q

Structure of GnRh

A

Decapeptide

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5
Q

Structure of Heparin

A

Polysaccharide

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6
Q

Homologous of bulbourethral glands in males

A

Bartholins Gland

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7
Q

Appendix of testis derived from

A

paramesonephric duct

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8
Q

Appendiceal artery is a branch of …

A

posterior ileocolic artery

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9
Q

ligamentum arteriosum from which arch

A

6th arch

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10
Q

Source of fetal cholesterol in term fetus

A

fetal liver

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11
Q

most effective form of emergency contraception

A

IUD

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12
Q

HMB not planning pregnancy

A

LNG (mirena)

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13
Q

hormorne release from mirena coil in 24/hours

A

20micrograms/24 hours

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14
Q

High FHS, LH, TSH

A

Premature ovarian failure

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15
Q

cold intolerance raised TSH

A

hashimotos

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16
Q

TVS range hz US

A

7-9hz

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17
Q

MOA fluconazole

A

interruption of the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol via binding to fungal cytochrome P-450 and subsequent disruption of fungal membranes

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18
Q

MOA labetalol

A

selective alpha, non selective B blocker

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19
Q

MOA warfarin

A

Vit K antagonist

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20
Q

Risk of endometrial ca with lynch syndrome

A

40-60%

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21
Q

Type of ovarian ca assocaited with missmatch repair

A

Endometriod CA

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22
Q

Function BRCA1

A

Tumor Supressor

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23
Q

First Cells at inflammation

A

Neutrophils

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24
Q

Pathological lichen planus subtype

A

erosive

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25
Q

Most common type of tumour in fallopian tube

A

Serous Adenocarcinoma

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26
Q

organisims causing bacterial vaginosis

A

gardenlla, mycoplasma

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27
Q

HPL similar structure to

A

Growth hormon

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28
Q

Affinty of deoxygenated blood increased for CO2

A

Haladine effect

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29
Q

paralytic ileus - what electrolyte

A

Hypokalaemia

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30
Q

weaknes and muscle spasms long QT

A

hypocalcaemia

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31
Q

Calcitonin produced

A

thyroid c cells

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32
Q

piezoelectic crystals

A

US

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33
Q

cells involved in innate and adaptive immunity

A

Lymphocytes

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34
Q

Complete molar

A

46xx

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35
Q

Structure of eostrogen (carbon atoms)

A

18

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36
Q

structure of progesterone (carbon atoms)

A

21

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37
Q

prostaglanin OH attached at what position

A

C15

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38
Q

Northern blotting

A

RNA

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39
Q

Southern blotting

A

DNA

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40
Q

Nerve damaged in sacrospinous fixation

A

pudendal

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41
Q

Warfarin Teratogenicity at what gestation

A

6-12 weeks

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42
Q

Risk of breast CA with HRT vs no HRT

A

x3

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43
Q

MOA dalteparine

A

Xa inhibition

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44
Q

nerve root value obturator nerve

A

L2,3,4,

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45
Q

Fetal hb is resistant to what

A

acid

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46
Q

Reminants of upper mesonephric duct

A

gartners cyst, epoophron, oophoron, paraoophoron

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47
Q

Most common cause of hyperprolactaemia

A

adenoma

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48
Q

compliment common to all pathways

A

C3

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49
Q

Vitamin supplimentation nause and vomiting

A

B1

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50
Q

Abx contraindicated in 3rd trimester

A

Nitro

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51
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia without atypia risk of Ca

A

5%

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52
Q

What does this results mean - syphilis +, TPPA -ve RPR -ve

A

biological false +Ve

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53
Q

Growth factor in granular tissue

A

VEGF

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54
Q

Specimen type for chalmydia

A

endocervical

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55
Q

heaviest malarial burden

A

P Falcialum

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56
Q

What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?

A

Perineal membrane

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57
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Prochlorperazine?

A

Dopamine D2 Receptor antagonist

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58
Q

The lumbar plexus is derived from which spinal segments?

A

T12-L4

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59
Q

Which is the most important ion for generating resting membrane potential (in non excitable cells)

A

Potassium

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60
Q

Intracellular ANION

A

Phosphate

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61
Q

Intracellular CATION

A

Potassium

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62
Q

Extracellular ANION

A

Chloride

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63
Q

Extracellular CATION

A

Sodium

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64
Q

Plasma ANION

A

chloride

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65
Q

Plasma CATION

A

Sodium

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66
Q

Cortisol is produced where?

A

zona fasciculata (adrenal)

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67
Q

When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?

