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revision > 6th deck > Flashcards

6th deck Flashcards

1
Q

Tamm-Horsfall protein is secreted by what

A

Is secreted by renal tubular epithelial cells

evidence of epithelial regeneration

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2
Q

Apoptosis is an important process during

A

organogenesis

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3
Q

Definition atrophy

A

Atrophy is associated with a reduction in cell number and cell size

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4
Q

Definition hypoplasia

A

failure to attain normal size during development

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5
Q

Human chorionic gonadotrophin is a tumour marker for

A

Non-seminomatous testicular tumours

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6
Q

when does re-epithelialisation occur in primary intention wound healing

A

24-48 hours

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7
Q

miscarriage rate 25-29

A

11%m

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8
Q

miscarriage rate 30-34

A

15%

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9
Q

miscarrage rate 35-39

A

25%

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10
Q

miscarriage rate 40-44

A

51%

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11
Q

miscarriage rate >45

A

93%

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12
Q

granulated cell containing histamine + heparin
IgE binds to release inflammatory mediatiors

A

mast cells

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13
Q

1-3% WBC,
Granulated white blood cells with phagocytotic activity

A

eosinophils

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14
Q

dimeric in secretions
15% of total immunoglobulins
6 day half life
activates compliment via alternative pathway
cannot cross placenta

Found in secretions - tears/saliva/mucus
LOCAL immunity

A

IgA

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15
Q

% chance of fetal CMV if seroconversion

A

30%

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16
Q

% chance of fetus being affected if CMV confirmed

A

20%

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17
Q

% chance of neonatal infection if 2nd trimester infection CMV

A

10-15%

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18
Q

Dopamine receptor agonist with high affinty for D2

A

Cabergoline

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19
Q

Measurements of pelvic inlet
- anterior to posterior
- transverse
- oblique

A

AP 11
T 13
O 12

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20
Q

Measurements of pelvic outlet
- AP
- T
- O

A

AP 13
T 11
O 12

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21
Q

selective progesterone receptor modulator
emergency contraception

A

ulipristal acetate

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22
Q

MOA mirabegron

A

selective beta 3 agonist

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23
Q

MOA misoprostol

A

synthetic prostaglandin E1 analoge

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24
Q

MOA azathioprine

A

inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis in all mitotic cells

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25
Q

MOA methyldopa

A

alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonist

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26
Q

MOA botox

A

inhibition release of acetylcholine

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27
Q

gram neg aerobic rods

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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28
Q

single stranded DNA

A

parovirus B19

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29
Q

double stranded DNA x6

A

Hep B
CMV
VZV
herpes simplex 1 + 2
HPV
Epstein Barr

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30
Q

calculate positive liklihood ratio

A

sensitivity / 1- specificity

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31
Q

0.5% -1% WBC
inflammatory reactions - acute and chronic
produces histamine and serotonin
Granulocyte

A

Basophils

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32
Q

Receptor on Niave B cells
1% immunoglobulins
cannot cross placenta

A

IgD

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33
Q

Monomer
immediate hypersensitivity reaction
sensitizes mast cells
binds to macrophages and polymorphs
does not activate compliment

A

IgE

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34
Q

Pentamer
activates compliment and B cell receptors
does NOT cross placenta
1st immunoglobulin synthesised

A

IgM

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35
Q

4 subtypes monomer
crosses placenta
rhesus disease
75% immunoglobulines
activates antibody dependant cell mediated cytotoxicity + complimented

A

IgG

36
Q

calculate sensitivity

A

TP /TP+FN x100

37
Q

Oliohydramnios - AFI and DAFP

A

AFI <5cm DAFP <2

38
Q

Polyhydramnious - AFT and DAFP

A

AFI >25cm. DAFP >8

39
Q

MOA prochlorperazine

A

dopamine D2 receptor antagonist

40
Q

MOA metoclopramide

A

Dopamine D2 + 5HT3 ant

41
Q

Gene Alpha thallassaemia

A

Chromosome 16

42
Q

Gene Beta and delta thalassaemia

A

Chromosome 11

43
Q

SEM

A

standard deviation / square root (of sample)