A

15+0

Amniocentesis before 14 (14+0) weeks of gestation (early amniocentesis) has a higher fetal loss rate and increased incidence of fetal talipes and respiratory morbidity compared with other procedures.

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68
Q

Which of the following are cell adhesion molecules that bind leucocytes?

A

Selectins

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69
Q

What is the incidence of obstetric cholestasis in England?

A

0.7%

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70
Q

Antigen presenting cells

A

Macrophages

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71
Q

What is the risk of chlamydia infection following intercourse with an asymptomatic chlamydia positive partner

A

65%

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72
Q

Reduced AFP (alpha fetoprotein), reduced beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (bHCG) and reduced unconjugated estriol(uE3)

A

EDWARDS

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73
Q

Reduced AFP (alpha fetoprotein), RAISED beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (bHCG), reduced unconjugated estriol(uE3), RAISED inhibin A

A

DOWNS

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74
Q

What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?

A

T12 and L1

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75
Q

Which factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

A

Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left
Decreased temperature
Decreased [H+] (alkolosis)
Decreased 2,3 DPG

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76
Q

Which factors shift o2 dissociation curve to the RIGHT

A

Increased temperature
Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis)
Increased 2,3 DPG
Increased pCO2

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77
Q

With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle do Chromatids form?

A

S phase (DNA replication)

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78
Q

What is the causative organism of gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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79
Q

most common causative organism in necrotizing fasciitis.

A

Group A streptococcus (streptococcus pyogenes)

80
Q

Which of the following is a single stranded DNA virus?

A

Parovirus B19

81
Q

What is the appropriate response to increased calcitonin production

A

Calcitonin is released from the thyroid C-cells in response to a raised serum calcium. Its actions are mostly antagonistic to PTH

Inhibits calcium absorption by the intestines
Inhibits osteoclast resorption of bone
Stimulates osteoblast activity in bone to sequester calcium
Inhibits renal tubule resorption of calcium. Increases urinary calcium excretion

82
Q

What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

A

12 per 100,000 or 1 per 10,000.

83
Q

Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with liver abscess formation?

A

group F

84
Q

In the male urethra what type of epithelium would you expect to find close to the external urethral orifice?

A

The epithelium changes to stratified columnar and then to stratified squamous near the urethral orifice.

85
Q

The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

A

MEDIAN umbilical ligament = remnant of urachus

Median Umbilical Ligament
Also used as a surgical landmark
Extends from apex of the bladder to the umbilicus on the deep surface of the abdominal wall
Embryological remnant of the urachus

86
Q

The MEDIAL umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structures

A

MEDIAL umbilical ligament = remnant fetal umbilical arteries

87
Q

In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

A

4+3

88
Q

Calculation for confidence intervals

A

To Calculate Confidence Intervals:

Calculation of 95% CI for mean = (mean - 1.96xSEM) to (mean + 1.96xSEM)

89
Q

A patient is to undergo radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma. What is the typical daily dose (fraction) of radiotherapy?

A

2grey

90
Q

What biochemical process utilises pyruvate to form ATP?

A

Krebs

91
Q

Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?

A

Congenital CMV infection effects 0.2-2.2% (1 in 50 to 1 in 500) of pregnancies

92
Q

What percentage of women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

15%

93
Q

what inhibits prolactin

A

Dopamine

94
Q

What is the incubation period of Scarlet Fever (in days)?

A

1-7 (normally 2-5) days

95
Q

With regard to MRI scanning what is the SI unit measure of magnetic flux?

A

weber

95
Q

What is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy implantation?

A

ampullar tubal

96
Q

Mifepristone (RU 486) when used to for management of abortion works via what mechanism?

A

Mifepristone (RU 486) is an anti-progestogen

97
Q

What activates the intrinsic pathway?

A

damaged endothelium (Intrinsic pathway)

98
Q

mechanism of action of Ondansetron?

A

Ondansetron is a Serotonin (5-HT3) receptor antagonist

99
Q

what abx is a DNA Gyrase inhibitor

A

Ciprofloxacin (quinolones)

100
Q

Glucagon Inhibitors

A

Somatostatin
Insulin
Uraemia
Increased free fatty acids and keto acids into the blood

101
Q

What is the risk of the infant developing hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy with VBAC?

A

8 in 10,000 infant developing hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

102
Q

Diagnostic criteria for miscarriage on scan

A

If the mean gestational sac diameter >/= 25.0 mm using a transvaginal ultrasound scan and there is no visible fetal pole OR if there is a fetal pole and CRL >/= 7mm:

103
Q

From which germ layer does the anterior pituitary develop?

A

Specifically the anterior pituitary is derived from oral ectoderm, Rathke’s pouch. The posterior pituitary has its embryological origins in nervous tissue and is formed from the diencephalon.

104
Q

Which of the following hormones stimulate ductal morphogenesis during pregnancy

A

Ductal Morphogenesis is stimulated by Oestrogen and Growth Hormone.

105
Q

Which of the following plays an important role in the adaptive immune system?

A

B and T cell lymphocytes that have immune memory.

Remember there are 3 types of lymphocytes:
B cell
T cell
Natural Killer Cells

106
Q

Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

A

Delayed puberty in girls is defined as the absence of breast development beyond 13 years of age

107
Q

The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?

A

0.2/1000.

108
Q

The incidence of bowel injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?

A

0.4/1000

109
Q

What percentage of infants with congenital CMV infection are symptomatic?

A

10-15% are symptomatic at birth.

110
Q

Risk bladder injury in total abdominal hysterectomy for benign condition

A

The RCOG states injury to bladder and/or ureter at 0.7%

111
Q

Causes of prolonged Prothrombin time (PT) and also INR (INR is a ratio of PT)

A

Factor V deficiency
Warfarin therapy
Liver Failure
DIC

112
Q

Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?

A

LH receptors

113
Q

The pelvic outlet is bounded posteriorly by what?

A

coccyx

114
Q

On TVS what size is the gestational sac when the embryonic pole should become visible?

A

Once the gestational sac diameter is greater than or equal to 16mm the embryonic pole should become visible.

115
Q

Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?§

A

thrombin

116
Q

What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?

A

70%

116
Q

a major biochemical buffer in intracellular fluid (ICF)?

A

protein

117
Q

What is the fetal case mortality rate associated with listeria infection during pregnancy?

A

25%

118
Q

What is the average oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet according to the RCOG?

A

12cm

119
Q

risk of uterine rupture with Vaginal Birth After C-section (VBAC)

A

22-74 per 10,000

120
Q

Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

A

IgG

121
Q

branches of pudendal nerve

A

Inferior rectal nerves
Perineal nerve
Dorsal nerve of the clitoris

122
Q

Which HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) genes is produced at high levels in the maternal interface and is thought to play an important role in suppressing maternal immune function and preventing immune attack against the fetus?

A

HLA-G

123
Q

The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

A

T10

124
Q

acrocentric chromosomes

A

13, 14, 15. 21 22

125
Q

Which one is not a typical feature in males affected by myotonic dystrophy (AD)?

A

deafness

126
Q

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency inhertiance

A

Autosomal recessive

associated with juvenile cirrhosis and emphysema

127
Q

How many genes are encoded in mitochondrial DNA?

A

37

128
Q

The name of the chromosome rearrangement involving the transfer of genetic material between two non-homologous chromosomes with the total number of chromosomes remaining at 46

A

Reciprocal translocation

129
Q

Which fetal tissue is not typically used for karyotyping?

A

fetal red blood cells

130
Q

amniocentesis results take how long to come back

A

2-3 weeks

131
Q

how does Mosaicism occur

A

Results from non-dysjunction during mitosis

132
Q

Fluorescent in-situ hybridization can test for how many chromosomes at once

A

3

133
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can be diagnoses antinatal HOW

A

Can be diagnosed pre-natally from amniotic fluid concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone

134
Q

Sickle cell disease is caused by what

A

mutation in the beta globin gene

135
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterized by

A

Inguinal hernias and a blind-ending vagina

136
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency inheritance

A

X linked recessive

137
Q

Dietary phytate has been shown to reduce the absorption of which mineral

A

calcium

138
Q

Nitric oxide is produced from which amino acid

A

Arginine

139
Q

Vitamin that acts as a cofactor in amino acid metabolism

A

B6

140
Q

What role does the synthesis of messenger RNA play in protein synthesis

A

Transcription

141
Q

Deficiency of this vitamin associated with osteomalacia

A

Vit D

142
Q

Fat-soluble vitamin with anti-oxidant effects

A

Vit E

143
Q

Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency associated with raised serum alkaline phosphatase

A

Vit D

144
Q

structure Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

Is monocistronic

145
Q

Transcription is catalyzed by

A

RNA polymerase

146
Q

Transcription is the

A

conversion of information in DNA to mRNA

147
Q

The polymerase chain reaction results in

A

DNA products of a specific size

148
Q

The genetic code is degenerate. This means that

A

One amino acid can be recognised by more than one codon

149
Q

During translation Amino acids have to be bound to…

A

tRNA before they can be added to the protein chain

150
Q

During glycogenolysis what occurs to skeletal muscle glycogen

A

Skeletal muscle glycogen is converted to glucose-6-phosphate which is used for glycolysis