44
Q

Medication for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

1) PROPYTHIOURACIL - 1st line
2) carbimazole - 2nd line

45
Q

Neonatal mortality from herpes

A

30% disseminated herpes

46
Q

Conditions that increase risk of phaechromocytoma

A

MEN2
paraganglioma syndrom 1/3/4
von hippel lindau
neurofibromatosis type 1

47
Q

Triple test

A

AFP, HcG, E3

48
Q

Quad test

A

AFP, HcG, inhibin A, E3

49
Q

Combined test

A

PAPP-A, HcG, US
11+2 –> 14+1

50
Q

HbAS + HbA2 increased in what condition

A

sickle cell, autosomal recessive

HbSS - homozygous
HbAS - trait

51
Q

Pelvic organ prolapse Grade 1

A

> 1cm above hymen

52
Q

Pelvic organ prolapse Grade 2

A

within 1cm of hymen (above/below)

53
Q

Pelvic organ prolapse Grade 3

A

> 1cm below hymen <2cm

54
Q

Pelvic organ prolapse Grade 4

A

eversion

55
Q

The nerve supply to pyramidalis muscle

A

T12

ORIGIN: Anterior surface of pubis
INSERTION: Linea alba

56
Q

What is the dermatome at the level of the transverse suprapubic incision

A

L1

57
Q

Anterior wall of the rectus sheath between the costal margin and the anterior superior iliac spine

A

Aponeuroses of external and internal oblique

58
Q

Aboce costal margin anterior abdominal wall is what

A

Aponeurosis of external oblique

59
Q

origin of illiacus muscle

A

illiac fossa

60
Q

which nerve pieces the psoas major muscle

A

genitofemoral nerve

61
Q

The blood supply to the rectus abdominis below the level of the umbilicus

A

Inferior epigastric artery

62
Q

The nerve roots of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

A

L2 and L3

63
Q

The nerve supply to the skin over the femoral triangle

A

Ilioinguinal nerve

64
Q

While performing laparoscopy, the lateral umbilical folds can be seen on the anterior abdominal wall in the adult. This structure contain

A

two lateral umbilical folds on the inferior epigastric vessels

one median umbilical fold on the median umbilical ligament (which in turn, contains the urachus)

two medial umbilical folds on the occluded umbilical artery.

65
Q

Which of the following structure, when dilated, produces caput medusae?

A

Superficial epigastric veins

66
Q

A 34 year old woman with 3 previous caesarean sections is found to have a hernia at 23 weeks gestation. The hernia is located infero-lateral to the pubic tubercle. This is consistent with

A

A femoral hernia

67
Q

Boarders of femoral canal
Medial
Lateral
anterior
posterior

A

Medial border – Lacunar ligament.
Lateral border – Femoral vein.
Anterior border – Inguinal ligament.
Posterior border – Pectineal ligament, superior ramus of the pubic bone, and the pectineus muscle

68
Q

what happens in prophase

A

Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms

69
Q

what happens in metaphase

A

Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate

70
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

Chromotids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes

71
Q

what happens in telophase

A

New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome

72
Q

beta-hydroxybutyric acid can be used as what during times of starvation

A

ketone by that can be used by the heart for energy

73
Q

where are ketone bodies produced in times of starvation

A

liver

produced by liver from fatty acids.

74
Q

congenital CMV - incidence

A

1/50 –> 1/500 pregnancies

USA (1/150 born with CMV)

0.2-2.2%

75
Q

what cells produces glucagon

A

islet alpha cells

increases plasma glucose levels
stimulates glyconeolyisis and gluoneogenesis (glucose from amino acids)

76
Q

FSH level considered raised

A

> 30 IU/L

77
Q

calculate relative risk

A

First calculate the prevalence in the control and exposed groups
In smokers: 15/ (15+65) = 0.1875
In Non-smokers 11/ (77+11) = 0.125

Then divide the prevalence in the exposed by the control group
0.1875/0.125 = 1.5

78
Q

What is the inheritance of sickle cell disease(SCD)?

A

singe gene autosomal recessive

79
Q

Inheritance REtt syndrome

A

sporadic mutation

80
Q

conns

A

HTN, HIGH NA, LOW K, LOW CA,

81
Q

What vein does the IMV drain into

A

SPLENIC

82
Q

what day blastocyst

A

5

83
Q

what day blastocyst

A

5

84
Q

innervation ureters

A

T11-L2

85
Q

during oogenesis - which cell has the greatest number of chromatids

A

primary oocyre 46x2

revision (14 decks)

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