151
Q

How many molecules of ATP are generated per glucose molecule during glycolysis

A

2

152
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is associated with hyperhomocystienaemia

A

B12

153
Q

where in the cell does Glycolysis occur

A

the cytoplasm

154
Q

Amphipathic means

A

Having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts

155
Q

what chemical inhibits iron absorption

A

tanins

156
Q

Prostaglandins are predominantly metabolised by

A

lungs

157
Q

The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase plays a role in th

A

production of NADPH in red blood cells

158
Q

Which enzyme catalyses the rate-limiting step in the urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

159
Q

Which vitamin is a co-enzyme in the rate-limiting step in haemoglobin synthesis

A

B6

160
Q

Which one of the following stages of the cell cycle is cell prepared for DNA synthesis

A

G1

161
Q

The active form of vitamin A is

A

retinoic acid

162
Q

Absorption of this vitamin requires the presence of intrinsic facto

A

B12

163
Q

Water-soluble vitamin with anti-oxidant effects

A

Vit C

164
Q

Tumour characterised by Schiller-Duval bodies

A

Endodermal sinus tumour

165
Q

A 72 year old woman has TAH + BSO because of a 7cm complex ovarian cyst. Histology shows malignant ovarian epithelial and cartilagenous elements. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Malignant mixed mullerian tumour

166
Q

structure of a granuloma

A

Clusters of epitheloid cells are surrounded by a cuff of lymphocytes

167
Q

During acute inflammatory response where do white blood cells emigrate

A

White blood cells emigrate through the vascular basement membrane into the extra-vascular space

168
Q

Potent inflammatory mediator which is not sensitive to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

Bradykinin

169
Q

40-year-old woman had bilateral silicone breast implants two years ago. Since then, she has noted increased firmness with slight deformity of the breast on the left. The implants are removed, and there is evidence for leakage of the implant contents on the left. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be characteristic of the inflammatory response in this situation?

A

Giant Cells

170
Q

name 4 types ovarian germ cell tumours?

A

Dysgerminoma
Endodermal sinus tumour
Teratoma
Choriocarcinoma

171
Q

The Arias-Stella reaction is typically associated with

A

tubal ectopic pregnancy

172
Q

The Arias-Stella reaction occurs where in uterus

A

endometrium

173
Q

The most common non-epithelial ovarian tumour

A

Mature cystic terratoma

174
Q

Which one is the most common non-epithelial vaginal cancer?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

175
Q

Ataxia telangetasia is associated with what

A

breast Ca, Leukaemia

176
Q

Light microscopic features typical of cell death will be observed in the myocardium after

A

10-12 hours

177
Q

Metastatic calcification typically occurs

A

In patients with hyperparathyroidism

178
Q

how does Extra-genital lichen sclerosus look

A

Is usually described as having a cigarette-paper-like appearance

179
Q

Wickham’s striae are associated with

A

Vulval lichen planus

180
Q

Paget’s disease of the vulva is WHAT

A

Is adenocarcinoma in-situ

181
Q

Clear cell carcinoma of the vagina is what type of cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

182
Q

In women using the Cu intra-uterine contraceptive device, the endometrium is characterized by

A

A mononuclear cell infiltrate

183
Q

The Arias-Stella reaction is due to the effects of

A

Progesterone

184
Q

Acute endometritis is associated with an infiltration of what

A

Polymorphonuclear cell infiltration of the endometrial glands and stroma

185
Q

Ovarian endodermal sinus tumours typically occur in who

A

Typically occur in women in young women

186
Q

Immature ovarian terratomas contain what

A

Typically contain immature neural tissue

187
Q

Serum inhibin is a marker for which ovarian tumour?

A

Granulosa cell tumour

188
Q

In women with the BRCA 1 mutation, the life-time risk of ovarian cancer is

A

40%

189
Q

women with BRCA 2 life time risk of ovarian cancer

A

15%

190
Q

Carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker for these tumours

A

Adenocarcinoma of the colon
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Breast cancer
Stomach cancer

191
Q

Granulosa cell tumours are

A

non hormone dependant

192
Q

A 65-year-old women presents with post-menopausal bleeding. A hysterectomy is performed, and histological examination reveals heterologous components of a malignant tumor of the endometrial glands and metaplastic cartilage. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Endometrial Sarcoma

193
Q

Which ovarian tumour is associated with Meigs syndrome?

A

Fibroma

Meigs - (pelvic mass, ascites and pleural effusion - usually left sided)

194
Q

what is commonly used to determine hormone receptor expression or receptor status of the breast cancer?

A

Immunohistochemistry

revision (14 decks)

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